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  • Filter a wpf collectionviewsource in VB?

    - by Johnny Westlake
    Hi, I want to filter a collectionviewsource using a filter I've written, but I'm not sure how I can apply the filter to it? Here is my collection view source: <Grid.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Source="{Binding Path=Query4, Source={x:Static Application.Current}}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ContactID" Direction="Descending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Grid.Resources> I have implemented a filter as such: Private Sub WorkerFilter(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As FilterEventArgs) Dim value As Object = CType(e.Item, System.Data.DataRow)("StaffSection") If (Not value Is Nothing) And (Not value Is DBNull.Value) Then If (value = "Builder") Or (value = "Office Staff") Then e.Accepted = True Else e.Accepted = False End If End If End Sub So how can I get the CollectionViewSource filtered by the filter on load? Could you please give all hte code I need (only a few lines I figure) as I'm quite new to coding. Thanks guys EDIT: For the record, <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Filter="WorkerFilter" ... /> gives me the error: Failed object initialization (ISupportInitialize.EndInit). 'System.Windows.Data.BindingListCollectionView' view does not support filtering. Error at object 'myCollectionView'

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  • Gmail: How to send an email programmatically

    - by Clint
    Possible Exact Duplicate: Sending Email in C#.NET Through Gmail Hi, I'm trying to send an email using gmail: I tried various examples that I found on this site and other sites but I always get the same error: Unable to connect to the remote server -- System.net.Sockets.SocketException: No connection could be made because the target actively refused it 209.85.147.109:587 public static void Attempt1() { var client = new SmtpClient("smtp.gmail.com", 587) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential("[email protected]", "MyPassWord"), EnableSsl = true }; client.Send("[email protected]", "[email protected]", "test", "testbody"); } Any ideas? UPDATE More details. Maybe I should say what other attempts I made that gave me the same error: (Note when i didn't specify a port it tryed port 25) public static void Attempt2() { var fromAddress = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "From Name"); var toAddress = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "To Name"); const string fromPassword = "pass"; const string subject = "Subject"; const string body = "Body"; var smtp = new SmtpClient { Host = "smtp.gmail.com", Port = 587, EnableSsl = true, DeliveryMethod = SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network, UseDefaultCredentials = false, Credentials = new NetworkCredential(fromAddress.Address, fromPassword) }; using (var message = new MailMessage(fromAddress, toAddress) { Subject = subject, Body = body } ) { smtp.Send(message); } } public static void Attempt3() { MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "Email using Gmail"; string Body = "Hi, this mail is to test sending mail" + "using Gmail in ASP.NET"; mail.Body = Body; mail.IsBodyHtml = true; SmtpClient smtp = new SmtpClient(); smtp.Host = "smtp.gmail.com"; smtp.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential ("[email protected]", "pass"); smtp.EnableSsl = true; smtp.Send(mail); }

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  • Page.User.Identity.Name is blank on pages of subdomains

    - by sparks
    I have multiple subdomains trying to use a single subdomain for authentiction using forms authentication all running on windows server 2008 r2. All of the forms authentication pages are setup to use the same name, and on the authentication page the cookie is added with the following snippet: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(txtUserName.Text, false); System.Web.HttpCookie MyCookie = System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie(User.Identity.Name.ToString(), false); MyCookie.Domain = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["domainName"]; Response.AppendCookie(MyCookie); When I am logged in to signon.mysite.com the page.user.identity.isauthenticated and page.user.identity.name properties both work fine. When I navigate to subdomain.mysite.com the page.user.identity.isauthenticated returns true, bue the name is empty. I tried to retrieve it from the cookie using the following, but it also was blank. HttpCookie cookie = Request.Cookies[".ASPXAUTH"]; FormsAuthenticationTicket fat = FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cookie.Value); user2_lbl.Text = fat.Name; When googling the issue I found some people saying something must be added to global.asax and other saying it wasn't necessary. The goal is to be able to login on the authentication subdomain and have the user identity accessible from the root site and other subdomains. Machine keys match in all web.config, and the AppSettings["domainName"] is set to "mysite.com" currently. Does anyone know what is preventing me from accessing the user information?

