Search Results

Search found 60391 results on 2416 pages for 'data generation'.

Page 815/2416 | < Previous Page | 811 812 813 814 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822  | Next Page >

  • how to change ASP.NET Configuration tool connection string

    - by Zviadi
    Hello, how can I change ASP.NET Configuration tool-s connection string name? (Which connection string will ASP.NET Configuration tool will use) I'm learning ASP.NET and everywhere and in book that I'm reading now theres connection string named: LocalSqlServer. I want to use my local sql server database instead of sql express to store Roles, Membership and other data. I have used aspnet_regsql.exe to create needed data structures in my database. after that I changed my web.config to look like: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> but when I run ASP.NET Configuration tool it says that: "The connection name 'ApplicationServices' was not found in the applications configuration or the connection string is empty." ASP.NET Configuration tool uses connection string named: ApplicationServices not LocalSqlServer. cause of that I have to modify web.config to: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> and everything works fine. I wish to know why the hell my web site uses connection string named: ApplicationServices and all books and online documentations uses LocalSqlServer? and how to change it to LocalSqlServer? I have: Windows 7 Sql Server 2008 R2 Visual Studio 2010 Premium Project type is website

    Read the article

  • I have a generic implementation of PHP mcrypt module and its not decrypting

    - by Ken Mitchner
    class Crypt_Data { protected $_mcrypt=null; protected $_iv=null; protected $_key=null; public function __construct() { $this->_mcrypt = mcrypt_module_open('rijndael_256', '', 'cbc', ''); $key_size = mcrypt_enc_get_key_size($this->_mcrypt); for($i=0;$i<$key_size;$i++) $test_key .= "0"; $this->_iv = $test_key; $this->_key = $test_key; mcrypt_generic_init($this->_mcrypt,$this->_key,$this->_iv); } public function dataEncrypt($data) { return base64_encode(mcrypt_generic($this->_mcrypt, $data)); } public function dataDecrypt($data) { return mdecrypt_generic($this->_mcrypt, base64_decode($data)); } } $crypt = new Crypt_Data(); $string = "encrypt me"; $encrypted = $crypt->dataEncrypt($string); echo $encrypted."<BR>"; $decrypted = $crypt->dataDecrypt($encrypted); echo $decrypted."<BR>"; output: JJKfKxZckkqwfZ5QWeyVR+3PkMQAsP0Gr1hWaygV20I= qÌÌi_ÖZí(®`iÜ¥wÝÿ ô0€Í6Ÿhf[%ër No idea why this isn't working, everything seems to be fine on my end.. i tried decrypting it with mcrypt_cbc(); and it decrypted it properly.. so it has something to do with my mdecrypt_generic.. any ideas?

    Read the article

  • PHP weirdness extending IMagick class

    - by Jamie Carl
    This is a really weird one. I have some code that is happily working on version 2.1.1RC1 of the php5-imagick module. It's basically just a class I wrote that extends the Imagick class and manages images stored in a database. Since upgrading to version 3.0.0RC1 (thankfully only on my dev box) things have gone to hell. It seems that object members are writeable but are NOT readable. Take the following sample code: class db_image extends IMagick { private $data; function __construct( $id = null ){ parent::__construct(); $this->data = 'some plain text'; echo $this->data; } This will output absolutely NOTHING. My debugger indicates that the contents of $this-data are the correct string value, but I am unable to read the value back out of the member variable. Seriously. WTF? Does anyone know what is causing this or has seen it before? I don't even know how to replicate this behaviour in my own classes.

