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• Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

  - by El Yobo

  I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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• Approaches for Content-based Item Recommendations

  - by PartlyCloudy

  Hello, I'm currently developing an application where I want to group similar items. Items (like videos) can be created by users and also their attributes can be altered or extended later (like new tags). Instead of relying on users' preferences as most collaborative filtering mechanisms do, I want to compare item similarity based on the items' attributes (like similar length, similar colors, similar set of tags, etc.). The computation is necessary for two main purposes: Suggesting x similar items for a given item and for clustering into groups of similar items. My application so far is follows an asynchronous design and I want to decouple this clustering component as far as possible. The creation of new items or the addition of new attributes for an existing item will be advertised by publishing events the component can then consume. Computations can be provided best-effort and "snapshotted", which means that I'm okay with the best result possible at a given point in time, although result quality will eventually increase. So I am now searching for appropriate algorithms to compute both similar items and clusters. At important constraint is scalability. Initially the application has to handle a few thousand items, but later million items might be possible as well. Of course, computations will then be executed on additional nodes, but the algorithm itself should scale. It would also be nice if the algorithm supports some kind of incremental mode on partial changes of the data. My initial thought of comparing each item with each other and storing the numerical similarity sounds a little bit crude. Also, it requires n*(n-1)/2 entries for storing all similarities and any change or new item will eventually cause n similarity computations. Thanks in advance! UPDATE tl;dr To clarify what I want, here is my targeted scenario: User generate entries (think of documents) User edit entry meta data (think of tags) And here is what my system should provide: List of similar entries to a given item as recommendation Clusters of similar entries Both calculations should be based on: The meta data/attributes of entries (i.e. usage of similar tags) Thus, the distance of two entries using appropriate metrics NOT based on user votings, preferences or actions (unlike collaborative filtering). Although users may create entries and change attributes, the computation should only take into account the items and their attributes, and not the users associated with (just like a system where only items and no users exist). Ideally, the algorithm should support: permanent changes of attributes of an entry incrementally compute similar entries/clusters on changes scale something better than a simple distance table, if possible (because of the O(n²) space complexity)

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• Java: Multithreading & UDP Socket Programming

  - by Ravi

  I am new to multithreading & socket programming in Java. I would like to know what is the best way to implement 2 threads - one for receiving a socket and one for sending a socket. If what I am trying to do sounds absurd, pls let me know why! The code is largely inspired from Sun's tutorials online.I want to use Multicast sockets so that I can work with a multicast group. class server extends Thread { static protected MulticastSocket socket = null; protected BufferedReader in = null; public InetAddress group; private static class receive implements Runnable { public void run() { try { byte[] buf = new byte[256]; DatagramPacket pkt = new DatagramPacket(buf,buf.length); socket.receive(pkt); String received = new String(pkt.getData(),0,pkt.getLength()); System.out.println("From server@" + received); Thread.sleep(1000); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } } } public server() throws IOException { super("server"); socket = new MulticastSocket(4446); group = InetAddress.getByName("239.231.12.3"); socket.joinGroup(group); } public void run() { while(1>0) { try { byte[] buf = new byte[256]; DatagramPacket pkt = new DatagramPacket(buf,buf.length); //String msg = reader.readLine(); String pid = ManagementFactory.getRuntimeMXBean().getName(); buf = pid.getBytes(); pkt = new DatagramPacket(buf,buf.length,group,4446); socket.send(pkt); Thread t = new Thread(new receive()); t.start(); while(t.isAlive()) { t.join(1000); } sleep(1); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } } //socket.close(); } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { new server().start(); //System.out.println("Hello"); } }

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• jQuery UI problem: why do the elements go flying around the screen?

  - by George Edison

  Yes, I know the title sounds a little suspicious. I will try to explain this the best I can... The code below is supposed to have the blue div slide down beside the red div. The first time you hit the Show the div button, it works. Also, the Hide the div works. Then when I click to show the div again, it appears to the right of where it is supposed to be! Why is this?!? Note: You can find a live example of the code here <html> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type='text/css'> #red { background-color: red; width: 200px; height: 150px; position: absolute; } #blue { background-color: blue; width: 150px; height: 200px; position: absolute; display: none; } #tester_1 { top: 300px; left: 300px; position: absolute; } #tester_2 { top: 350px; left: 300px; position: absolute; } </style> </head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type='text/javascript'> function Show() { $('#blue').position({ of: $('#red'), my: 'left top', at: 'right top'}).slideDown(); } function Hide() { $('#blue').hide(); } </script> <body> <div id='red'></div> <div id='blue'></div> <button id='tester_1' onclick='Show()'>Show the <kbd>div</kbd></button> <button id='tester_2' onclick='Hide()'>Hide the <kbd>div</kbd></button> </body> </html>

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• Is there any memory leak in the normal routine of sqlite3_*()?

  - by reer

  A normal routine of sqlite3_prepare_v2() + sqlite3_step() + sqlite3_finalize() could contain leak. It sound ridiculous. But the test code seems to say it. Or I used the sqlite3_*() wrongly. Appreciate for any reply. __code________________________ include include // for usleep() include int multi_write (int j); sqlite3 *db = NULL; int main (void) { int ret = -1; ret = sqlite3_open("test.db", &db); ret = sqlite3_exec(db,"CREATE TABLE data_his (id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, d1 CHAR(16))", NULL,NULL,NULL); usleep (100000); int j=0; while (1) { multi_write (j++); usleep (2000000); printf (" ----------- %d\n", j); } ret = sqlite3_close (db); return 0; } int multi_write (int j) { int ret = -1; char *sql_f = "INSERT OR REPLACE INTO data_his VALUES (%d, %Q)"; char *sql = NULL; sqlite3_stmt *p_stmt = NULL; ret = sqlite3_prepare_v2 (db, "BEGIN TRANSACTION", -1, &p_stmt, NULL); ret = sqlite3_step ( p_stmt ); ret = sqlite3_finalize ( p_stmt ); int i=0; for (i=0; i<100; i++) { sql = sqlite3_mprintf ( sql_f, j*100000 + i, "00000000000068FD"); ret = sqlite3_prepare_v2 (db, sql, -1, &p_stmt, NULL ); sqlite3_free ( sql ); //printf ("sqlite3_prepare_v2(): %d, %s\n", ret, sqlite3_errmsg (db)); ret = sqlite3_step ( p_stmt ); //printf ("sqlite3_step(): %d, %s\n", ret, sqlite3_errmsg (db)); ret = sqlite3_finalize ( p_stmt ); //printf ("sqlite3_finalize(): %d, %s\n\n", ret, sqlite3_errmsg (db)); } ret = sqlite3_prepare_v2 (db, "COMMIT TRANSACTION", -1, &p_stmt, NULL ); ret = sqlite3_step ( p_stmt ); ret = sqlite3_finalize ( p_stmt ); return 0; } __result________________________ And I watch the the process's run by top. At first, the memory statistics is: PID PPID USER STAT VSZ %MEM %CPU COMMAND 17731 15488 root S 1104 5% 7% ./sqlite3multiwrite When the printf() in while(1){} of main() prints the 150, the memory statistics is: PID PPID USER STAT VSZ %MEM %CPU COMMAND 17731 15488 root S 1552 5% 7% ./sqlite3multiwrite It sounds that after 150 for-cycles, the memory used by sqlite3multiwrite increase from 1104KB to 1552KB. What does it mean? memory leak or other thing?