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  • Inheriting from ViewPage forces explicit casting of model in view

    - by Martin Hansen
    I try to inhering from ViewPage as shown in this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/370500/inheriting-from-viewpage But I get a Compiler Error Message: CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'Spot' and no extension method 'Spot' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) My viewpage, normally I can do Model.ChildProperty(Spot) when I inherit from ViewPage directly, so I do that here too. But it fails. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(Model.Spot.Title) %></h1> To get it working correctly I have to do like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(((WebSite.Models.SpotEntity)Model).Spot.Title) %></h1> Here is my classes: namespace Company.Site { public class ViewPageBase<TModel> : Company.Site.ViewPageBase where TModel:class { private ViewDataDictionary<TModel> _viewData; [System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessage("Microsoft.Usage", "CA2227:CollectionPropertiesShouldBeReadOnly")] public new ViewDataDictionary<TModel> ViewData { get { if (_viewData == null) { SetViewData(new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>()); } return _viewData; } set { SetViewData(value); } } protected override void SetViewData(ViewDataDictionary viewData) { _viewData = new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>(viewData); base.SetViewData(_viewData); } } public class ViewPageBase : System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage { } } So how do I get it to work without the explicit cast?

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  • Finding JNP port in JBoss from Servlet

    - by Steve Jackson
    I have a servlet running in JBoss (4.2.2.GA and 4.3-eap) that needs to connect to an EJB to do work. In general this code works fine to get the Context to connect and make RMI calls (all in the same server). public class ContextFactory { public static final int DEFAULT_JNDI_PORT = 1099; public static final String DEFAULT_CONTEXT_FACTORY_CLASS = "org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory"; public static final String DEFAULT_URL_PREFIXES = "org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces"; public Context createContext(String serverAddress) { //combine provider name and port String providerUrl = serverAddress + ":" + DEFAULT_JNDI_PORT; //Set properties needed for Context: factory, provider, and package prefixes. Hashtable<String, String> env = new Hashtable<String, String>(3); env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, DEFAULT_CONTEXT_FACTORY_CLASS); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, providerUrl); env.put(Context.URL_PKG_PREFIXES, DEFAULT_URL_PREFIXES); return new InitialContext(env); } Now, when I change the JNDI bind port from 1099 in server/conf/jboss-service.xml I can't figure out how to programatically find the correct port for the providerUrl above. I've dumped System.getProperties() and System.getEnv() and it doesn't appear there. I'm pretty sure I can set it in server/conf/jndi.properties as well, but I was hoping to avoid another magic config file. I've tried the HttpNamingContextFactory but that fails "java.net.ProtocolException: Server redirected too many times (20)" env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, "org.jboss.naming.HttpNamingContextFactory"); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, "http://" + serverAddress + ":8080/invoker/JNDIFactory"); Any ideas?

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  • C# and F# lambda expressions code generation

    - by ControlFlow
    Let's look at the code, generated by F# for simple function: let map_add valueToAdd xs = xs |> Seq.map (fun x -> x + valueToAdd) The generated code for lambda expression (instance of F# functional value) will looks like this: [Serializable] internal class map_add@3 : FSharpFunc<int, int> { public int valueToAdd; internal map_add@3(int valueToAdd) { this.valueToAdd = valueToAdd; } public override int Invoke(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } And look at nearly the same C# code: using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; static class Program { static IEnumerable<int> SelectAdd(IEnumerable<int> source, int valueToAdd) { return source.Select(x => x + valueToAdd); } } And the generated code for the C# lambda expression: [CompilerGenerated] private sealed class <>c__DisplayClass1 { public int valueToAdd; public int <SelectAdd>b__0(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } So I have some questions: Why does F#-generated class is not marked as sealed? Why does F#-generated class contains public fields since F# doesn't allows mutable closures? Why does F# generated class has the constructor? It may be perfectly initialized with the public fields... Why does C#-generated class is not marked as [Serializable]? Also classes generated for F# sequence expressions are also became [Serializable] and classes for C# iterators are not.