    Read the article

  • What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

    Read the article

  • Dealing with array of IntPtr

    - by Padu Merloti
    I think I'm close and I bet the solution is something stupid. I have a C++ native DLL where I define the following function: DllExport bool __stdcall Open(const char* filePath, int *numFrames, void** data); { //creates the list of arrays here... don't worry, lifetime is managed somewhere else //foreach item of the list: { BYTE* pByte = GetArray(i); //here's where my problem lives *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; } *numFrames = total number of items in the list return true; } Basically, given a file path, this function creates a list of byte arrays (BYTE*) and should return a list of pointers via the data param. Each pointing to a different byte array. I want to pass an array of IntPtr from C# and be able to marshal each individual array in order. Here's the code I'm using: [DllImport("mydll.dll",EntryPoint = "Open")] private static extern bool MyOpen( string filePath, out int numFrames, out IntPtr[] ptr); internal static bool Open( string filePath, out int numFrames, out Bitmap[] images) { var ptrList = new IntPtr[512]; MyOpen(filePath, out numFrames, out ptrList); images = new Bitmap[numFrames]; var len = 100; //for sake of simplicity for (int i=0; i<numFrames;i++) { var buffer = new byte[len]; Marshal.Copy(ptrList[i], buffer, 0, len); images[i] = CreateBitmapFromBuffer(buffer, height, width); } return true; } Problem is in my C++ code. When I assign *(data + i * sizeofarray) = pByte; it corrupts the array of pointers... what am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Android listing design problem with cursors

    - by Priyank
    Hi. I have a following situation in my android app. I have an app that fetches messages from inbox, sent items and drafts based on search keywords. I use to accomplish this by fetching cursors for each manually based on selection by user and then populating them in a custom data holder object. Filter those results based on given keywords and then manually render view with respective data. Someone suggested that I should use a custom Cursor adapter to bind view and my cursor data. So I tried doing that. Now what I am doing is this: Fetch individual cursors for inbox, sent items and drafts. Merge them into one using Merge cursor and then pass that back to my CursorAdapter implmentation. Now where or how do I filter my cursor data based on keywords; because now binding will ensure that they are directly rendered to view on list. Also, some post fetching operation like fetching sender's contact pic and all will be something that I do not want to move to adapter. If I do all this processing in adapter; it'll be heavy and ugly. How could I have designed it better such that it performs and the responsibilities are shared and distributed. Any ideas will be helpful.

    Read the article

  • forcing stack w/i 32bit when -m64 -mcmodel=small

    - by chaosless
    have C sources that must compile in 32bit and 64bit for multiple platforms. structure that takes the address of a buffer - need to fit address in a 32bit value. obviously where possible these structures will use natural sized void * or char * pointers. however for some parts an api specifies the size of these pointers as 32bit. on x86_64 linux with -m64 -mcmodel=small tboth static data and malloc()'d data fit within the 2Gb range. data on the stack, however, still starts in high memory. so given a small utility _to_32() such as: int _to_32( long l ) { int i = l & 0xffffffff; assert( i == l ); return i; } then: char *cp = malloc( 100 ); int a = _to_32( cp ); will work reliably, as would: static char buff[ 100 ]; int a = _to_32( buff ); but: char buff[ 100 ]; int a = _to_32( buff ); will fail the assert(). anyone have a solution for this without writing custom linker scripts? or any ideas how to arrange the linker section for stack data, would appear it is being put in this section in the linker script: .lbss : { *(.dynlbss) *(.lbss .lbss.* .gnu.linkonce.lb.*) *(LARGE_COMMON) } thanks!

    Read the article

  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

    Read the article

  • Zend_Auth and database session SaveHandler

    - by takeshin
    I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

    Read the article

  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

    Read the article

  • Using a function found in a different file in a loop

    - by Anders
    This question is related to BuddyPress, and a follow-up question from this question I have a .csv-file with 790 rows and 3 columns where the first column is the group name, second is the group description and last (third) the slug. As far as I've been told I can use this code: <?php $groups = array(); if (($handle = fopen("groupData.csv", "r")) !== FALSE) { while (($data = fgetcsv($handle, 1000, ",")) !== FALSE) { $group = array('group_id' = 'SOME ID', 'name' = $data[0], 'description' = $data[1], 'slug' = groups_check_slug(sanitize_title(esc_attr($data[2]))), 'date_created' = gmdate( "Y-m-d H:i:s" ), 'status' = 'public' ); $groups[] = $group; } fclose($handle); } foreach ($groups as $group) { groups_create_group($group); } With http://www.nomorepasting.com/getpaste.php?pasteid=35217 which is called bp-groups.php. The thing is that I can't make it work. I've created a new file with the code written above called groupgenerator.php uploaded the .csv file to the same folder and opened groupgenerator.php in my browser. But, i get this error: Fatal error: Call to undefined function groups_check_slug() in What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • A dynamic array of a class, inside another separate class?