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• Browsers (IE and Firefox) freeze when copying large amount of text

  - by Matt

  I have a web application - a Java servlet - that delivers data to users in the form of a text printout in a browser (text marked up with HTML in order to display in the browser as we want it to). The text does display in different colors, though most of it is black. One typical mode of operation is this: 1. User submits a form to request data. 2. Servlet delivers HTML file to browser. 3. User does CTRL+A to select all the text. 4. User does CTRL+C to copy all the text. 5. User goes to a text editor and does CTRL+V to paste the text. In the testing where I'm having this problem, step #2 successfully loads all the data - we wait for that to complete. We can scroll down to the end of what the browser loaded and see the end of the data. However, the browser freezes on step #3 (Firefox) or on step #4 (IE). Because step #2 finishes, I think it is a browser/memory issue, and not an issue with the web application. If I run queries to deliver smaller amounts of data (but after several queries we get the same data we would have above in one query) and copy/paste this text, the file I save it into ends up being about 8 MB. If I save the browser's displayed HTML to a file on my computer via File-Save As from the browser menu, it works fine and the file is about 22 MB. We've tried this on 2 different computers at work (both running Windows XP, with at least 2 GB of RAM and many GB of free disk space), using Firefox and IE. We also tried it on a home computer from a home network outside of work (thinking it might be our IT security software causing the problem), running Windows 7 using IE, and still had the problem. When I've done this, I can see whatever browser I'm using utilizing the CPU at 50%. Firefox's memory usage grows to about 1 GB; IE's stays in the several hundred MBs. We once let this run for half an hour, and it did not complete. I'm most likely going to modify the web app to have an option of delivering a plain text file for download, and I imagine that will get the users what they need. But for the mean time, and because I'm curious - and I don't like my application freezing people's browsers, does anyone have any ideas about the browser freezing? I understand that sometimes you just reach your memory limit, but 22 MB sounds to me like an amount I should be able to copy to the clipboard.

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• Delete last 3 lines within while ((line = r.ReadLine()) != null) but not open a new text file to delete the lines?

  - by user1473672

  This is the code I've seen so far to delete last 3 lines in a text file, but it's required to determine string[] lines = File.ReadAllLines(); which is nt necessary for me to do so. string[] lines = File.ReadAllLines(@"C:\\Users.txt"); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); int count = lines.Length - 3; // except last 3 lines for (int s = 0; s < count; s++) { sb.AppendLine(lines[s]); } The code works well, but I don't wanna re-read the file as I've mentioned the streamreader above : using (StreamReader r = new StreamReader(@"C:\\Users.txt")) Im new to C#, as far as I know, after using streamreader, and if I wanna modify the lines, I have to use this : while ((line = r.ReadLine()) != null) { #sample codes inside the bracket line = line.Replace("|", ""); line = line.Replace("MY30", ""); line = line.Replace("E", ""); } So, is there any way to delete the last 3 lines in the file within the "while ((line = r.ReadLine()) != null)" ?? I have to delete lines, replace lines and a few more modications in one shot, so I can't keep opening/reading the same text file again and again to modify the lines. I hope the way I ask is understable for you guys .< Plz help me, I know the question sounds simple but I've searched so many ways to solve it but failed =( So far, my code is : using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; namespace ConsoleApplication11 { public class Read { static void Main(string[] args) { string tempFile = Path.GetTempFileName(); using (StreamReader r = new StreamReader(@"C:\\Users\SAP Report.txt")) { using (StreamWriter sw = new StreamWrite (@"C:\\Users\output2.txt")) { string line; while ((line = r.ReadLine()) != null) { line = line.Replace("|", ""); line = line.Replace("MY30", ""); line = line.Replace("E", ""); line = System.Text.RegularExpressions.Regex.Replace(line, @"\s{2,}", " "); sw.WriteLine(line); } } } } } } Now my next task is to delete the last 3 lines in the file after these codes, and I need help on this one. Thank you.

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• Are there any CMS editors out there which users can populate locked down HTML templates with content

  - by Deep

  Hi there, We work in email marketing, creating HTML/TEXT emails for clients. In essence we design HTML email templates for our clients. Clients then post us content (via a form) to populate these templates before we send them out. Right now we do this manually, basically cutting and pasting the content from their submitted form into the relevant parts of the template, which is time consuming and particularly mind-numbing. What we're looking for (and have so far been unable to find) is a simple system which will allow us to capture this client content in a sort of WYSIWYG HTML format. Basically they populate a locked down version of the template, entering text where necessary, before submitting to us. This is our most basic requirement, and a friend of mine kindly demo'd a proof of concept here: http://advantageone.co.uk/mbe/ Note: If you click on a text area in the body of the template, an editor pop ups. Now what we are looking for a CMS editor out there which can be easily adapted to do the above and the following for our end clients? User login View previously submitted campaigns that they have created and edit these Create new - selecting from template (assigned to their user/client id), perhaps being able to add new rows to the template. And have these HTML templates locked down so they can only edit what they're allowed too (like in the demo above), and perhaps make some areas required. Perhaps have a simple workflow or approval built in Allow us to lock submitted campaigns after a point so they can't be further edited, and as administrators view all campaigns from all users Be so incredibly simple, with any extraneous functionality switched off Essentially an extremley simple stripped down CMS, but we use the outputted HTML for sending out as an email, rather than publishing onto the web. Now to the actual dilemma: we're looking for something really simple, and the above sounds like a CMS. But we haven't been able to find anything that already does, or can be easily adapted to do this. Everything is either too complex, or simple and inflexible. We're sure there must be something off the shelf available, rather than us coding something ourselves. But we've kind of got stuck. Does anyone know of a system, or could recommend a system that can do the above out of the box, or with a few days tweaking? Forgive me if this is a little disjointed, if I'm being incredibly dopey and there is something out there please let me know! Kind regards, Dp.

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• Trying to pass variable from 1 Function to Another to Put in Array within same Model

  - by Jason Shultz

  Ok, that sounds really confusing. What I’m trying to do is this. I’ve got a function that uploads/resizes photos to the server. It stores the paths in the DB. I need to attach the id of the business to the row of photos. Here’s what I have so far: function get_bus_id() { $userid = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $this->db->select('b.id'); $this->db->from ('business AS b'); $this->db->where ('b.userid', $userid); $query = $this->db->get(); if ($query->num_rows() > 0) { return $query->result_array(); } That get’s the id of the business. Then, I have my upload function which is below: /* Uploads images to the site and adds to the database. */ function do_upload() { $config = array( 'allowed_types' => 'jpg|jpeg|gif|png', 'upload_path' => $this->gallery_path, 'max_size' => 2000 ); $this->load->library('upload', $config); $this->upload->do_upload(); $image_data = $this->upload->data(); $config = array( 'source_image' => $image_data['full_path'], 'new_image' => $this->gallery_path . '/thumbs', 'maintain_ratio' => true, 'width' => 150, 'height' => 100 ); $this->load->library('image_lib', $config); $this->image_lib->resize(); $upload = $this->upload->data(); $bus_id = $this->get_bus_id(); $data = array( 'userid' => $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(), 'thumb' => $this->gallery_path . '/thumbs/' . $upload['file_name'], 'fullsize' => $upload['full_path'], 'busid'=> $bus_id['query'], ); echo var_dump($bus_id); $this->db->insert('photos', $data); } The problem I’m getting is the following: A PHP Error was encountered Severity: Notice Message: Undefined index: id Filename: models/gallery_model.php Line Number: 48 I’ve tried all sorts of ways to get the value over, but my limited knowledge keeps getting in the way. Any help would be really appreciated.

