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  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • sigleton EXC_BAD_ACCESS

    - by lclaud
    Hi, so I have a class that I decleare as a singleton and in that class I have a NSMutableArray that contains some NSDictionaries with some key/value pairs in them. The trouble is it doesn't work and I dont't know why... I mean it crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS but i don't know where. I followed the code and it did create a new array on first add, made it to the end of the funtion ..and crashed ... @interface dataBase : NSObject { NSMutableArray *inregistrari; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSMutableArray *inregistrari; -(void)adaugaInregistrareCuData:(NSDate *)data siValoare:(NSNumber *)suma caVenit:(BOOL)venit cuDetaliu:(NSString *)detaliu; -(NSDictionary *)raportIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)luniDisponibileIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)aniDisponibiliIntreData:(NSDate *)dataInitiala siData:(NSDate *)dataFinala; -(NSArray *)vectorDateIntreData:(NSDate *)dataI siData:(NSDate *)dataF; -(void)salveazaInFisier; -(void)incarcaDinFisier; + (dataBase *)shareddataBase; @end And here is the .m file #import "dataBase.h" #import "SynthesizeSingleton.h" @implementation dataBase @synthesize inregistrari; SYNTHESIZE_SINGLETON_FOR_CLASS(dataBase); -(void)adaugaInregistrareCuData:(NSDate *)data siValoare:(NSNumber *)suma caVenit:(BOOL)venit cuDetaliu:(NSString *)detaliu{ NSNumber *v=[NSNumber numberWithBool:venit]; NSArray *input=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:data,suma,v,detaliu,nil]; NSArray *keys=[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"data",@"suma",@"venit",@"detaliu",nil]; NSDictionary *inreg=[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:input forKeys:keys]; if(inregistrari == nil) { inregistrari=[[NSMutableArray alloc ] initWithObjects:inreg,nil]; }else { [inregistrari addObject:inreg]; } [inreg release]; [input release]; [keys release]; } It made it to the end of that adaugaInregistrareCuData ... ok . said the array had one object ... and then crashed

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  • forcing stack w/i 32bit when -m64 -mcmodel=small

    - by chaosless
    have C sources that must compile in 32bit and 64bit for multiple platforms. structure that takes the address of a buffer - need to fit address in a 32bit value. obviously where possible these structures will use natural sized void * or char * pointers. however for some parts an api specifies the size of these pointers as 32bit. on x86_64 linux with -m64 -mcmodel=small tboth static data and malloc()'d data fit within the 2Gb range. data on the stack, however, still starts in high memory. so given a small utility _to_32() such as: int _to_32( long l ) { int i = l & 0xffffffff; assert( i == l ); return i; } then: char *cp = malloc( 100 ); int a = _to_32( cp ); will work reliably, as would: static char buff[ 100 ]; int a = _to_32( buff ); but: char buff[ 100 ]; int a = _to_32( buff ); will fail the assert(). anyone have a solution for this without writing custom linker scripts? or any ideas how to arrange the linker section for stack data, would appear it is being put in this section in the linker script: .lbss : { *(.dynlbss) *(.lbss .lbss.* .gnu.linkonce.lb.*) *(LARGE_COMMON) } thanks!

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  • how to change ASP.NET Configuration tool connection string

    - by Zviadi
    Hello, how can I change ASP.NET Configuration tool-s connection string name? (Which connection string will ASP.NET Configuration tool will use) I'm learning ASP.NET and everywhere and in book that I'm reading now theres connection string named: LocalSqlServer. I want to use my local sql server database instead of sql express to store Roles, Membership and other data. I have used aspnet_regsql.exe to create needed data structures in my database. after that I changed my web.config to look like: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> but when I run ASP.NET Configuration tool it says that: "The connection name 'ApplicationServices' was not found in the applications configuration or the connection string is empty." ASP.NET Configuration tool uses connection string named: ApplicationServices not LocalSqlServer. cause of that I have to modify web.config to: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> and everything works fine. I wish to know why the hell my web site uses connection string named: ApplicationServices and all books and online documentations uses LocalSqlServer? and how to change it to LocalSqlServer? I have: Windows 7 Sql Server 2008 R2 Visual Studio 2010 Premium Project type is website

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  • A dynamic array of a class, inside another separate class?