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  • Blackberry stopwatch implementation

    - by Michaela
    I'm trying to write a blackberry app that is basically a stopwatch, and displays lap times. First, I'm not sure I'm implementing the stopwatch functionality in the most optimal way. I have a LabelField (_myLabel) that displays the 'clock' - starting at 00:00. Then you hit the start button and every second the _myLabel field gets updated with how many seconds have past since the last update (should only ever increment by 1, but sometimes there is a delay and it will skip a number). I just can't think of a different way to do it - and I am new to GUI development and threads so I guess that's why. EDIT: Here is what calls the stopwatch: _timer = new Timer(); _timer.schedule(new MyTimerTask(), 250, 250); And here is the TimerTask: class MyTimerTask extends TimerTask { long currentTime; long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); public void run() { synchronized (Application.getEventLock()) { currentTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); long diff = currentTime - startTime; long min = diff / 60000; long sec = (diff % 60000) / 1000; String minStr = new Long(min).toString(); String secStr = new Long(sec).toString(); if (min < 10) minStr = "0" + minStr; if (sec < 10) secStr = "0" + secStr; _myLabel.setText(minStr + ":" + secStr); timerDisplay.deleteAll(); timerDisplay.add(_timerLabel); } } } Anyway when you stop the stopwatch it updates a historical table of lap time data. When this list gets long, the timer starts to degrade. If you try to scroll, then it gets really bad. Is there a better way to implement my stopwatch?

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  • bug with varargs and overloading?

    - by pstanton
    There seems to be a bug in the Java varargs implementation. Java can't distinguish the appropriate type when a method is overloaded with different types of vararg parameters. It gives me an error The method ... is ambiguous for the type ... Consider the following code: public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) throws Throwable { doit(new int[]{1, 2}); // <- no problem doit(new double[]{1.2, 2.2}); // <- no problem doit(1.2f, 2.2f); // <- no problem doit(1.2d, 2.2d); // <- no problem doit(1, 2); // <- The method doit(double[]) is ambiguous for the type Test } public static void doit(double... ds) { System.out.println("doubles"); } public static void doit(int... is) { System.out.println("ints"); } } the docs say: "Generally speaking, you should not overload a varargs method, or it will be difficult for programmers to figure out which overloading gets called." however they don't mention this error, and it's not the programmers that are finding it difficult, it's the compiler. thoughts?

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  • asp.net Impersonate User for network resource access

    - by lonelycoder
    code: System.Security.Principal.WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; impersonationContext = ((System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity)User.Identity).Impersonate(); //access network resources. impersonationContext.Undo(); web.config: <authentication mode="Windows"> </authentication> <identity impersonate="true" userName="user" password="password"></identity> As clear from web.config file, the app runs in an impersonated mode. I need to impersonate temporarily on top of that to access a network resource. I do that as shown above. This works fine on server if I browse to the website on the local IE installed on the server but when I access the app from my PC or any other PC, I get a access denied. Btw, this is all within an enterprise domain environment. so IE in both cases is passing a valid authenticated token. Any ideas what is going on. thanks.

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  • Telerik RadAlert back button cache problem

    - by Michael VS
    Hi, I'm sure you have had this one before so if you could point me to something similar.... I have a server side creation of a RadAlert window using the usual Sys.Application.remove_load and add_load procedure however the alert keeps popping up as it seems to be caching when the user hits the back button after it has been activated. I have tried to put a onclick event on a button to clear the function using remove_load before it moves to the next page however it still doesn't seem to clear it. Its used in validation so if a user inputs failed validation it pops up. If they then go and enter correct validation it then moves onto the next page. If they then use back button this is where it pops up again. Any ideas? Server side: private void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { btnSearch.Attributes.Add("onclick", "Sys.Application.remove_load(f);"); } } private void btnSearch_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { string radalertscript = "(function(){var f = function(){radalert('Welcome to RadWindow Prometheus!', 330, 210); Sys.Application.remove_load(f);};Sys.Application.add_load(f);})()"; RadAjaxManager1.ResponseScripts.Add(radalertscript); } Ive also tried using RadAjaxManager1.ResponseScripts.Clear(); before it moves on to the next page on the postback event

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  • MSMQ first Message.Body in queue is OK, all following Message.Body in queue are empty