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• SSIS - user variable used in derived column transform is not available - in some cases

  - by soo

  Unfortunately I don't have a repro for my issue, but I thought I would try to describe it in case it sounds familiar to someone... I am using SSIS 2005, SP2. My package has a package-scope user variable - let's call it user_var first step in the control flow is an Execute SQL task which runs a stored procedure. All that SP does is insert a record in a SQL table (with an identity column) and then go back and get the max ID value. The Execute SQL task saves this output into user_var the control flow then has a Data Flow Task - it goes and gets some source data, has a derived column which sets a column called run_id to user_var - and saves the data to a SQL destination In most cases (this template is used for many packages, running every day) this all works great. All of the destination records created get set with a correct run_id. However, in some cases, there is a set of the destination data that does not get run_id equal to user_var, but instead gets a value of 0 (0 is the default value for user_var). I have 2 instances where this has happened, but I can't make it happen. In both cases, it was just less that 10,000 records that have run_id = 0. Since SSIS writes data out in 10,000 record blocks, this really makes me think that, for the first set of data written out, user_var was not yet set. Then, after that first block, for the rest of the data, run_id is set to a correct value. But control passed on to my data flow from the Execute SQL task - it would have seemed reasonable to me that it wouldn't go on until the SP has completed and user_var is set. Maybe it just runs the SP, but doesn't wait for it to complete? In both cases where this has happened there seemed to be a few packages hitting the table to get a new user_var at about the same time. And in both cases lots of data was written (40 million rows, 60 million rows) - my thinking is that that means the writes were happening for a while. Sorry to be both long-winded AND vague. A winning combination! Does this sound familiar to anyone? Thanks.

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• cannt run phpunit tests on bash ubuntu 11.10

  - by Mohamad Elbialy

  i'm working with ubuntu 11.10 as root on my local machine, i've installed xampp 1.7.7 and i'm a newbie to ubuntu, while following a tutorial on sitepoint(http://www.sitepoint.com/getting-started-with-pear/) on how to install pear to use PhpUnit, i didnt notice it then, but it seems that i installed or used an existing php version 5.3.6 in CL to do that, also the pear installation was built on this version, while xampp being installed,i now have two versions of php,xampp's 5.3.8 and the 5.3.6, anyway, what i want to do is to use the existing xampp php version and build pear on that, to make all my work through xampp.so my questions are: how to uninstall the php V5.3.6 and it's pear installation? how to link the CL with the php ver. of xampp? how to build the next pear installation on the php ver. of xampp? i want all my web dev. work through xampp, is there anything else i need to unistall, to avoid this confusion? 4. i did the following in attampet to solve the problem: i wrote this in bash: gedit ~/.bashrc i added that to the end of ~/.bashrc file in attempt to change environment path: export PATH=/opt/lampp/bin:$PATH export PATH=/opt/lampp/lib/php:$PATH export PATH=/opt/lampp/lib/php/PHPUnit/pearcmd.php:$PATH i checked the php and pear version using 'php -v' and 'pear list' i got an ouput of: PHP 5.3.8 (cli) (built: Sep 19 2011 13:29:27) Copyright (c) 1997-2011 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.3.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2011 Zend Technologies and for pear: Installed packages, channel pear.php.net: ========================================= Package Version State Archive_Tar 1.3.9 stable Console_Getopt 1.3.1 stable PEAR 1.9.4 stable PHPUnit 1.3.2 stable Structures_Graph 1.0.4 stable XML_Util 1.2.1 stable when i run: 'phpunit MessageTest.php': i get PHP Warning: require_once(PHP/CodeCoverage/Filter.php): failed to open stream: No such file or directory in /usr/bin/phpunit on line 38 Warning: require_once(PHP/CodeCoverage/Filter.php): failed to open stream: No such file or directory in /usr/bin/phpunit on line 38 PHP Fatal error: require_once(): Failed opening required 'PHP/CodeCoverage/Filter.php' (include_path='.:/php/includes:/opt/lampp/lib/php:/opt/lampp/bin:/opt/lampp/lib/php/PEAR') in /usr/bin/phpunit on line 38 5.i ran the following commands as reported in other questions as a solution to that error: sudo apt-get remove phpunit sudo pear channel-discover pear.phpunit.de sudo pear channel-discover pear.symfony-project.com sudo pear channel-discover components.ez.no sudo pear update-channels sudo pear upgrade-all sudo pear install --alldeps phpunit/PHPUnit sudo apt-get install phpunit and updated include path of php.ini to be: include_path = ".:/php/includes:/opt/lampp/lib/php:/opt/lampp/bin:/opt/lampp/lib/php/PEAR" the php file MessageTest.php: <?php require 'PHPUnit/Autoload.php'; $path = '/opt/lampp/lib/php/PEAR'; set_include_path(get_include_path() . PATH_SEPARATOR . $path); require_once 'PHPUnit/Framework/TestCase.php'; require_once 'Message/Controller/MessageController.php'; class MessageTest extends PHPUnit_Framework_TestCase{ private $message; public function setUp() { $this->message = new MessageController(); } public function tearDown() { } public function testRepeat(){ $yell = "Hello, Any One Out There?"; $this->message->repeat($yell); //sending a request $returnedMessage = $this->message->repeat($yell);//get a response $this->assertEquals($returnedMessage, $yell); } } ?> MessageController class from MessageController.php that i'm trying to test <?php class MessageController { public function actionHelloWorld() { echo 'helloWorld'; } public function repeat($inputString){ return $inputString; } } $msg = new MessageController; ?> I'm not using any PHP framework, i just made the files and classes sounds like it that's all. and still i get the same error: PHP Warning: require_once(PHP/CodeCoverage/Filter.php): failed to open stream: No such file or directory in /usr/bin/phpunit on line Warning: require_once(PHP/CodeCoverage/Filter.php): failed to open stream: No such file or directory in /usr/bin/phpunit on line 38 PHP Fatal error: require_once(): Failed opening required 'PHP/CodeCoverage/Filter.php' (include_path='.:/php/includes:/opt/lampp/lib/php:/opt/lampp/bin:/opt/lampp/lib/php/PEAR') in /usr/bin/phpunit on line 38 sure, i'm getting demanding here, i've wasted a lot of time and got really frustrated over this, hope you guys dont get bored reading through my questions, i appreciate your help thanks in advance, Mohamad elbialy

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• How can I switch an existing set of Subversion repositories to use ActiveDirectory?