    - by pinnacler
    I'm working on a robot localization simulator and I created a class called "landmark". The end result is going to be a robot that is always centered and always faces the top of the screen. As it turns, the birds eye view map will rotate around the robot. To accomplish this, I'm assuming I can rotate one class and have all elements inside rotate as well. So, the landmark class has properties x,y, label, and radius. This is suppose to simulate a tree location in a forest. To test everything, I need "forest data," and I wrote a script to generate 100 trees in a 100m x 100m area. The script automatically generates values within an acceptable range for x,y, radius. The generated data is stored in an object called tempForest and is 100x3. Ideally, I want to create a class called "landmarks" (plural) that has 100 landmark instances inside. How would I instantiate 100 instances of landmark in one instance of landmarks using that randomly generated data? Ideally, I'd just type treeBeacons = landmarks(); and it would randomly populate 100 (user definable, set in config file) instances with x, y, radius data. I'm not sure how to deal with a dynamic array of class "Landmark", inside another single class "landmarks." Any ideas?

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  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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  • a + sing in email address

    - by d.andreykiv
    Hi. I need to submit an email address with a "+" sign and validate in on server. But server receives email like "[email protected]" as "aaa [email protected]". I send all data as POST request with following code NSURL* url = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", url, @"/signUp"]]; NSString *post = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"&email=%@&userName=%@&password=%@", user.email, user.userName, user.password]; NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:NO]; NSData* data = [self sendRequest:url postData:postData]; post variable before encoding has value &[email protected]&userName=Asdfasdfadsfadsf&password=sdfasdf after encoding it is same &[email protected]&userName=Asdfasdfadsfadsf&password=sdfasdf Method I use to send request looks like following code: -(id) sendRequest:(NSURL*) url postData:(NSData*)postData { // Create request NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",[postData length]]; [request setURL:url]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Current-Type"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; NSURLResponse *urlResponse; NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&urlResponse error:nil]; [request release]; return data; }

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  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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  • Fix a 404: missing parameters error from a GET request to CherryPy

    - by norabora
    I'm making a webpage using CherryPy for the server-side, HTML, CSS and jQuery on the client-side. I'm also using a mySQL database. I have a working form for users to sign up to the site - create a username and password. I use jQuery to send an AJAX POST request to the CherryPy which queries the database to see if that username exists. If the username exists, alert the user, if it doesn't, add it to the database and alert success. $.post('submit', postdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Successful jQuery POST. I want to change the form so that instead of checking that the username exists on submit, a GET request is made as on the blur event from the username input. The function gets called, and it goes to the CherryPy, but then I get an error that says: HTTPError: (404, 'Missing parameters: username'). $.get('checkUsername', getdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Unsuccessful jQuery GET. The CherryPy: @cherrypy.expose def submit(self, **params): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() com1 = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + params["username"] + "'" b = c.execute(com1).fetchall() if not len(b) > 0: com2 = "INSERT INTO `6470`.`users` (`username` ,`password` ,`website` ,`key`) VALUES ('" com2 += params["username"] + "', MD5( '" + params["password"] + "'), '', NULL);" a = c.execute(com2) c.close() return simplejson.dumps("Success!") #login user and send them to home page c.close() return simplejson.dumps("This username is not available.") @cherrypy.expose def checkUsername(self, username): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() command = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + username + "'" a = c.execute(command).fetchall(); c.close() sys.stdout.write(str(a)) return simplejson.dumps("") I can't see any differences between the two so I don't know why the GET request is giving me a problem. Any insight into what I might be doing wrong would be helpful. If you have ideas about the jQuery, CherryPy, config files, anything, I'd really appreciate it.

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  • Selenium RC: Selecting elements using the CSS :contains pseudo-class

    - by Andrew
    I would like to assert that a table row contains the data that I expect in two different tables. Using the following HTML as an example: <table> <tr> <th>Table 1</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>Row 1 Col 2</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <th>Table 2</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>different data</td> </tr> </table> The following assertion passes: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1)'); However, this one doesn't: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1)'); And ultimately, I need to be able to test that both columns within the table row contain the data that I expect: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)'); $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 2) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(different data)'); What am I doing wrong? How can I achieve this? Update: Sounds like the problem is a bug in Selenium when trying to select descendants. The only way I was able to get this to work was to add an extra identifier on the table so I could tell which one I was working with: /* HTML */ <table id="table-1"> /* PHP */ $this->assertElementPresent("css=#table-1 tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)");