    - by pinnacler
    I'm working on a robot localization simulator and I created a class called "landmark". The end result is going to be a robot that is always centered and always faces the top of the screen. As it turns, the birds eye view map will rotate around the robot. To accomplish this, I'm assuming I can rotate one class and have all elements inside rotate as well. So, the landmark class has properties x,y, label, and radius. This is suppose to simulate a tree location in a forest. To test everything, I need "forest data," and I wrote a script to generate 100 trees in a 100m x 100m area. The script automatically generates values within an acceptable range for x,y, radius. The generated data is stored in an object called tempForest and is 100x3. Ideally, I want to create a class called "landmarks" (plural) that has 100 landmark instances inside. How would I instantiate 100 instances of landmark in one instance of landmarks using that randomly generated data? Ideally, I'd just type treeBeacons = landmarks(); and it would randomly populate 100 (user definable, set in config file) instances with x, y, radius data. I'm not sure how to deal with a dynamic array of class "Landmark", inside another single class "landmarks." Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • using jquery selector to change attribute in variable returned from ajax request

    - by Blake
    I'm trying to pull in a filename.txt (contains html) using ajax and change the src path in the data variable before I load it into the target div. If I first load it into the div the browser first requests the broken image and I don't want this so I would like to do my processing before I load anything onto the page. I can pull the src values fine but I can't change them. In this example the src values aren't changed. Is there a way to do this with selectors or can they only modify DOM elements? Otherwise I may have to do some regex replace but using a selector will be more convenient if possible. $.ajax( { url: getDate+'/'+name+'.txt', success: function(data) { $('img', data).attr('src', 'new_test_src'); $('#'+target).fadeOut('slow', function(){ $('#'+target).html(data); $('#'+target).fadeIn('slow'); }); } }); My reason is I'm building a fully standalone javascript template system for a newsletter and since images and other things are upload via a drupal web file manager I want the content creators to keep their paths very short and simple and I can then modify them before I load in the content. This will also be distributed on a CD so I can need to change the paths for that so they still work.

    Read the article

  • Multiple dispatching issue

    - by user1440263
    I try to be synthetic: I'm dispatching an event from a MovieClip (customized symbol in library) this way: public function _onMouseDown(e:MouseEvent){ var obj = {targetClips:["tondo"],functionString:"testFF"}; dispatchEvent(new BridgeEvent(BridgeEvent.BRIDGE_DATA,obj)); } The BridgeEvent class is the following: package events { import flash.events.EventDispatcher; import flash.events.Event; public class BridgeEvent extends Event { public static const BRIDGE_DATA:String = "BridgeData"; public var data:*; public function BridgeEvent(type:String, data:*) { this.data = data; super(type, true); } } } The document class listens to the event this way: addEventListener(BridgeEvent.BRIDGE_DATA,eventSwitcher); In eventSwitcher method I have a simple trace("received"). What happens: when I click the MovieClip the trace action gets duplicated and the output window writes many "received" (even if the click is only one). What happens? How do I prevent this behaviour? What is causing this? Any help is appreciated. [SOLVED] I'm sorry, you will not believe this. A colleague, to make me a joke, converted the MOUSE_DOWN handler to MOUSE_OVER.