  - by jpierson

  I have a set of private Subversion repositories on a Windows Server 2003 box which developers access via SVNServe over the svn:// protocol. Currently we have been using the authz and passwd files for each repository to control access however with the growing number of repositories and developers I'm considering switching to using their credentials from ActiveDirectory. We run in an all Microsoft shop and use IIS instead of Apache on all of our web servers so I would prefer to continue to use SVNServe if possible. Besides it being possible, I'm also concerned about how to migrate our repositories so that the history for the existing users map to the correct ActiveDirectory accounts. Keep in mind also that I'm not the network administrator and I'm not terrible familiar with ActiveDirectory so I'll probably have to go through some other people to get the changes made in ActiveDirectory if necessary. What are my options? UPDATE 1: It appears from the SVN documentation that by using SASL I should be able to get SVNServe to authenticate using ActiveDirectory. To clarify, the answer that I'm looking for is how to go about configuring SVNServe (if possible) to use ActiveDirectory for authentication and then how to modify an existing repository to remap existing svn users to their ActiveDirectory domain login accounts. UPDATE 2: It appears that the SASL support in SVNServe works off of a plugin model and the documentation only shows as an example. Looking at the Cyrus SASL Library it looks like a number of authentication "mechanisms" are supported but I'm not sure which one is to be used for ActiveDirectory support nor can I find any documentation about such matters. UPDATE 3: Ok, well it looks like in order to communication with ActiveDirectory I'm looking to use saslauthd instead of sasldb for the *auxprop_plugin* property. Unfortunately it appears that according to some posts (possibly outdated and inaccurate) saslauthd does not build on Windows and such endeavors are considered a work in progress. UPDATE 4: The lastest post I've found on this topic makes it sound as though the proper binaries () are available through the MIT Kerberos Library but it sounds like the author of this post on Nabble.com is still having issues getting things working. UPDATE 5: It looks like from the TortoiseSVN discussions and also this post on svn.haxx.se that even if saslgssapi.dll or whatever necessary binaries are available and configured on the Windows server that the clients will also need the same customization in order to work with these repositories. If this is true, we will only be able to get ActiveDirectory support from a windows client only if changes are made in these clients such as TortoiseSVN and CollabNet build of the client binaries to support such authentication schemes. Although thats what these posts suggest, this is contradictory from what I originally assumed from other reading in that being SASL compatible should require no changes on the client but instead only that the server be setup to handle the authentication mechanism. After reading a bit more carefully in the document about Cyrus SASL in Subversion section 5 states "1.5+ clients with Cyrus SASL support will be able to authenticate against 1.5+ servers with SASL enabled, provided at least one of the mechanisms supported by the server is also supported by the client." So clearly GSSAPI support (which I understand is required for Active Directory) must be available within the client and the server. I have to say, I'm learning way too much about the internals of how Subversion handles authentication than I ever wanted to and I juts simply want to get an answer about whether I can have Active Directory authentication support when using SVNServe on a Windows server and accessing this from Windows clients. According to the official documentation it seems that this is possible however you can see that the configuration is not trivial if even possible at all.

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• Cannot join Win7 workstations to Win2k8 domain

  - by wfaulk

  I am trying to connect a Windows 7 Ultimate machine to a Windows 2k8 domain and it's not working. I get this error: Note: This information is intended for a network administrator. If you are not your network's administrator, notify the administrator that you received this information, which has been recorded in the file C:\Windows\debug\dcdiag.txt. DNS was successfully queried for the service location (SRV) resource record used to locate a domain controller for domain "example.local": The query was for the SRV record for _ldap._tcp.dc._msdcs.example.local The following domain controllers were identified by the query: dc1.example.local dc2.example.local However no domain controllers could be contacted. Common causes of this error include: Host (A) or (AAAA) records that map the names of the domain controllers to their IP addresses are missing or contain incorrect addresses. Domain controllers registered in DNS are not connected to the network or are not running. The client is in an office connected remotely via MPLS to the data center where our domain controllers exist. I don't seem to have anything blocking connectivity to the DCs, but I don't have total control over the MPLS circuit, so it's possible that there's something blocking connectivity. I have tried multiple clients (Win7 Ultimate and WinXP SP3) in the one office and get the same symptoms on all of them. I have no trouble connecting to either of the domain controllers, though I have, admittedly, not tried every possible port. ICMP, LDAP, DNS, and SMB connections all work fine. Client DNS is pointing to the DCs, and "example.local" resolves to the two IP addresses of the DCs. I get this output from the NetLogon Test command line utility: C:\Windows\System32>nltest /dsgetdc:example.local Getting DC name failed: Status = 1355 0x54b ERROR_NO_SUCH_DOMAIN I have also created a separate network to emulate that office's configuration that's connected to the DC network via LAN-to-LAN VPN instead of MPLS. Joining Windows 7 computers from that remote network works fine. The only difference I can find between the two environments is the intermediate connectivity, but I'm out of ideas as to what to test or how to do it. What further steps should I take? (Note that this isn't actually my client workstation and I have no direct access to it; I'm forced to do remote hands access to it, which makes some of the obvious troubleshooting methods, like packet sniffing, more difficult. If I could just set up a system there that I could remote into, I would, but requests to that effect have gone unanswered.) 2011-08-25 update: I had DCDIAG.EXE run on a client attempting to join the domain: C:\Windows\System32>dcdiag /u:example\adminuser /p:********* /s:dc2.example.local Directory Server Diagnosis Performing initial setup: Ldap search capabality attribute search failed on server dc2.example.local, return value = 81 This sounds like it was able to connect via LDAP, but the thing that it was trying to do failed. But I don't quite follow what it was trying to do, much less how to reproduce it or resolve it. 2011-08-26 update: Using LDP.EXE to try and make an LDAP connection directly to the DCs results in these errors: ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.1", 389); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.1. ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.2", 389); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.2. ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.1", 3268); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.1. ld = ldap_open("10.0.0.2", 3268); Error <0x51: Fail to connect to 10.0.0.2. This would seem to point fingers at LDAP connections being blocked somewhere. (And 0x51 == 81, which was the error from DCDIAG.EXE from yesterday's update.) I could swear I tested this using TELNET.EXE weeks ago, but now I'm thinking that I may have assumed that its clearing of the screen was telling me that it was waiting and not that it had connected. I'm tracking down LDAP connectivity problems now. This update may become an answer.

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• SQL Server Issue: Could not allocate space for object ... primary filegroup is full

  - by Luke

  Trying to figure out a problem at an office that has SQL Server 2005 installed on Windows SBS Server 2008. Here's the setup: It's an office, and the person who set this all up is nowhere to be found. I'm the best hope they have... One of the programs they use on a workstation gives them an error of "Could not allocate space for object 'Billing' in database "MyDatabase" because primary filegroup is full" when trying to save an entry in their software. I searched around for hours, looking for possible solutions. One was to check for available disk space, and another was to defrag. I checked the hard drives on the server, and there is plenty of space free. I also defragged, which may have helped the problem somewhat. It's hard to say, because it seems like with the nature of the error, if you try over and over you might get it to actually save. My next step was to try to see if autogrowth was enabled on the database. This would seem to be a likely / possible solution, but I can't access the database! If I run the SQL Management Studio, I can log in as my Windows user and view the list of databases. However, if I try to do anything (actually view the database, view the properties, add or edit users), I get errors that I don't have permission. For what it's worth, I also tried runing Management Studio as Administrator, in case that would help. No difference, though. Now, what I'm guessing is going on -- from my limited knowledge of SQL and from reading online -- is that though I'm logged in as a Windows administrator, that account does NOT have SQL access. I do see a list of SQL users, including SA, but I again don't have permission to add one or to change the password on an existing one. And nobody at the office has any idea what the SQL passwords could be. So... here's my thinking thus far: 1 - The "Could not allocate" error likely points to a database that needs to be allowed to autogrow. Especially since I verified there is plenty of free space and the HD has been defragmented. 2 - Enabling autogrow would be very easy to do if I had the proper access within SQL Management Stuido. That leads me to this link: http://blogs.technet.com/b/sqlman/archive/2011/06/14/tips-amp-tricks-you-have-lost-access-to-sql-server-now-what.aspx It sounds like it's a step-by-step guide for giving me the access I need to SQL. I'm guessing that if I followed this guide, I would be able to then log in to the SQL server via Management Studio with the proper permissions, and would be able to enable autogrow (or simply view the status of the existing database), and hopefully solve the "Could not allocate space" problem! So I guess I have a few questions: 1 - Would you guys agree with my "diagnosis"? Think I'm barking up the right tree? 2 - Is there any risk at all in hurting / disabling / wrecking the current SQL database or setup with me going through the guide to regain SQL access? I understand that per the guide, I would have to temporarily shut down SQL, so obviously it wouldn't be accessible during that time. But it wouldn't be worth the risk if there's a chance I could mess anything up... Like I said, the workstations ARE currently accessing the database somehow, but nobody knows with what login info or anything. Basically, it's set up, it works (usually), but if they had to reload the software, nobody would know how. Any feedback would be appreciated!! The problem is such that it's not an emergency for them, but an annoyance. If I could fix it, it would be wonderful. But if not, I think they'll manage, especially as they are going to eventually stop using this software. Thank you so much for your time! Luke