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  • Android listing design problem with cursors

    - by Priyank
    Hi. I have a following situation in my android app. I have an app that fetches messages from inbox, sent items and drafts based on search keywords. I use to accomplish this by fetching cursors for each manually based on selection by user and then populating them in a custom data holder object. Filter those results based on given keywords and then manually render view with respective data. Someone suggested that I should use a custom Cursor adapter to bind view and my cursor data. So I tried doing that. Now what I am doing is this: Fetch individual cursors for inbox, sent items and drafts. Merge them into one using Merge cursor and then pass that back to my CursorAdapter implmentation. Now where or how do I filter my cursor data based on keywords; because now binding will ensure that they are directly rendered to view on list. Also, some post fetching operation like fetching sender's contact pic and all will be something that I do not want to move to adapter. If I do all this processing in adapter; it'll be heavy and ugly. How could I have designed it better such that it performs and the responsibilities are shared and distributed. Any ideas will be helpful.

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  • Wnat is the preferred method of building extremely lightweight business object / DAL now that I have

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have completed a simple database for a project. Only 6tables. Of the 6, one is a "lookup" table. There is one "master" table that is the driver for the system. It is referenced as a foreign key by the other four tables. Give that this step is completed. What is the FASTEST, EASIEST way to create POCOs/BizObjects that can load load the data and the child data. Here are my CAVEATS. *I don't want to spend more than 30-60 minutes learning how? *There is very little biz logic needed in the POCOs. They will pretty much load data. Don't even really need to write back data. *I already know CSLA (up to version 3) but I feel that is overkill for this little project. *Nevertheless, I would love it if it ROOT objects could have collection classes that contain the CHILD objects as in CSLA...but again, without using CSLA. *Please give the answer for .NET 35 but also if I was restricted to only use .NET 20. *Ideally I could just point a tool at the database and the POCOs would be genn'ed. *FREE Just curious what you guys use for this kind of scenario. I understand that this question is subjective but I want to hear a variety of answers. Seth

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  • PHP weirdness extending IMagick class

    - by Jamie Carl
    This is a really weird one. I have some code that is happily working on version 2.1.1RC1 of the php5-imagick module. It's basically just a class I wrote that extends the Imagick class and manages images stored in a database. Since upgrading to version 3.0.0RC1 (thankfully only on my dev box) things have gone to hell. It seems that object members are writeable but are NOT readable. Take the following sample code: class db_image extends IMagick { private $data; function __construct( $id = null ){ parent::__construct(); $this->data = 'some plain text'; echo $this->data; } This will output absolutely NOTHING. My debugger indicates that the contents of $this-data are the correct string value, but I am unable to read the value back out of the member variable. Seriously. WTF? Does anyone know what is causing this or has seen it before? I don't even know how to replicate this behaviour in my own classes.

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  • ajax login problem

    - by rdanee
    $(document).ready(function() { $("form#login_form").submit(function() { var login_username = $('#login_username').attr('value'); var login_password = $('#login_password').attr('value'); type: "POST", $.ajax({ url: "login.php", data: "username="+ login_username +"& password="+ login_password, success: function(data){ alert(data); if (data == "ok"){ $('form#login_form').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); } } }); return false; }); Login.php: <?php include("settings.php"); $query = "select * from users where username = '{$_POST['login_username']}' and password = md5('{$_POST['login_password']}')"; $query = mysql_query($query, $connection); if ( mysql_num_rows($query) == 1 ) { print "ok"; $array = mysql_fetch_array($query); if ( $_POST['stay'] ) { $time = time()+2592000; } else { $time = 0; } } else { print "no"; } mysql_close($connection); ?> My problem: In the alert the message always "no" whether username/password is correct, however on the site "ok" appears when username/pw is correct. I have read the other questions in connection with this problem, but I couldn't solve the response problem from login.php with Json. Could you help me how should I response to the ajax calling? ( with a code if it is possible) Thank you very much, and sorry for questioning again.