    - by Andrew A
    I send a handful of identical (except for Id#, obviously) messages to an MSMQ queue on my local machine. The body of the messages is a serialized XElement object. When I try to process the first message in the queue, I am able to successfully de-serialize the Message.Body object and save it to file. However, when trying to process the next (or any subsequent) message, the Message.Body is absent, and an exception is thrown. I have verified the Message ID's are correct for the message attempting to be processed. The XML being serialized is properly formed. Any ideas? I am basing my code on the Microsoft MSMQ Book order sample found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms180970%28VS.80%29.aspx // Create Envelope XML object XElement envelope = new XElement(env + "Envelope", new XAttribute(XNamespace.Xmlns + "env", env.NamespaceName) <snip> //Send envelope as message body MessageQueue myQueue = new MessageQueue(String.Format(@"FORMATNAME:DIRECT=OS:localhost\private$\mqsample")); myQueue.DefaultPropertiesToSend.Recoverable = true; // Prepare message Message myMessage = new Message(); myMessage.ResponseQueue = new MessageQueue(String.Format(System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture, @"FORMATNAME:DIRECT=TCP:192.168.1.217\private$\mqdemoAck")); myMessage.Body = envelope; // Send the message into the queue. myQueue.Send(myMessage,"message label"); //Retrieve messages from queue LabelIdMapping labelID = (LabelIdMapping)mqlistBox3.SelectedItem; System.Messaging.Message message = mqOrderQueue.ReceiveById(labelID.Id); The Message.Body value I see on the 1st retrieve is as expected: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <string>Some String</string> However, the 2nd and subsequent retrieve operations Message.Body is: "Cannot deserialize the message passed as an argument. Cannot recognize the serialization format." How does this work fine the first time but not after that? I have tried message.Dispose() after retrieving it but it did not help. Thank you very much for any help on this!

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  • JavaScript call to page method: error 500. JSON

    - by Ryan Ternier
    I'm using the auto complete control here:http://www.ramirezcobos.com/labs/autocomplete-for-jquery-js/comment-page-2/ And i've modified it as: var json_options; json_options = { script:'ReportSearch.aspx/GetUserList?json=true&limit=6&', varname:'input', json:true, shownoresults:true, maxresults:16, callback: function (obj) { $('#json_info').html('you have selected: '+obj.id + ' ' + obj.value + ' (' + obj.info + ')'); } }; $('#ctl00_contentModule_txtJQuerySearch').autoComplete(json_options); I have the following method in C# Code behind (aspx.cs) [System.Web.Services.WebMethod] [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptMethod] public static string[] GetUserList(string input) { List<string> lUsers = new List<string>(); Server.DAL.SQLServer2005.User user = new Server.DAL.SQLServer2005.User(); Server.Info.AuthUser aUser = (Server.Info.AuthUser)HttpContext.Current.Session["AuthUser"]; List<Server.Info.User.UserDetails> users = user.GetUserList(aUser, input, 16, true); users.ForEach(delegate(ReportBeam.Server.Info.User.UserDetails u) { lUsers.Add("(" + u.UserName + ")" + u.LastName + ", " + u.FirstName); }); return lUsers.ToArray(); } The error I get back is: Server Error in '/WebPortal4' Application. Unknown web method GetUserList. Parameter name: methodName If I change any of the paraemeter names I get an error telling me the paremeter names are not in match. now that everything is as it should, it's bombing. Any help would rock.

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  • How to remove space between chart area and plot area?

    - by Gopalakrishnan Subramani
    I am using chartingToolKit:Chart control. I want to remove the white space appear in between the chart and plot area. Attached the WPF sample and image of area to be removed. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525" xmlns:chartingToolkit="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Charting;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Toolkit"> <Grid> <chartingToolkit:Chart x:Name="chart" Width="500" Height="300" Margin="0, 0, 0, 0" LegendStyle="{StaticResource LegendStyle}" > <chartingToolkit:AreaSeries ItemsSource="{Binding}" DependentValuePath="Value" IndependentValuePath="Key" Background="Red" > </chartingToolkit:AreaSeries> <chartingToolkit:Chart.Axes> <chartingToolkit:LinearAxis Orientation="X" ShowGridLines="False" Visibility="Hidden"> </chartingToolkit:LinearAxis> <chartingToolkit:LinearAxis Orientation="Y" ShowGridLines="False" Visibility="Hidden"/> </chartingToolkit:Chart.Axes> </chartingToolkit:Chart> </Grid> The area marked in red arrow must be removed

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  • Best way for a remote web app to authenticate users in my current web app?