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• How to transfer data between two networks efficiently

  - by Tono Nam

  I would like to transfer files between two places over the internet. Right now I have a VPN and I am able to browse, download and transfer files. So my question is not really how to transfer the files; Instead, I would like to use the most efficient approach because the two places constantly share a lot of data. The reason why I want to get rid of the VPN is because it is two slow. Having high upload speed is very expensive/impossible in residential places so I would like to use a different approach. I was thinking about using programs such as http://www.dropbox.com . The problem with Dropbox is that the free version comes with only 2 GB of storage. I think the deals they offer are OK and I might be willing to pay to get that increase in speed. But I am concerned with the speed of transferring data. Dropbox will upload the file to their server then send it from the server to the other location. I would like it to be even faster. Anyway I was thinking why not create a program myself. This is the algorithm that I was thinking of. Let me know if it sounds too crazy. (Remember my goal is to transfer files as fast as possible) Things that I will use in this algorithm: Server on the internet called S (Has fast download and upload speed. I pay to host a website and some services in there. I want to take advantage of it.) Client A at location 1 Client B at location 2 So lets say at location 1, 20 large files are created and need to be transferred to location 2. Client A compresses the files with the highest compression ratio possible. Client A starts sending data via UDP to client B. Because I am using UDP I will include the sequence number on each packet. Have server S help speed up things. For example every time a packet is lost we can use Server S to inform client A that it needs to resend a packet. Anyways I think this approach will increase the transfer rate. I do not know if it is possible to start sending data while it is being compressed. Or if it is possible to start decompressing data even if we are not done receiving the whole file. Maybe it will be faster to start sending the files right away without compressing. If I knew that I will always be sending large text files then I will obviously use the compression. I need this as a general algorithm. So I guess my question is could I increase performance by using UDP instead of TCP and by using an extra server to keep track of lost packets? And how should I compress files before sending? Compressing a 1 GB file with the highest compression ratio takes about 1 hour! I would like to take advantage of that time by sending it as it is being compressed.

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• How to transfer data between two netowks efficiently

  - by Tono Nam

  I will like to transfer files between two places over the internet. Right now I have a VPN and I am able to browse, download and transfer files. So my question is not really how to transfer the files; Instead, I will like to use the most efficient approach because the two places constantly share a lot of data. The reason why I want to get rid of the vpn is because it is two slow. Having high upload speed is very expensive/impossible on residential places so I will like to use a different approach. I was thinking about using programs such as http://www.dropbox.com . The problem with dropbox is it only enables 2 GB of storage in order for it to be free. I think the deals they offer are ok and I might be willing to pay to get that increase in speed. But I am concerned with the speed of transferring data. Dropbox will upload the file to their server then send it from the server to the other location. I will like it even faster lol. Anyways I was thinking why not create a program my self. This is the algorithm that I was thinking let me know if it sounds to crazy. (remember my goal is to transfer files as fastest as possible) Things that I will use in this algorithm: Server on the internet called S ( has fast download and upload speed. I pay to host a website and some services in there. I want to take advantage of it) Client A on location 1 Client B on location 2 So lets say on location 1 20 large files are created and need to be transferred to location 2. Client A compresses the files with the highest compression ratio possible. Client A starts sending data via UDP to client B. Because I am using UDP I will include the sequence number on each package. Have server S help speed up things. For example every time a package is lost we can use Server S to inform client A that it needs to resend a package. Anyways I think this approach will increase the transfer rate. I do not know if it is possible to start sending data meanwhile it is being compressed. Also if it is possible to start decompressing data even if we are not done receiving all the info. Maybe it will be faster to start sending the files right away without compressing. If I knew that I will always be sending large text files then I will obviously use the compression. I need this as a general algorithm. So i guess my question is should using UDP over TCP could increase performance by using an extra server to keep track of lost packages? and How should I compress files before sending? compressing a 1 GB file with the highest compression ration takes about 1 hour! I will like to take advantage of that time by sending it meanwhile it is compressed.

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• How to restore Linode to Vagrant VM?

  - by Iain Elder

  I'm trying to set up a Linux development environment so I can safely make changes to my website without breaking the live site. Linode hosts my live site. A simple solution would be to host my development server on Linode as well, but I want to avoid doubling my hosting costs. The cheapest way I see is to use Vagrant on my Windows workstation to host my development environment. After I attempt to restore the backup to Vagrant and reboot the VM, I can no longer ssh into the Vagrant host. It's probably because by restoring the backup I overwrite some special Vagrant configuration, but I'm not sure how to avoid that. How do I make this approach work? If my approach is fundamentally wrong, can you suggest an alternative? Creating the backup On the Linode I used these commands to create a compressed copy of the entire filesystem, while ignoring things that shouldn't be included in the backup: $ sudo rsync -ahvz --exclude={/dev/*,/proc/*,/sys/*,/tmp/*,/run/*,/mnt/*,/backup/*} /* /backup/2 $ sudo tar -czf /backup/2.gz /backup/2 The backup file is called 2.gz because this is thesecond backup. The first backup is called 1.gz. I use WinSCP to copy the backup file to my Windows workstation. Setting up the Vagrant host I need a Vagrant box that matches my Linode operating system (Ubuntu 12.04.3 LTS, kernel 3.9.3). I selected the closet match from vagrantbox.es: Ubuntu Server Precise 12.04.3 amd64 Kernel is ready for Docker (Docker not included) On my workstation I ran these commands to add the box and initialize and boot an instance: $ vagrant box add ubuntu-precise http://nitron-vagrant.s3-website-us-east-1.amazonaws.com/vagrant_ubuntu_12.04.3_amd64_virtualbox.box $ mkdir linode-test $ cd linode-test $ vagrant init ubuntu-precise $ vagrant up Now Vagrant is running a machine with SSH on port 2222. The operating system version is the same. The kernel version is 3.8.0. Sounds close enough. Restoring the backup With WinSCP I copied the backup file 2.gz to /home/vagrant/2.gz on the Vagrant box. With PuTTY I connected via ssh to my new Vagrant box: On the box move the backup to the filesystem root. $ sudo mv 2.gz / Extract the archive to the filesystem root: $ sudo tar -xvpz -f 2.gz -C / --strip-components=2 (I discovered I need to use strip components because all files in the archive have the prefix backup/2/. I'll fix this for the next backup.) After the tar command completes, I log out of the box. Testing the backup When I try to log in again, it doesn't let me log in as vagrant with a password any more. It does let me log in as iain, my user on the live Linode, with a password. That surprised me because I disabled password authentication on my live Linode. I figured that I have to restart the ssh service for the change to take effect. Instead of restarting just ssh, I chose to restart the whole system. Now I can't even get to the login screen. PuTTY says "connection refused" when I try to connect. What went wrong?

