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  • Single-Sign-On ASP.NET MVC

    - by Mike
    Hi Guys, We are trying to build a cross-domain single-sign on solution using ASP.NET MVC. Something which works like this: User hits www.test.com [or www.test2.com or www.test3.com or www.testN.com] User clicks widget, login appears User signs into www.example.com from 2) i.e. from widget [x-domain signin] User is now logged in on www.test.com [authenticated from www.example.com] User visits [www.test2.com or www.test3.com or www.testN.com] and is signed in to www.example.com Any existing solutions or tutorials available ?

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  • Case Insensitive URLs with mod_rewrite

    - by Paul Tarjan
    I'd like for any url that doesn't hit an existing file, to do a lookup on the other possible cases and see if those files exist, and if so, 302 to them. If that's not possible, then I'm ok with these compromises: Only check the lowercase version Only check the first path portion For example http://example.com/CoOl/PaTH/CaMELcaSE should redirect to http://example.com/cool/path/camelCase (assuming the latter exists). but of course a full solution is much more useful to me and others

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  • asp.net Multiple Page_Load events for a user control when using URL Routing

    - by Paul Hutson
    Hello, I've recently set up an ASP.net site (not using MVC.net) to use URL Routing (more on the code below) - when using user controls on the site (i.e I've created a "menu" user control to hold menu information) the page_load event for that control will fire twice when URLs have more than one variable passed over. i.e. pageName/VAR1 : will only fire the page_load event once. while pageName/VAR1/VAR2 : will fire the page_load event twice. *Multiple extra VARs added on the end will still only fire the page_load event twice*. Below are the code snippits from the files, the first is the MapPageRoute, located in the Global.asax : // Register a route for the Example page, with the NodeID and also the Test123 variables allowed. // This demonstrates how to have several items linked with the page routes. routes.MapPageRoute( "Multiple Data Example", // Route name "Example/{NodeID}/{test123}/{variable}", // Route URL - note the NodeID bit "~/Example.aspx", // Web page to handle route true, // Check for physical access new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "1" }, // Default Node ID { "test123", "1" }, // Default addtional variable value { "variable", "hello"} // Default test variable value } ); Next is the way I've directed to the page in the menu item, this is a list item within a UL tag : <li class="TopMenu_ListItem"><a href="<%= Page.GetRouteUrl("Multiple Data Example", new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "4855" }, { "test123", "2" } }) %>">Example 2</a></li> And finally the control that gets hit multiple times on a page load : // For use when the page loads. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Handle the routing variables. // this handles the route data value for NodeID - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] != null) { nodeID = Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for Test123 - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] != null) { ExampleOutput2.Text = "I am the output of the third variable : " + Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for variable - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] != null) { ExampleOutput3.Text = "I say " + Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] as string; }; } Note, that when I'm just hitting the page and it uses the default values for items, the reloads do not happen. Any help or guidance that anyone can offer would be very much appreciated! EDIT : The User Control is only added to the page once. I've tested the load sequence by putting a breakpoint in the page_load event - it only hits twice when the extra routes are added. Thanks in Advance, Paul Hutson

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  • Implementing sub fields in a PropertyGrid

    - by evolve
    Alright so my terminology when it comes to C# isn't great, so I'll attempt to explain this with a small example. If you create a class which you are using within a PropertyGrid and you have the following values: class Test { public Point example { get; set; } } This will produce a PropertyGrid which has an expandable object "example" which has fields X and Y in order to create a "Point". I'm attempting to create an object "name" which has fields "firstname" and "lastname", so I have: class Test { public Name example { get; set; } } public struct Name { public string firstname { get; set; } public string lastname { get; set; } } This however isn't working as intended. I think I need to override some method(s) in order to get this working, however since I don't really have the terminology down for PropertyGrids it is difficult for me to find a solution. Any help would be great.

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  • how to run existing symfony 1.4.18 project in localhost

    - by nickleefly
    I have all the symfony 1.4.18 source file in a folder called symfony. And I have the database. under this symfony folder it has apps, cache, config, data, lib, log, plugins, test, web, .gitignore, symfony what all i need to do to make it work in another shared host server? how can i make it run in localhost ? the config file is the following Under the config folder, vhost.conf file DocumentRoot /var/www/vhosts/example.com/httpdocs/web <Directory /var/www/vhosts/example.com/httpdocs/web> Options +FollowSymlinks php_admin_value open_basedir "/var/www/vhosts/example.com/httpdocs:/tmp:/usr/local/php:/usr/share/pear" </Directory> properties.ini file [prod] host=youripaddress port=22 user=yourusername dir=/var/www/vhosts/example.com/httpdocs/ type=rsync password=yourpassword databases.yml all: doctrine: class: sfDoctrineDatabase param: dsn: 'mysql:host=localhost;dbname=yourdbname' username: yourdbusername password: yourdbpassword attributes: default_table_type: InnoDB default_table_collate: utf8_unicode_ci default_table_charset: utf8 use_dql_callbacks: true