    Read the article

  • Extjs - Loading Grid when call

    - by Oxi
    I have form and grid. the user must enter data in form fields then display related records in the grid. I want to implement a search form, e.g: user will type the name and gender of the student, then will get a grid of all students have the same name and gender. So, I use ajax to send form fields value to PHP and then creat a json_encode wich will be used in grid store. I am really not sure if my idea is good. But I haven't found another way to do that. The problem is when I set autoLoad to true in the store, the grid automatically filled with all data - not just what I asked for - So, I understand that I have to set autoLoad to false, but then the result not shown in the grid even it returned successfully in the firebug! I don't know what to do. My View: { xtype: 'panel', layout: "fit", id: 'searchResult', flex: 7, title: '<div style="text-align:center;"/>SearchResultGrid</div>', items: [ { xtype: 'gridpanel', store: 'advSearchStore', id: 'AdvSearch-grid', columns: [ { xtype: 'gridcolumn', dataIndex: 'name', align: 'right', text: 'name' }, { xtype: 'gridcolumn', dataIndex: 'gender', align: 'right', text: 'gender' } ], viewConfig: { id : 'Arr' ,emptyText: 'noResult' }, requires: ['MyApp.PrintSave_toolbar'], dockedItems: [ { xtype: 'PrintSave_tb', dock: 'bottom', } ] } ] }, My Store and Model: Ext.define('AdvSearchPost', { extend: 'Ext.data.Model', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'AdvSearch.php', reader: { type: 'json', root: 'Arr', totalProperty: 'totalCount' } }, fields: [ { name: 'name'}, { name: 'type_and_cargo'} ] }); Ext.create('Ext.data.Store', { pageSize: 10, autoLoad: false, model: 'AdvSearchPost', storeId: 'AdvSearchPost' });

    Read the article

  • Editable, growable DataGrid that retains values on postback and updates underlying DataTable

    - by jlstrecker
    I'm trying to create an ASP.NET/C# page that allows the user to edit a table of data, add rows to it, and save the data back to the database. For the table of data, I'm using a DataGrid whose cells contain TextBoxes or CheckBoxes. I have a button for adding rows (which works) and a button for saving the data. However, I'm quite stuck on two things: The TextBoxes and CheckBoxes should retain their values on postback. So if the user edits a TextBox and clicks the button to add more rows, the edits should be retained when the page reloads. However, the edits should not be saved to the database at this point. When the user clicks the save button, or anytime before, the DataTable underlying the DataGrid needs to be updated with the values of the TextBoxes and CheckBoxes so that the DataTable can be sent to the database. I have a method that does this, but I can't figure out when to call it. Any help getting this to work, or suggestions of alternative user interfaces that would behave similarly, would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

    - by anonymous coward
    My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

    Read the article

  • IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

    - by Stephen Borg
    Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

    Read the article

  • Fix a 404: missing parameters error from a GET request to CherryPy

    - by norabora
    I'm making a webpage using CherryPy for the server-side, HTML, CSS and jQuery on the client-side. I'm also using a mySQL database. I have a working form for users to sign up to the site - create a username and password. I use jQuery to send an AJAX POST request to the CherryPy which queries the database to see if that username exists. If the username exists, alert the user, if it doesn't, add it to the database and alert success. $.post('submit', postdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Successful jQuery POST. I want to change the form so that instead of checking that the username exists on submit, a GET request is made as on the blur event from the username input. The function gets called, and it goes to the CherryPy, but then I get an error that says: HTTPError: (404, 'Missing parameters: username'). $.get('checkUsername', getdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Unsuccessful jQuery GET. The CherryPy: @cherrypy.expose def submit(self, **params): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() com1 = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + params["username"] + "'" b = c.execute(com1).fetchall() if not len(b) > 0: com2 = "INSERT INTO `6470`.`users` (`username` ,`password` ,`website` ,`key`) VALUES ('" com2 += params["username"] + "', MD5( '" + params["password"] + "'), '', NULL);" a = c.execute(com2) c.close() return simplejson.dumps("Success!") #login user and send them to home page c.close() return simplejson.dumps("This username is not available.") @cherrypy.expose def checkUsername(self, username): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() command = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + username + "'" a = c.execute(command).fetchall(); c.close() sys.stdout.write(str(a)) return simplejson.dumps("") I can't see any differences between the two so I don't know why the GET request is giving me a problem. Any insight into what I might be doing wrong would be helpful. If you have ideas about the jQuery, CherryPy, config files, anything, I'd really appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Blackberry Asynchronous HTTP Requests - How?