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• simple and reliable centralized logging inside Amazon VPC

  - by Nakedible

  I need to set up centralized logging for a set of servers (10-20) in an Amazon VPC. The logging should be as to not lose any log messages in case any single server goes offline - or in the case that an entire availability zone goes offline. It should also tolerate packet loss and other normal network conditions without losing or duplicating messages. It should store the messages durably, at the minimum on two different EBS volumes in two availability zones, but S3 is a good place as well. It should also be realtime so that the messages arrive within seconds of their generation to two different availability zones. I also need to sync logfiles not generated via syslog, so a syslog-only centralized logging solution would not fulfill all the needs, although I guess that limitation could be worked around. I have already reviewed a few solutions, and I will list them here: Flume to Flume to S3: I could set up two logservers as Flume hosts which would store log messages either locally or in S3, and configure all the servers with Flume to send all messages to both servers, using the end-to-end reliability options. That way the loss of a single server shouldn't cause lost messages and all messages would arrive in two availability zones in realtime. However, there would need to be some way to join the logs of the two servers, deduplicating all the messages delivered to both. This could be done by adding a unique id on the sending side to each message and then write some manual deduplication runs on the logfiles. I haven't found an easy solution to the duplication problem. Logstash to Logstash to ElasticSearch: I could install Logstash on the servers and have them deliver to a central server via AMQP, with the durability options turned on. However, for this to work I would need to use some of the clustering capable AMQP implementations, or fan out the deliver just as in the Flume case. AMQP seems to be a yet another moving part with several implementations and no real guidance on what works best this sort of setup. And I'm not entirely convinced that I could get actual end-to-end durability from logstash to elasticsearch, assuming crashing servers in between. The fan-out solutions run in to the deduplication problem again. The best solution that would seem to handle all the cases, would be Beetle, which seems to provide high availability and deduplication via a redis store. However, I haven't seen any guidance on how to set this up with Logstash and Redis is one more moving part again for something that shouldn't be terribly difficult. Logstash to ElasticSearch: I could run Logstash on all the servers, have all the filtering and processing rules in the servers themselves and just have them log directly to a removet ElasticSearch server. I think this should bring me reliable logging and I can use the ElasticSearch clustering features to share the database transparently. However, I am not sure if the setup actually survives Logstash restarts and intermittent network problems without duplicating messages in a failover case or similar. But this approach sounds pretty promising. rsync: I could just rsync all the relevant log files to two different servers. The reliability aspect should be perfect here, as the files should be identical to the source files after a sync is done. However, doing an rsync several times per second doesn't sound fun. Also, I need the logs to be untamperable after they have been sent, so the rsyncs would need to be in append-only mode. And log rotations mess things up unless I'm careful. rsyslog with RELP: I could set up rsyslog to send messages to two remote hosts via RELP and have a local queue to store the messages. There is the deduplication problem again, and RELP itself might also duplicate some messages. However, this would only handle the things that log via syslog. None of these solutions seem terribly good, and they have many unknowns still, so I am asking for more information here from people who have set up centralized reliable logging as to what are the best tools to achieve that goal.

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• What would make a noise in a PC on graphics operations on a passively-cooled system?

  - by T.J. Crowder

  I have this system based on the Intel D510MO motherboard, which is basically an Atom D510 (dual-core HT Atom w/built-in GPU), an Intel NM10 chipset, and a Realtek Gigabit LAN controller. It's entirely passively cooled. I noticed almost immediately that there was a kind of very, very soft noise that corresponded with graphics operations, sort of the noise you'd get if you had a sheet of flat paper and slid something really light across it — but more electronic than that. I wrote it off as observation error and/or disk activity triggered by the graphics operation (although the latter seemed like a lot of unnecessary disk activity). It isn't. I got curious enough that I finally did a few controlled experiments, and here's what I've determined: It isn't the HDD. For one thing, the sounds the HDD makes (when seeking, when reading or writing, when just sitting there spinning) is different. For another, I used sudo hdparm -y /dev/sda (I'm using Ubuntu 10.04 LTS) to temporarily put the disk on standby while making sure that non-disk graphics op was happening in a loop. The disk spun down, but the other sound continued, corresponding perfectly with the timing of the graphics op. (Then the disk spun up again, but it takes long enough that I could rule out the HDD.) It isn't the monitor; I ensured the two were well physically-separated and the sound was definitely coming from the main box. It isn't something else in the room; the sound is coming from the box. It isn't cross-talk to an audio circuit coming out the speakers. (It doesn't have any speakers.) It isn't my mouse (e.g., when I'm trying to make graphics ops happen); the sound happens if I set up a recurring operation and don't use the mouse at all, or if I lift the mouse off the table slightly (but enough that the laser still registers movement). It isn't the voices in my head; they never whisper like that. Other observations: It doesn't seem to matter what the graphics operation is; anything that changes what's on the screen seems to do it. I get the sound when moving the mouse over the Chromium tab bar (which makes the tab backgrounds change); I get it when a web page has a counter on it that changes the text on the page: I get it when dragging window contents around. The sound is very, very slightly louder if the graphics op is larger, like scrolling a text area when writing a question on superuser.com, than for smaller operations like the tick counter on the web page. But it's very slight. It's fairly loud (and of good duration) when the op involves color changes to substantial surface areas. For instance, when asking a question here on superuser and you move the cursor between the question box and the tag box, and the help to the right fades out, changes, and fades back in. (Yet another example related to the web browser, so let me say: I hear it when operations completely unrelated to the web browser as well.) It doesn't sound like arcing or anything like that (I'd've shut off the machine Right Quick Like if it did). Moving windows does it. Scrolling windows (by and large) doesn't. I have the feeling I've heard this sort of thing before, when all system fans were on low and such, with other systems — but (again) written it off as observational error. For all the world it's like I'm hearing the CPU working (as opposed to the GPU; note the window scroll thing above) or data being transferred somewhere, but that just seems...unlikely. So what am I hearing? This may seem like a very localized question, but perhaps other silent PC enthusiasts may be interested as well...

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• How to configure multiple iSCSI Portal Groups on a EqualLogic PS6100?