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  • How to rewrite to a virtual directory with a different application

    - by Eytan Levit
    Hi, I have a CMS application that manages multiple websites, today whenever i change the codebehind of one of these websites - i have to rebuild the dll for all websites, deploy it - this disconnects all current sessions and is really bad. The iis is configured to listen to all domain requests, if the request is to one of the websites' domain , the application rewrites it, or example, if someone requests for http://www.example.com, and example.com is configured in the application to be website 12, it is rewritten to http://www.example.com/websites/12/default.aspx. This is done for all websites. We want to seperate the dlls of the websites from each other, and from the main CMS, we have a virtual directory to each websites, but when trying to rewrite to it, we discover that IIS support this (we get an "Could not load type '_12._Default'". error). How can we perform this rewrite so it does rewrite to virtual directories, or if anyone has any other solution for the initial dll seperation problem. Thanks in advance

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  • Does Flash comply with HTTP Location header?

    - by FRKT
    Hello, does Flash comply with HTTP Location headers? For example, if Flash makes a POST request to http://www.example.org/mail and it returns Location: http://www.example.org/mail/1.xml, will Flash return the data in in 1.xml upon completing the POST request?

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  • JavaScript: How can I delay running some JS code until my JS file downloaded?

    - by Henryh
    I have the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://example.com/One.js'); addScript('http://example.com/Two.js'); addScript('http://example.com/Three.js'); addScript('http://example.com/Four.js'); ... // run code below this point once Two.js has been downloaded and excuted </script> How can I detect when one of my JavaScript files has been downloaded and executed so that I can use it?

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  • Include ":" character in parameter using Apache's mod_rewrite

    - by travis
    I use something like that to pass to the parameter 'text' what follows after the domain RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?text=$1 [L,QSA] So if I have www.example.com/tralala I get $text='tralala' But I want it to be possible to have in the parameter the character ":" multiple times: www.example.com/me:you:him Can you give me a hand? If I test www.example.com/me:you:him I get the error: Forbidden You don't have permission to access /you:me:him on this server.

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  • ASP.Net: User control with content area, it's clearly possible but I need some details.

    - by bert
    I have seen two suggestions for my original question about whether it is possible to define a content area inside a user control and there are some helpful suggestions i.e. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1971498/passing-in-content-to-asp-net-user-control and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1912283/asp-net-user-control-inner-content Now, I like the theory of the latter better than the former just for aesthetic reasons. It seems to make more sense to me but the example given uses two variables content and templateContent that the answerer has not defined in their example code. Without these details I have found that the example does not work. I guess they are properties of the control? Or some such? The former example seems workable but I'd prefer to go with the latter if someone could fill in the blanks for me. Thanks.

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  • Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate and the Persistence Life Cycle

    - by Stephano
    The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

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  • What are the advantages of a query using a derived table(s) over a query not using them?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    I know how derived tables are used, but I still can’t really see any real advantages of using them. For example, in the following article http://techahead.wordpress.com/2007/10/01/sql-derived-tables/ the author tried to show benefits of a query using derived table over a query without one with an example, where we want to generate a report that shows off the total number of orders each customer placed in 1996, and we want this result set to include all customers, including those that didn’t place any orders that year and those that have never placed any orders at all( he’s using Northwind database ). But when I compare the two queries, I fail to see any advantages of a query using a derived table ( if nothing else, use of a derived table doesn't appear to simplify our code, at least not in this example): Regular query: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(O.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders O ON C.CustomerID = O.CustomerID AND YEAR(O.OrderDate) = 1996 GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Query using a derived table: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(dOrders.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN (SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE YEAR(Orders.OrderDate) = 1996) AS dOrders ON C.CustomerID = dOrders.CustomerID GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Perhaps this just wasn’t a good example, so could you show me an example where benefits of derived table are more obvious? thanx

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  • .htaccess rewrite subdomains

    - by Cyclone
    Here is my current code: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^example\.com [NC] #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}!^something RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.example\.com RewriteRule (.*) something/%1/$1 [QSA,L] My goal is to rewrite http://*.example.com/whatever to http://example.com/something/*/whatever, assuming * is the same for both and whatever is the same for both. However, I believe this is causing an infinite loop somehow, so I added that commented out line (RewriteBase is / btw), but if I uncomment then the entire site is a 500 response code. Without that line, only the subdomains error. What am I doing wrong, and how can I fix this? I have already configured the server so anything gets redirected to my public_html folder. EDIT: For clarification, I am trying to do an internal redirect, not external. EDIT: There is not a flag for internal redirect it seems. Is there any place I can see the actual error message for the broken rewriterule? If I knew what was wrong I would be able to stand a better chance of fixing it.