    - by jklp
    So a bit of background, I'm working on an existing web application which has a set of users, who are able to log in via a traditional login screen with a user name and password, etc. Recently we've managed to score a client (who have their own Intranet site), who are wanting to be able to have their users log into their Intranet site, and then have their users click a link on their Intranet which redirects to our application and logs them into it automatically. I've had two suggestions on how to implement this so far: Create a URL which takes 2 parameters (which are "username" and "password") and have the Intranet site pass those parameters to us (our connection is via TLS so it's all encrypted). This would work fine, but it seems a little "hacky", and also means that the logins and passwords have to be the same on both systems (and having to write some kind of web service which can update the passwords for users - which also seems a bit insecure) Provide a token to the Intranet, so when the client clicks on a link on the Intranet, it sends the token to us, along with the user name (and no password) which means they're authenticated. Again, this sounds a bit hacky as isn't that essentially the same as providing everyone with the same password to log in? So to summarise, I'm after the following things: A way for the users who are already authenticated on the Intranet to log into our system without too much messing around, and without using an external system to authenticate, i.e. LDAP / Kerberos Something which isn't too specific to this client, and can easily be implemented by other Intranets to log in

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  • Java 1.5 crypto on OS X - AccessControlException

    - by bpapa
    I'm trying to do a Google App Engine project on OS X (latest and greatest). I'm using classes from javax.crypto, and I'm seeing an AccessControlException thrown when I try to initialize an instance of the Mac class. Here's the stack trace: WARNING: Nested in java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.lang.RuntimePermission loadLibrary.keychain) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:264) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:427) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkPermission(DevAppServerFactory.java:76) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkLink(SecurityManager.java:818) at java.lang.Runtime.loadLibrary0(Runtime.java:816) at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(System.java:993) at com.apple.crypto.provider.HmacCore.<clinit>(HmacCore.java:26) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.java:27) at java.lang.reflect.Constructor.newInstance(Constructor.java:494) at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:350) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:303) at java.security.Provider$Service.newInstance(Provider.java:1130) at javax.crypto.Mac.a(DashoA12275) at javax.crypto.Mac.init(DashoA12275) Any ideas on 1 - what went wrong and how fix it 2 - if it's not fixable (I know Apple has not been the best supporter of Java in recent years), what's an alternative approach?

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  • MDA BindingFailure detected

    - by Vnuk
    WebForms web site upon first launch from VS2008 throws this exception on my dev machine, after clicking continue everything works. Also, everything works on server when deployed. What is this VJSharpCodeProvider, why is it being loaded in vb.net project and why did it start happening all of a sudden? The assembly with display name 'VJSharpCodeProvider' failed to load in the 'LoadFrom' binding context of the AppDomain with ID 2. The cause of the failure was: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = quad7\devuser LOG: DisplayName = VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/dev/ins/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\dev\ins\bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\dev\ins\web.config LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/fakturaTest/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE.

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  • Resizing and saving an image in WinMobile and .NET CF throws OutOfMemoryException

    - by devguy
    I have a WinMobile app which allows the user the snap a photo with the camera, and then use for for various things. The photo can be snapped at 1600x1200, 800x600 or 640x480, but it must always be resized to 400px for the longest size (the other is proportional of course). Here's the code: private void LoadImage(string path) { Image tmpPhoto = new Bitmap(path); // calculate new bitmap size... double width = ... double height = ... // draw new bitmap Image photo = new Bitmap(width, height, System.Drawing.Imaging.PixelFormat.Format24bppRgb); using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(photo)) { g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.White), new Rectangle(0, 0, photo.Width, photo.Height)); int srcX = (int)((double)(tmpPhoto.Width - width) / 2d); int srcY = (int)((double)(tmpPhoto.Height - height) / 2d); g.DrawImage(tmpPhoto, new Rectangle(0, 0, photo.Width, photo.Height), new Rectangle(srcX, srcY, photo.Width, photo.Height), GraphicsUnit.Pixel); } tmpPhoto.Dispose(); // save new image and dispose photo.Save(Path.Combine(config.TempPath, config.TempPhotoFileName), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); photo.Dispose(); } Now the problem is that the app breaks in the photo.Save call, with an OutOfMemoryException. And I don't know why, since I dispose the tempPhoto (with the original photo from the camera) as soon as I can, and I also dispose the Graphics obj. Why does this happen? It seems impossible to me that one can't take a photo with the camera and resize/save it without making it crash :( Should I restor t C++ for such a simple thing? Thanks.