  - by kce

  I am working on a migration from a VMware vSphere environment to a Hyper-V Cluster utilizing Windows Server 2012 R2. The setup is pretty small, an EqualLogic PS6100e and two Dell PowerConnect 5424 switches and handful of R710s and R620s. The SAN was configured as a non-RFC1918 network that is not assigned to our organization and since I am working on building a new virtualization environment I figured that this would be an appropriate time to do a subnet migration. I configured a separate VLAN and subnet on the switches and the two previously unused NICs on the PS6100's controllers. At this time I only have a single Hyper-V host cabled in but I can successfully ping the PS6100 from the host. From the PS6100 I can ping each of the four NICs that currently on the storage network. I cannot connect the Microsoft iSCSI Initiator to the Target. I have successfully added the Target Portals (the IP addresses of PS6100 NICs) and the Targets are discovered but listed as inactive. If I try to Connect to them I get the following error, "Log onto Target - Connection Failed" and ISCSIPrt 1 and 70 events are recorded in the Event Log. I have verified that access control to the volume is not the problem by temporarily disabling it. I suspect the problem is with the Portal Group IP address which is still listed as Group Address of old subnet (I know, I know I might be committing the sin of the X/Y problem but everything else looks good): RFC3720 has this to say about Network Portal and Portal Groups: Network Portal: The Network Portal is a component of a Network Entity that has a TCP/IP network address and that may be used by an iSCSI Node within that Network Entity for the connection(s) within one of its iSCSI sessions. A Network Portal in an initiator is identified by its IP address. A Network Portal in a target is identified by its IP address and its listening TCP port. Portal Groups: iSCSI supports multiple connections within the same session; some implementations will have the ability to combine connections in a session across multiple Network Portals. A Portal Group defines a set of Network Portals within an iSCSI Network Entity that collectively supports the capability of coordinating a session with connections spanning these portals. Not all Network Portals within a Portal Group need participate in every session connected through that Portal Group. One or more Portal Groups may provide access to an iSCSI Node. Each Network Portal, as utilized by a given iSCSI Node, belongs to exactly one portal group within that node. The EqualLogic Group Manager documentation has this to say about the Group IP Address: You use the group IP address as the iSCSI discovery address when connecting initiators to iSCSI targets in the group. If you modify the group IP address, you might need to change your initiator configuration to use the new discovery address Changing the group IP address disconnects any iSCSI connections to the group and any administrators logged in to the group through the group IP address. Which sounds equivalent to me (I am following up with support to confirm). I think a reasonable explanation at this point is that the Initiator can't complete the connection to the Target because the Group IP Address / Network Portal is on a different subnet. I really want to avoid a cutover and would prefer to run both subnets side-by-side until I can install and configure each Hyper-V host. Question/s: Is my assessment at all reasonable? Is it possible to configure multiple Group IP Addresses on the EqualLogic PS6100? I don't want to just change it as it will disconnect the remaining ESXi hosts. Am I just Doing It Wrong(TM)?

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• Email forwarding from my domain to gmail - FAIL

  - by pitosalas

  [There are numerous similar questions on ServerFault but I couldn't find one that was exactly on point] Background: I use Gmail for my email client. My email is [email protected]. However the email that people communicate to me with is [email protected]. I run the server that hosts www.example.com and other domains, at ServerBeach. Up to yesterday, I had SENDMAIL painlessly just forward emails to [email protected] to [email protected] and everything was fine, for several years in fact. Suddenly my email stopped working - that is, my gmail account stopped receiving emails via the forward from my server. Looking into it I found a bunch of emails sitting on my server with content like this: ... while talking to gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com.: RCPT To: <<< 450-4.2.1 The user you are trying to contact is receiving mail at a rate that <<< 450-4.2.1 prevents additional messages from being delivered. Please resend your <<< 450-4.2.1 message at a later time. If the user is able to receive mail at that <<< 450-4.2.1 time, your message will be delivered. For more information, please <<< 450 4.2.1 visit xxxxxx://mail.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?answer=6592 u15si37138086qco.76 [email protected]... Deferred: 450-4.2.1 The user you are trying to contact is receiving mail at a rate that DATA <<< 550-5.7.1 [64.34.168.137 1] Our system has detected an unusual rate of <<< 550-5.7.1 unsolicited mail originating from your IP address. To protect our <<< 550-5.7.1 users from spam, mail sent from your IP address has been blocked. <<< 550-5.7.1 Please visit xxxxx://www.google.com/mail/help/bulk_mail.html to review <<< 550 5.7.1 our Bulk Email Senders Guidelines. u15si37138086qco.76 554 5.0.0 Service unavailable ... while talking to alt1.gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com.: From what I've been researching, I think somehow someone has/is hijacking my domain name or something and this somehow has caused gmail's servers to notice and cut me off. But I don't know really what's going on nor do I see whatever emails might be involved. I've read stuff on zoneedit.com that sounds like they might have a solution in their service for what I am trying to do. I also read a lot about admining DNS and SENDMAIL and tried various things, but nothing works. Can you tell from my description what is going on that caused GMail's server to stop accepting email from my server and is there a way to stop it? What is the 'correct' way to configure things so that emails to [email protected] behave as if they were sent to [email protected]? Thanks so much!

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• How do I resolve "conflicting accounts" in google apps without breaking links to online photos on picasa?

  - by lee

  I have been using google apps for some time, and only recently learned I have what google calls "conflicting accounts" which is creating a problem I haven't been able to resolve. Turns out that the apps account really only covers email, google docs, and the calendar and not other features like picasa, blogger, youtube etc. and at some point they gave me a non-apps google account with my same (proprietary non-gmail) email address for the additional apps. This is the "conflicting account." I had noticed that I sometimes had to come in through another door when I went back and forth, between docs, picasa, and mail let's say, but never understood why since it was the same username and password and I didn't get any communication about it at the time. Google is now in the process of giving google apps users access to the additional apps and providing instructions for consolidating the two accounts. But if I want to move my picasa site into the new apps structure I have to download my albums and re-synch them. This would be disastrous for me as I have hundreds of photos embedded in my websites, and new web addresses would break all the connections. The alternative seems to be to rename my "personal" (non-apps) accounts as described at http://www.google.com/support/a/bin/answer.py?answer=185186: Users with conflicting Google Accounts can easily resolve their conflicts by renaming their personal Google Accounts, and the data in their personal accounts will remain safe and accessible to them. Here’s how a user can rename their personal Google Account: * Step 1: Visit www.google.com/accounts and sign in with your personal Google Account * Step 2: Click ‘Change email’ under ‘Personal Settings’ * Step 3: Enter a different email address where you can receive mail, enter your password, and click ‘Save email address’ * Step 4: Check your other email If your users don’t have different email addresses where they can receive mail, they can resolve the conflict by renaming their personal Google Accounts to @gmail.com addresses instead. Sounds easy enough, right? I gave them a gmail address. The wizard said "sorry you can't use a gmail account for this" --which contradicts the last paragraph above but ok, I switched to a new email address I just created for one of my domains. I can send email back and forth between this account and my google apps account with no problem. But when I try to use it as a replacement on the "personal" side I always get "The password you gave is incorrect." I have tried it over and over and know the password is correct. Since I like to get all my emails though one web interface I initially had the new email set up as an add-on to my google apps email account, but noting that the instructions said the "personal account" email could not be associated with any other gmail account I took it off and went back to accessing it via horde so there would be no conflict there, which seemed to make no difference. I can't figure out why it won't accept the password. Does anyone have any thoughts about that? or suggestions for another way to resolve my picasa problem? any help at all is greatly appreciated. Lee

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• Problems with XP, Office, and PC in general - any ideas?