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  • Dynamic loading a class in java with a different package name

    - by C. Ross
    Is it possible to load a class in Java and 'fake' the package name/canonical name of a class? I tried doing this, the obvious way, but I get a "class name doesn't match" message in a ClassDefNotFoundException. The reason I'm doing this is I'm trying to load an API that was written in the default package so that I can use it directly without using reflection. The code will compile against the class in a folder structure representing the package and a package name import. ie: ./com/DefaultPackageClass.class // ... import com.DefaultPackageClass; import java.util.Vector; // ... My current code is as follows: public Class loadClass(String name) throws ClassNotFoundException { if(!CLASS_NAME.equals(name)) return super.loadClass(name); try { URL myUrl = new URL(fileUrl); URLConnection connection = myUrl.openConnection(); InputStream input = connection.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int data = input.read(); while(data != -1){ buffer.write(data); data = input.read(); } input.close(); byte[] classData = buffer.toByteArray(); return defineClass(CLASS_NAME, classData, 0, classData.length); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } catch (IOException e) { throw new UndeclaredThrowableException(e); } }

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  • Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

    - by James Wiseman
    I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

    - by Stephen Borg
    Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

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  • Using shared_ptr to implement RCU (read-copy-update)?

    - by yongsun
    I'm very interested in the user-space RCU (read-copy-update), and trying to simulate one via tr1::shared_ptr, here is the code, while I'm really a newbie in concurrent programming, would some experts help me to review? The basic idea is, reader calls get_reading_copy() to gain the pointer of current protected data (let's say it's generation one, or G1). writer calls get_updating_copy() to gain a copy of the G1 (let's say it's G2), and only one writer is allowed to enter the critical section. After the updating is done, writer calls update() to do a swap, and make the m_data_ptr pointing to data G2. The ongoing readers and the writer now hold the shared_ptr of G1, and either a reader or a writer will eventually deallocate the G1 data. Any new readers would get the pointer to G2, and a new writer would get the copy of G2 (let's say G3). It's possible the G1 is not released yet, so multiple generations of data my co-exists. template <typename T> class rcu_protected { public: typedef T type; typedef std::tr1::shared_ptr<type> rcu_pointer; rcu_protected() : m_data_ptr (new type()) {} rcu_pointer get_reading_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); return m_data_ptr; } rcu_pointer get_updating_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); while (!CAS (m_is_writing, 0, 1)) {/* do sleep for back-off when exceeding maximum retry times */} rcu_pointer new_data_ptr(new type(*m_data_ptr)); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a read barrier to protect the loading of // new_data_ptr not to be re-ordered before its construction _ReadBarrier(); return new_data_ptr; } void update (rcu_pointer new_data_ptr) { while (!CAS (m_is_swapping, 0, 1)) {} m_data_ptr.swap (new_data_ptr); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a write barrier to protect the assignments of // m_is_writing/m_is_swapping be re-ordered bofore the swapping _WriteBarrier(); m_is_writing = 0; m_is_swapping = 0; } private: volatile long m_is_writing; volatile long m_is_swapping; rcu_pointer m_data_ptr; };

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  • SqlCeResultSet Problem

    - by Vlad
    Hello, I have a SmartDevice project (.NetCF 2.0) configured to be tested on the USA Windows Mobile 5.0 Pocket PC R2 Emulator. My project uses SqlCe 3.0. Understanding that a SmartDevice project is "more carefull" with the device's memory I am using SqlCeResultSets. The result sets are strongly typed, autogenerated by Visual Studio 2008 using the custom tool MSResultSetGenerator. The problem I am facing is that the result set does not recognize any column names. The autogenerated code for the fields does not work. In the client code I am using InfoResultSet rs = new InfoResultSet(); rs.Open(); rs.ReadFirst(); string myFormattedDate = rs.MyDateColumn.ToString("dd/MM/yyyy"); When the execution on the emulator reaches the rs.MyDateColumn the application throws an System.IndexOutOfRangeException. Investigating the stack trace at System.Data.SqlServerCe.FieldNameLookup.GetOrdinal() at System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeDataReader.GetOrdinal() I've tested the GetOrdinal method (in my autogenerated class that inherits SqlCeResultSet): this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"); // throws an exception this.GetName(1); // returns "MyDateColumn" this.GetOrdinal(this.GetName(1)); //throws an exception :) [edit added] The table exists and it's filled with data. Using typed DataSets works like a charm. Regenerating the SqlCeResultSet does not solve the issue, the problem remains. The problem basically is that I am not able to access a column by it's name. The data can be accessed trough this.GetDateTime(1)using the column ordinal. The application fails executing this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"). Also I have updated Visual Studio 2008 to Service Pack 1. Additionaly I am developing the project on a virtual machine with Windows XP SP 2, but in my opinion if the medium is virtual or not should have no effect on the developing. Am I doing something wrong or am I missing something? Thank you.