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  • Getting the CVE ID Property of an update from WSUS API via Powershell

    - by thebitsandthebytes
    I am writing a script in Powershell to get the update information from each computer and correlate the information with another System which identifies updates by CVE ID. I have discovered that there is a "CVEIDs" property for an update in WSUS, which is documented in MSDN, but I have no idea how to access the property. Retrieving the CVE ID from WSUS is the key to this script, so I am hoping someone out there can help! Here is the property that I am having difficulty accessing: IUpdate2::CveIDs Property - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa386102(VS.85).aspx According to this, the IUnknown::QueryInterface method is needed to interface IUpdate2 -  "http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee917057(PROT.10).aspx" "An IUpdate instance can be retrieved by calling the IUpdateCollection::Item (opnum 8) (section 3.22.4.1) method.  The client can use the IUnknown::QueryInterface method to then obtain an IUpdate2, IUpdate3, IUpdate4, or IUpdate5 interface. Additionally, if the update is a driver, the client can use the IUnknown::QueryInterface method to obtain an IWindowsDriverUpdate, IWindowsDriverUpdate2, IWindowsDriverUpdate3, IWindowsDriverUpdate4, or IWindowsDriverUpdate5 interface. " Here is a skeleton of my code: [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration") | Out-Null  if (!$wsus)  {  Returns an object that implements IUpdateServer  $wsus = [Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.AdminProxy]::GetUpdateServer($server, $false, $port)  }  $computerScope = New-Object Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.ComputerTargetScope  $updateScope = New-Object Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.UpdateScope  $updateScope.UpdateSources = [Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.UpdateSources]::MicrosoftUpdate  $wsusMachines = $wsus.GetComputerTargets($computerScope)  foreach machine in QSUS, write the full domain name $wsusMachines | ForEach-Object {  Write-host $.FullDomainName  $updates = $.GetUpdateInstallationInfoPerUpdate($updateScope)  foreach update for each machine, write the update title, installation state and securitybulletin $updates | ForEach-Object {  $update = $wsus.GetUpdate($.UpdateId) # Returns an object that implements Microsoft.UpdateServices.Administration.IUpdate $updateTitle = $update.Title | Write-Host $updateInstallationState = $.UpdateInstallationState | Write-Host $updateSecurityBulletin = $update.SecurityBulletins | Write-Host  $updateCveIds = $update.CveIDs # ERROR: Property 'CveIDs' belongs to IUpdate2, not IUpdate  }  }

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  • SWI-Prolog as an embedded application in VS2008 C++

    - by H.J. Miri
    I have a C++ application (prog.sln) which is my main program and I want to use Prolog as an embedded logic server (hanoi.pl) int main(int argc, char** argv) { putenv( "SWI_HOME_DIR=C:\\Program Files\\pl" ); argv[0] = "libpl.dll"; argv[1] = "-x"; argv[2] = "hanoi.pl"; argv[3] = NULL; PL_initialise(argc, argv); { fid_t fid = PL_open_foreign_frame(); predicate_t pred = PL_predicate( "hanoi", 1, "user" ); int rval = PL_call_predicate( NULL, PL_Q_NORMAL, pred, 3 ); qid_t qid = PL_open_query( NULL, PL_Q_NORMAL, pred, 3 ); while ( PL_next_solution(qid) ) return qid; PL_close_query(qid); PL_close_foreign_frame(fid); system("PAUSE"); } return 1; system("PAUSE"); } Here is my Prolog source code: :- use_module( library(shlib) ). hanoi( N ):- move( N, left, center, right ). move( 0, _, _, _ ):- !. move( N, A, B, C ):- M is N-1, move( M, A, C, B ), inform( A, B ), move( M, C, B, A ). inform( X, Y ):- write( 'move a disk from ' ), write( X ), write( ' to ' ), write( Y ), nl. I type at the command: plld -o hanoi prog.sln hanoi.pl But it doesn't compile. When I run my C++ app, it says: Undefined procedure: hanoi/1 What is missing/wrong in my code or at the prompt that prevents my C++ app from consulting Prolog? Appreciate any help/pointer.

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  • How to force two process to run on the same CPU?