  - by molecule

  Hi all This may not make a whole lot of sense so pls bear with me... I am about to perform a routine check on one of my user's PC. Some background - the PC has a Xeon processor and 4Gb of RAM and running XP SP3 He has 2xHDD and pagefile is hosted on the secondary HDD (D:) and min/max values are set to 4096. NO pagefile on C: This user has 6 monitors so he has an NVIDIA Quadro NVS440 hosting 4xmonitors and an NVIDIA Quadro NVS290 hosting 2xmonitors. There is a video card driver from NVIDIA which is compatible with both NVS440 and NVS290 and he is on the latest version of that driver. (Note: Make of video cards are different - one is from leadtek and the other from Nvidia) He is a heavy Bloomberg, Outlook, Word, and Excel user and runs two Citrix applications. Other apps are FoxIt PDF and IE. Problems - Outlook and Excel frequently crashes - I am going to perform an Outlook and Excel repair and also check/remove unnecessary addins - will he lose any customizations if I repaired and chose "Restore my shortcuts while repairing" and do not select "Discard my customized settings and restore default settings". Does repair really repair anything? FYI - It stopped crashing ever since i moved a large spreadsheet he has open to his local HDD instead of over the network. This spreadsheet "refreshes" constantly as it is pulling live data to update cells and I suspect it was auto-saving so frequently that it caused crashes if saving over the network. At times, his right click completely fails to respond. His left click works fine but he can't right click on anything in any Window and even on the desktop. Sometimes, he needs to start to close certain applications such as Adobe and the right click will start functioning again. I removed Adobe and installed FoxIt as I figured it was a resource issue but I do not think so as he does have sufficient resources when the problem is happening. Sometimes he can't bring task manager up until he kills certain apps. Definitely sounds like a resource issue but I am not confident that is the root cause. Also not sure if this is related to one of the apps installed but his Start bar flickers (does not completely disappear) intermittently from time to time. The taskbar icons which are hidden appear and then get hidden again as if it was having "fits". I have performed reg scans, malware scans etc but problems do not go away. I am planning to perform sfc /scannow and office repair but would like to know if anyone has any other suggestions. What about setting a "small" pagefile on C:. I have heard that this is recommended and may be the reason why a minidmp file was not generated when he encountered a blue screen. Also, any feedback on his video cards? Do you think different models would cause problems? The drivers seem to work but he only has 2.5Gb out of 4Gb available RAM as I believe the video card chomped up a portion of this. I have recommended creating a new profile for him but due to the amount of customisations he has and the amount of time and effort it will take to get him up and running again, he prefers to bear with the problem than to go down that path. However, at least once a week, his PC acts up and I can't think of any other tools or techniques to rectify his problems. I guess we are at a stage where we just want to "stabilize" things so he won't encounter issues that frequently. Any feedback is very much appreciated.

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• Gaming blew fuse and causes funny smell: how to overcome?

  - by George Tomlinson

  I've been gaming for a while now. When playing certain games this PC goes into overdrive. The fan/fans start/s to sound like a jet engine it/they get/s so busy. Also I have smelt burning when this has happened. The fuse blew on the 4 socket adapter I was using recently. On the following thread someone said this could be due to the PSU not being strong enough to handle the load, in what it seems could be a related issue someone had, although the person who posted this question did say that blowing a fan on their PC stopped it crashing in that case: http://www.tomshardware.co.uk/answers/id-2047543/gtx-650-overheating-issue.html. This is exactly what they said: Your GPU isn't overheating. 70+ before it would shutdown and cause a restart. Make sure your PSU is strong enough to handle your new system at load and possibly run Memtest to check your RAM (although not BSOD'ing and just shutting down points to the PSU). This (the PSU part) makes more sense to me than it being to do with dust etc, since it seems a more plausible explanation of why the fuse blew. The PC has no problems except when playing certain games: i.e. TERA Rising and WoW with add-ons (I think WoW is ok as long as I don't have more than 1 add-on (Healers Have To Die)). I'm just wondering if anyone knows or can suggest what I might be able to do to be able to play these games without this problem occurring. The PC's spec is this: Display: NVIDIA GeForce GTX 650 8GB RAM (6 available) Processor: AMD FX (tm) - 8120 Eight-Core Processor - 3.1 GHz, 4 Cores, 8 Logical Processors I have read on another post that forcing vsync in the Nvidia Control Panel helped with what seems could be a similar problem, so I plan to see if that solves it, God permitting. EDIT: I tried the Vsync thing, and it seems the situation may have improved, although this may be due to something else: i.e. maybe the PC was working harder yesterday, due to just having downloaded a few things or lots of things running. I'm still noticing the funny smell when playing TERA. It's not so much burning: it's more like glue. The smell might have had a burning element to it in the past, but I think it's always had a glue element. EDIT 2: the PSU is an 'ATX Switching Power Supply', Model E-500ATX. Other info it gives on the PSU is 230V, Current 10A and Frequency 50-60Hz. It also has some other info which I can supply if necessary. Putting the PC plug in the wall socket instead of the power strip seems like it might have reduced the load on the PC quite a bit: I think it sounds less stressed. it has been off for a while whilst I took the side panel off though, so I'll wait to see what happens before getting too excited. EDIT 3: hmm. So here's the latest: just playing TERA. The fan's running quite fast again. Hard to tell whether switching to the wall socket has made a difference in terms of strain on the PC: I don't know if one would expect it to. Still seems like it might have helped though. Oh and there didn't seem to be much dust in the PC, although I didn't disconnect any components. I'm still getting the glue type smell. ASIDE: reminds me of someone on a PC near me at the library once who was actually sniffing glue right there in front of everyone while on the PC and he started talking about how he was sniffing glue. lol. That's no joke. EDIT 4: So the questions now are: Question 1: Is the smell something I should sort out? (If so, how might I do this?) Question 2: is it necessary to take any steps to prevent blowing another fuse (and if so which step/s?).

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• A failed disk (Pay for professional service or SpinRite?)(new edit)

  - by huggie

  EDIT: After much negotiating and begging and seeing through promotion smoke screen, thanks to the nice representative who took my case, I now know that the engineer has already fixed my NTFS partition (I guess it might be a bad block in the partition table?). She told me that the problem was considered minor, and I should be able to boot normally and just copy stuff out. Whew..I'm glad I didn't agree to the NTD $16,000 deal. New question (should this be in a new thread?): is it safer to use the linux "dd" command or is it better to boot normally into Windows XP and just copy stuff out? EDIT2: Thanks to all the help. I give the best answer to Console as it's most directed related to my question. But many suggestion are helpful and informational. ---- ORIGINAL POST BELOW --- Hi, in my previous post (You don't need to read but it's at http://superuser.com/questions/48838/windows-xp-a-disk-read-error-occurred), I said that my hard disk was not booting and is showing "a disk read error occurred". I took it to a recovery professional. A representative responded today told me that the NTFS partitions have a "NTFS partition system crash". I have no idea what that means. The engineer handling my drive will not be available for contact till tomorrow. Now the company charges me NTD (New Taiwan Dollar) $16,000 to recover lost data, that's kind of a lot considering that my graduate student monthly stipend is currently NTD $32,000 (max. allowed by regulation, may be lower, may change depend on funding). Now I'm weighting in between the options. Option A: let the professional recovers it with the half of my monthly stipend. If file/directories I designated are not recovered I don't pay a penny. (other than the initial examination fee of NTD $1000 which I've already paid.) Option B: let me try SpinRite, if failed, back to Option A. I spoke to the representative at the company they recommended me not to handle it on my own (yeah of course that's what they all want to say, right?), and at the price tag the disk error is probably relatively minor and data recoverable. But the representative really did not have detailed information of the disk failure so I didn't take her recommendation readily. Though one thing I heed was that she said that what they would do is to duplicate the disk before attempting discovery, so there would be no data loss (Is this true? can't duplicating invoke further data loss?). That sounds very good to me. Or maybe a third option: Option C: Negotiate with them to pay them to duplicate the disk hopefully for a much smaller price tag. Let me try SpinRite, if failed, back to Option A. This is a difficult decision. Ultimately I want my data back, but if a cheaper way is available to achieve the same thing... Can operating with SpinRite also corrupt data in someway? I've no idea what happened to my drive. I'll attempt to contact the engineer and hope to get it clarified and make an edit here.

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