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  • pushing view controller inside a tab bar from app delegate, after a notification.

    - by shani
    hi i have an app with tab bar and a navigation controller inside every tab. i have set a notification that when it lunches the user can get lunch the app by pressing the action on the alert. i want to redirect the user to one of the views inside one of the controllers. i have tried this: (void)application:(UIApplication *)app didReceiveLocalNotification:(UILocalNotification *)notif { NSArray *data = [notif.userInfo objectForKey:@"todoDate"]; NSInteger ind = [[data objectAtIndex:2] integerValue]; QuickViewController *detailViewController ; detailViewController = [[QuickViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"QuickViewController" bundle:nil]; detailViewController.title = @"Edit"; detailViewController.personName = [data objectAtIndex:0]; detailViewController.DelitionDate=[data objectAtIndex:1]; detailViewController.personCategory=@"NO Category"; detailViewController.personID = ind r ; rootControler.selectedIndex = 1; [rootControler.tabBarController.selectedViewController.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; } but nothing is happening (no crashing) except of the :rootControler.selectedIndex = 1; when i tried : presentModalViewController i got the view perfectly but without the navigation controller. thanks shani

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  • How do I cast a void pointer to a struct in C?

    - by Rowhawn
    In a project I'm writing code for, I have a void pointer, "implementation", which is a member of a "Hash_map" struct, and points to an "Array_hash_map" struct. The concepts behind this project are not very realistic, but bear with me. The specifications of the project ask that I cast the void pointer "implementation" to an "Array_hash_map" before I can use it in any functions. My question, specifically is, what do I do in the functions to cast the void pointers to the desired struct? Is there one statement at the top of each function that casts them or do I make the cast every time I use "implementation"? Here are the typedefs the structs of a Hash_map and Array_hash_map as well as a couple functions making use of them. typedef struct { Key_compare_fn key_compare_fn; Key_delete_fn key_delete_fn; Data_compare_fn data_compare_fn; Data_delete_fn data_delete_fn; void *implementation; } Hash_map; typedef struct Array_hash_map{ struct Unit *array; int size; int capacity; } Array_hash_map; typedef struct Unit{ Key key; Data data; } Unit; functions: /* Sets the value parameter to the value associated with the key parameter in the Hash_map. */ int get(Hash_map *map, Key key, Data *value){ int i; if (map == NULL || value == NULL) return 0; for (i = 0; i < map->implementation->size; i++){ if (map->key_compare_fn(map->implementation->array[i].key, key) == 0){ *value = map->implementation->array[i].data; return 1; } } return 0; } /* Returns the number of values that can be stored in the Hash_map, since it is represented by an array. */ int current_capacity(Hash_map map){ return map.implementation->capacity; }

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  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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  • Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

    - by wich
    I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

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  • Write raw struct contents (bytes) to a file in C. Confused about actual size written

    - by d11wtq
    Basic question, but I expected this struct to occupy 13 bytes of space (1 for the char, 12 for the 3 unsigned ints). Instead, sizeof(ESPR_REL_HEADER) gives me 16 bytes. typedef struct { unsigned char version; unsigned int root_node_num; unsigned int node_size; unsigned int node_count; } ESPR_REL_HEADER; What I'm trying to do is initialize this struct with some values and write the data it contains (the raw bytes) to the start of a file, so that when I open this file I later I can reconstruct this struct and gain some meta data about what the rest of the file contains. I'm initializing the struct and writing it to the file like this: int esprime_write_btree_header(FILE * fp, unsigned int node_size) { ESPR_REL_HEADER header = { .version = 1, .root_node_num = 0, .node_size = node_size, .node_count = 1 }; return fwrite(&header, sizeof(ESPR_REL_HEADER), 1, fp); } Where node_size is currently 4 while I experiment. The file contains the following data after I write the struct to it: -bash$ hexdump test.dat 0000000 01 bf f9 8b 00 00 00 00 04 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 0000010 I expect it to actually contain: -bash$ hexdump test.dat 0000000 01 00 00 00 00 04 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 0000010 Excuse the newbiness. I am trying to learn :) How do I efficiently write just the data components of my struct to a file?

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