    - by kovan
    Context: I'm programming a software system that consists of multiple processes. It is programmed in C++ under Linux. and they communicate among them using Linux shared memory. Usually, in software development, is in the final stage when the performance optimization is made. Here I came to a big problem. The software has high performance requirements, but in machines with 4 or 8 CPU cores (usually with more than one CPU), it was only able to use 3 cores, thus wasting 25% of the CPU power in the first ones, and more than 60% in the second ones. After many research, and having discarded mutex and lock contention, I found out that the time was being wasted on shmdt/shmat calls (detach and attach to shared memory segments). After some more research, I found out that these CPUs, which usually are AMD Opteron and Intel Xeon, use a memory system called NUMA, which basically means that each processor has its fast, "local memory", and accessing memory from other CPUs is expensive. After doing some tests, the problem seems to be that the software is designed so that, basically, any process can pass shared memory segments to any other process, and to any thread in them. This seems to kill performance, as process are constantly accessing memory from other processes. Question: Now, the question is, is there any way to force pairs of processes to execute in the same CPU?. I don't mean to force them to execute always in the same processor, as I don't care in which one they are executed, altough that would do the job. Ideally, there would be a way to tell the kernel: If you schedule this process in one processor, you must also schedule this "brother" process (which is the process with which it communicates through shared memory) in that same processor, so that performance is not penalized.

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  • Application Errors vs User Errors in PHP

    - by CogitoErgoSum
    So after much debate back and forth, I've come up with what I think may be a valid plan to handle Application/System errors vs User Errors (I.e. Validation Issues, Permission Issues etc). Application/System Errors will be handled using a custom error handler (via set_error_handler()). Depending on the severity of the error, the user may be redirected to a generic error page (I.e. Fatal Error), or the error may simply be silently logged (i.e E_WARNING). These errors are ones most likely caused by issues outside the users control (Missing file, Bad logic, etc). The second set of errors would be User Generated ones. These are the ones may not automatically trigger an error but would be considered one. In these cases i"ve decided to use the trigger_error() function and typically throw a waning or notice which would be logged silently by the error handler. After that it would be up to the developer to then redirect the user to another page or display some sort of more meaningful message to the user. This way an error of any type is always logged, but user errors still allow the developer freedom to handle it in their own ways. I.e. Redirect them back to their form with it fully repopulated and a message of what went wrong. Does anyone see anything wrong with this, or have a more intuitive way? My approach to error handling is typically everyone has their own ways but there must be a way instituted.

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  • Problems compiling peazip on OSX

    - by Yansky
    I'm having some problems with compiling Peazip on OSX (10.6). I emailed the Peazip developer and he said he probably couldn't help me too much as the error seems to be OSX specific and he doesn't have access to an OSX machine any more. The compiler I'm using is Lazarus as the source is in Pascal. The actual compile process seems to go ok, but when I run the peazip.app program launcher, I get the following error: http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v215/thegooddale/Screen-shot-2010-05-22-at-71907-PM.png Here is the app launcher that the compile made: http://forboden.com/coding/peazip.app.zip - you can use an unzip program to look at the files inside (i.e. unzip it twice). I also tried just running the peazip unix file executable that was produced after the compile from the terminal and I got this: http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v215/thegooddale/Screen-shot-2010-05-22-at-72148-PM.png Here are the messages from the compile log from Lazarus while compiling Peazip: http://pastebin.com/qK4bdncL (I asked on the Lazarus forums and they said I can just ignore those "ld: warning: unknown stabs type" warnings). Here is the info from the project_peach.compiled file: <?xml version="1.0"?> <CONFIG> <Compiler Value="/usr/local/bin/ppc386" Date="1238949773"/> <Params Value=" -MObjFPC -Sgi -O1 -gl -k-framework -kCarbon -k-framework -kOpenGL -k'-dylib_file' -k'/System/Library/Frameworks/OpenGL.framework/Versions/A/Libraries/libGL.dylib:/System/Library/Frameworks/OpenGL.framework/Versions/A/Libraries/libGL.dylib' -WG -vewnhi -l -Fu/Users/yansky/Desktop/peazip-3.1.src/res/themes/crystalc/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/components/synedit/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/ideintf/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/lcl/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/lcl/units/i386-darwin/carbon/ -Fu/Developer/lazarus/packager/units/i386-darwin/ -Fu/Users/yansky/Desktop/peazip-3.1.src/ -Fu. -opeazip -dLCL -dLCLcarbon project_peach.lpr"/> </CONFIG> I guess there's little chance that anyone here has experience with Pascal and Lazarus since it's not that popular a language and the compiler is still in beta, but I thought I would post here in the hopes that someone might point me in the right general direction about where/how the peazip.app launcher is breaking.