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  • Regular expression to retrieve everything before first slash

    - by alex
    I need a regular expression to basically get the first part of a string, before the first slash (). For example in the following: C:\MyFolder\MyFile.zip The part I need is "C:" Another example: somebucketname\MyFolder\MyFile.zip I would need "somebucketname" I also need a regular expression to retrieve the "right hand" part of it, so everything after the first slash (excluding the slash.) For example somebucketname\MyFolder\MyFile.zip would return MyFolder\MyFile.zip.

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  • How to append html to first occurance of string after selected element

    - by uku
    Hello, I have html like so: <div class=foo> (<a href=forum.example.com>forum</a>) <p> Some html here.... </div> And I want to insert another link after the first one, like so: <div class=foo> (<a href=forum.example.com>forum</a>) <a href=blog.example.com>blog</a> <p> Some html here.... </div> ...but because it is enclosed in () I cannot use: $('div.foo a:first').append(' <a href=blog.example.com>blog</a>'); ...which would place it before the ). So how can I extend my jQuery selection to select the literal ) or do I need to use another solution?

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  • Combining DROP USER and DROP DATABASE with SELECT .. WHERE query?

    - by zsero
    I'd like to make a very simple thing, replicate the functionality of mysql's interactive mysql_secure_installation script. My question is that is there a simple, built-in way in MySQL to combine the output of a SELECT query with the input of a DROP user or DROP database script? For example, if I'd like to drop all users with empty passwords. How could I do that with DROP USER statement? I know an obvious solution would be to run everything for example from a Python script, run a query with mysql -Bse "select..." parse the output with some program construct the drop query run it. Is there an easy way to do it in a simple SQL query? I've seen some example here, but I wouldn't call it simple: http://stackoverflow.com/a/12097567/518169 Would you recommend making a combined query, or just to parse the output using for example Python or bash scripts/sed?

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  • WWW or no WWW - WHERE DO I CONFIGURE THIS?

    - by E.Shafii
    Hello, For my site i need to have www included but currently it's saying Under Construction when i go to the site with www. For example: www.example.com - gives me Under Construction example.com - works fine Where is this configured is it something in IIS or is it something the my ISP should configure?

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  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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  • Nginx Joomla Internationalization URL rewriting

    - by cl3m
    I'm using Joomla in combination with Nginx, and I'm currently trying to achieve some URL rewriting for a website that has several langages supported (italian, french, chinese, and deutch) The urls have the country code after the domain name, like so : http://www.example.com/fr/test/test.html or http://www.example.com/de/test/test.html I'm looking to rewrite the urls so the country code is part of the subdomain : so http://www.example.com/fr/test/test.html becomes http://fr.example.com/test/test.html Is there a way to achieve this with Nginx or should I look into a third party extension for Joomla (not my favorite choice). Thanks !!

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  • REST - why we need million urls and different HTTP request?

    - by Andre
    I asked this question. But I still don't understand why we need to utilize different HTTP requests: DELETE/PUT/POST/GET in order to build nice API Wouldn't it be a lot simpler to pass all information in request parameters and have a SINGLE ENTRY-POINT for your api?: GET www.example.com/api?id=1&method=delete&returnformat=JSON GET www.example.com/api?id=1&method=delete&returnformat=XML or POST www.example.com/api {post data: id=1&method=delete&returnformat=JSON} POST www.example.com/api {post data: id=1&method=delete&returnformat=XML} and then - we can handle all methods and data internally without the need for hundreds of urls... how would you call this type of API - It's not REST apparently, it's not SOAP. then - what is it? UPDATE I'm not proposing any new standards here. I merely asking a question in order to better understand why web services work the way they work.

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  • How to configure SVN access list for directory/repository ?

    - by abatishchev
    I have next SVN repositories structure running Apache 2.2 under Windows Server 2008: http://example.com/svn/ is targeted to e:\svn (root) http://example.com/svn/dir/ is targeted to e:\svn\dir (some directory with a number of repositories) http://example.com/svn/dir/repo/ is targeted to e:\svn\dir\repo (a repository itself) How to access list so group @foo had rw access to repo? I have next access list: [groups] @foo = user1, user2 [/] * = r [dir/repo:/] @foo = rw The last string doesn't work in any combination I tried

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  • OAuth 2.0: Can a user-agent client avoid forwarding fragments?

    - by Bosh
    In the OAuth 2.0 draft specification, user-agent clients receive authorization in the form of a bearer token via redirection (from an authentication server) to a URL such as HTTP/1.1 302 Found Location: http://example.com/rd#access_token=FJQbwq9&expires_in=3600 According to Section 3.5.2 it is then the user-agent's job to GET the URL in question, but "The user-agent SHALL NOT include the fragment component with the request." In other words, as a result of the example redirection above, the user-agent should GET /rd HTTP/1.1 Host: example.com without passing #access_token to the server. My question: what user agents behave this way? I thought redirection in Firefox, for example, would (logically) include the fragment in the GET request. Am I just wrong about this, or does the OAuth 2.0 specification rely on non-standard user-agent behavior?

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