    - by Kai
    The app I'm working on has a self contained database. The only time I need HTTP request is when the user first loads the app. I do this by calling a class that verifies whether or not a local DB exists and, if not, create one with the following request: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); This xml returns a list of content, all of which have images that I want to fetch AFTER the original request is complete and stored. So something like this won't work: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); HttpRequest images = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xmlImages", "GET", this); images.start(); Since it will not treat this like an asynchronous request. I have not found much information on adding callbacks to httpRequest, or any other method I could use to ensure operation 2 does not execute until operation 1 is complete. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Selenium RC: Selecting elements using the CSS :contains pseudo-class

    - by Andrew
    I would like to assert that a table row contains the data that I expect in two different tables. Using the following HTML as an example: <table> <tr> <th>Table 1</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>Row 1 Col 2</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <th>Table 2</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>different data</td> </tr> </table> The following assertion passes: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1)'); However, this one doesn't: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1)'); And ultimately, I need to be able to test that both columns within the table row contain the data that I expect: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)'); $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 2) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(different data)'); What am I doing wrong? How can I achieve this? Update: Sounds like the problem is a bug in Selenium when trying to select descendants. The only way I was able to get this to work was to add an extra identifier on the table so I could tell which one I was working with: /* HTML */ <table id="table-1"> /* PHP */ $this->assertElementPresent("css=#table-1 tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)");

    Read the article

  • Debugging Post Request with Chrome Dev Tools

    - by benek
    I am trying to use Chrome Dev for debugging the following Angular post request : $http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader) After running the statement with right-click / evaluate, I can see the post in the network panel with a pending state. How can I get the result or "commit" the request and leave easily this "pending" state from the dev console ? I am not yet very familiar with JS callbacks, some code is expected. Thanks. EDIT I have tried to run from the console : $scope.$apply(function(){$http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader).success(function(data){console.log("error "+data)}).error(function(data){console.log("error "+data)})}) It returns : undefined EDIT The post I am trying to solve generate an HTTP 400. Here is the result : Request URL:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader Request Method:POST Status Code:400 Mauvaise Requ?te Request Headersview source Accept:application/json, text/plain, / Accept-Encoding:gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language:fr-FR,fr;q=0.8,en-US;q=0.6,en;q=0.4 Connection:keep-alive Content-Length:5354 Content-Type:application/json;charset=UTF-8 Cookie:JSESSIONID=285AF523EA18C0D7F9D581CDB2286C56 Host:picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Origin:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Referer:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/ User-Agent:Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/30.0.1599.101 Safari/537.36 X-Requested-With:XMLHttpRequest Request Payloadview source {refHeader:IDSFP, idEntrepot:619, codeEntreprise:null, codeBanniere:null, codeArticle:7,…} cessionPrice: 78 codeArticle: "7" codeBanniere: null codeDateAppro: null codeDateDelivery: null codeDatePrepa: null codeEntreprise: null codeFournisseur: null codeUtilisateur: null codeUtilisateurLastUpdate: null createDate: null dateAppro: null dateDelivery: null datePrepa: null hasAssortControl: null hasCadenceForce: null idEntrepot: 619 isFreeCost: null labelArticle: "Mayonnaise de DIJON" labelFournisseur: null listDetail: [,…] pcbArticle: 12 pvc: 78 qte: 78 refCommande: "ref" refHeader: "IDSFP" state: "CREATED" stockArticle: 1200 updateDate: null Response Headersview source Connection:close Content-Length:996 Content-Type:text/html;charset=utf-8 Date:Fri, 08 Nov 2013 15:19:30 GMT Server:Apache-Coyote/1.1 X-Powered-By:Servlet 2.5; JBoss-5.0/JBossWeb-2.1

    Read the article

  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 811 812 813 814 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822  | Next Page >