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  • Autocomplete extender problems on user control

    - by RUtt
    I'm having trouble getting autocompleteextender (from ajaxcontroltoolkit) to fire when it is on a user control (it works fine when everything is on an aspx page. In my case I'm using a master page as well as a user control. Here's what I have. On the masterpage (path: masterpages/MasterPage.master) <asp:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"> </asp:ToolkitScriptManager> On the user control (path: controls/sitenavigation/usercontrol.ascx) <asp:TextBox id="txtSearchInput" Runat="server" CssClass="searchinput" Columns="95" MaxLength="95"></asp:TextBox> <asp:AutoCompleteExtender ID="txtSearchInput_AutoCompleteExtender" runat="server" DelimiterCharacters="" Enabled="True" ServiceMethod="GetSuggestions" ServicePath="~/App_Code/WebService.asmx" TargetControlID="txtSearchInput" UseContextKey="False" MinimumPrefixLength="2"> </asp:AutoCompleteExtender> On the Webservice (path: App_Code/WebService.cs) [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class WebService : System.Web.Services.WebService { .... [WebMethod] public string[] GetSuggestions(string prefixText, int count, string contextKey) { //my code to return string[] } It seems that my problem is with my ServicePath in the extender but I just can't seem to figure out what it should be, any help would be great. Thanks.

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  • android DES decrypt file : pad block corrupted

    - by Kenny Chang
    public class TestDES { Key key; public TestDES(String str) { getKey(str); } public void getKey(String strKey) { try { KeyGenerator _generator = KeyGenerator.getInstance("DES"); _generator.init(new SecureRandom(strKey.getBytes())); this.key = _generator.generateKey(); _generator = null; } catch (Exception e) { throw new RuntimeException("Error initializing SqlMap class. Cause: " + e); } } public void decrypt(String file, String dest) throws Exception { Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("DES"); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, this.key); InputStream is = new FileInputStream(file); OutputStream out = new FileOutputStream(dest); CipherOutputStream cos = new CipherOutputStream(out, cipher); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024 * 1024 * 6]; int r; while ((r = is.read(buffer)) >= 0) { cos.write(buffer, 0, r); } cos.close();a out.close(); is.close(); } } The code works well on PC JAVA Program, but not on android.The error "pad block corrupted" happended at 'cos.close();' LogCat shows:" 03-10 07:43:04.431: WARN/System.err(23765): java.io.IOException: pad block corrupted 03-10 07:43:04.460: WARN/System.err(23765): at javax.crypto.CipherOutputStream.close(CipherOutputStream.java:157) "

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  • Ninject 2 + ASP.NET MVC 2 Binding Types from External Assemblies

    - by Malkier
    Hi, I'M just trying to get started with Ninject 2 and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have followed this tutorial http://www.craftyfella.com/2010/02/creating-aspnet-mvc-2-controller.html to create a Controller Factory with Ninject and to bind a first abstract to a concrete implementation. Now I want to load a repository type from another assembly (where my concrete SQL Repositories are located) and I just cant get it to work. Here's my code: Global.asax.cs protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MyControllerFactory()); } Controller Factory: public class Kernelhelper { public static IKernel GetTheKernel() { IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load(System.Reflection.Assembly.Load("MyAssembly")); return kernel; } } public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private IKernel kernel = Kernelhelper.GetTheKernel(); protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { return controllerType == null ? null : (IController)kernel.Get(controllerType); } } In "MyAssembly" there is a Module: public class ExampleConfigModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<Domain.CommunityUserRepository>().To<SQLCommunityUserRepository>(); } } Now when I just slap in a MockRepository object in my entry point it works just fine, the controller, which needs the repository, works fine. The kernel.Load(System.Reflection.Assembly.Load("MyAssembly")); also does its job and registers the module but as soon as I call on the controller which needs the repository I get an ActivationException from Ninject: No matching bindings are available, and the type is not self-bindable. Activation path: 2) Injection of dependency CommunityUserRepository into parameter _rep of constructor of type AccountController 1) Request for AccountController Can anyone give me a best practice example for binding types from external assemblies (which really is an important aspect of Dependency Injection)? Thank you!

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