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  • NSLinguisticTagger on the contents of an NSTextStorage- crashing bug

    - by Remy Porter
    I'm trying to use an NSLinguisticTagger to monitor the contents of an NSTextStorage and provide some contextual information based on what the user types. To that end, I have an OverlayManager object, which wires up this relationship: -(void) setView:(NSTextView*) view { _view = view; _layout = view.layoutManager; _storage = view.layoutManager.textStorage; //get the TextStorage from the view [_tagger setString:_storage.string]; //pull the string out, this grabs the mutable version [self registerForNotificationsOn:self->_storage]; //subscribe to the willProcessEditing notification } When an edit occurs, I make sure to trap it and notify the tagger (and yes, I know I'm being annoyingly inconsistent with member access, I'm rusty on Obj-C, I'll fix it later): - (void) textStorageWillProcessEditing:(NSNotification*) notification{ if ([self->_storage editedMask] & NSTextStorageEditedCharacters) { NSRange editedRange = [self->_storage editedRange]; NSUInteger delta = [self->_storage changeInLength]; [_tagger stringEditedInRange:editedRange changeInLength:delta]; //should notify the tagger of the changes [self highlightEdits:self]; } } The highlightEdits message delegates the job out to a pool of "Overlay" objects. Each contains a block of code similar to this: [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:range scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { if (tag == PartOfSpeech) { [self applyHighlightToRange:tokenRange onStorage:storage]; } }]; And that's where the problem is- the enumerateTagsInRange method crashes out with a message: 2014-06-04 10:07:19.692 WritersEditor[40191:303] NSMutableRLEArray replaceObjectsInRange:withObject:length:: Out of bounds This problem doesn't occur if I don't link to the mutable copy of the underlying string and instead do a [[_storage string] copy], but obviously I don't want to copy the entire backing store every time I want to do tagging. This all should be happening in the main run loop, so I don't think this is a threading issue. The NSRange I'm enumerating tags on exists both in the NSTextStorage and in the NSLinguisticTagger's view of the string. It's not even the fact that the applyHighlightToRange call adds attributes to the string, because it crashes before even reaching that line. I attempted to build a test case around the problem, but can't replicate it in those situations: - (void) testEdit { NSAttributedString* str = [[NSMutableAttributedString alloc] initWithString:@"Quickly, this is a test."]; text = [[NSTextStorage alloc] initWithAttributedString:str]; NSArray* schemes = [NSLinguisticTagger availableTagSchemesForLanguage:@"en"]; tagger = [[NSLinguisticTagger alloc] initWithTagSchemes:schemes options:0]; [tagger setString:[text string]]; [text beginEditing]; [[text mutableString] appendString:@"T"]; NSRange edited = [text editedRange]; NSUInteger length = [text changeInLength]; [text endEditing]; [tagger stringEditedInRange:edited changeInLength:length]; [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:edited scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { //doesn't matter, this should crash }]; } That code doesn't crash.

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  • How to access controller dynamic properties within a base controller's constructor in Grails?

    - by 4h34d
    Basically, I want to be able to assign objects created within filters to members in a base controller from which every controller extends. Any possible way to do that? Here's how I tried, but haven't got to make it work. What I'm trying to achieve is to have all my controllers extend a base controller. The base controller's constructor would be used to assign values to its members, those values being pulled from the session map. Example below. File grails-app/controllers/HomeController.groovy: class HomeController extends BaseController { def index = { render username } } File grails-app/controllers/BaseController.groovy: abstract class BaseController { public String username public BaseController() { username = session.username } } When running the app, the output shown is: 2010-06-15 18:17:16,671 [main] ERROR [localhost].[/webapp] - Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.context.GrailsContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'pluginManager' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml]: Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to locate constructor with Class parameter for class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.commons.DefaultGrailsControllerClass ... Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to locate constructor with Class parameter for class org.codehaus.groovy.grails.commons.DefaultGrailsControllerClass ... Caused by: java.lang.reflect.InvocationTargetException ... Caused by: org.codehaus.groovy.grails.exceptions.NewInstanceCreationException: Could not create a new instance of class [com.my.package.controller.HomeController]! ... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: session for class: com.my.package.controller.HomeController at com.my.package.controller.BaseController.<init>(BaseController.groovy:16) at com.my.package.controller.HomeController.<init>(HomeController.groovy) ... 2010-06-15 18:17:16,687 [main] ERROR core.StandardContext - Error listenerStart 2010-06-15 18:17:16,687 [main] ERROR core.StandardContext - Context [/webapp] startup failed due to previous errors And the app won't run. This is just an example as in my case I wouldn't want to assign a username to a string value, but rather a few objects pulled from the session map. The objects pulled from the session map are being set within filters. The alternative I see is being able to access the controller's instance within the filter's execution. Is that possible? Please help! Thanks a bunch!

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  • log4net initialisation

    - by Ruben Bartelink
    I've looked hard for duplicates but have to ask the following, no matter how basic it may seem, to get it clear once and for all! In a fresh Console app using log4net version 1.2.10.0 on VS28KSP1 on 64 bit W7, I have the following code:- using log4net; using log4net.Config; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static readonly ILog _log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); static void Main(string[] args) { _log.Info("Ran"); } } } In my app.config, I have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> </configSections> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="Program.log" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="[%username] %date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> </configuration> This doesnt write anything, unless I either add an attribute: [ assembly:XmlConfigurator ] Or explicitly initialise it in Main(): _log.Info("This will not go to the log"); XmlConfigurator.Configure(); _log.Info("Ran"); This raises the following questions: I'm almost certain I've seen it working somewhere on some version of log4net without the addition of the assembly attribute or call in Main. Can someone assure me I'm not imagining that? Can someone please point me to where in the doc it explicitly states that both the config section and the initialisation hook are required - hopefully with an explanation of when this changed, if it did? I can easily imagine why this might be the policy -- having the initialisation step explicit to avoid surprises etc., it's just that I seem to recall this not always being the case... (And normally I have the config in a separate file, which generally takes configsections out of the picture)

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  • JAVA - Strange problem (probably thread problem) with JTable & Model

    - by Stefanos Kargas
    I am using 2 Tables (JTable) with their DefaultTableModels. The first table is already populated. The second table is populated for each row of the first table (using an SQL Query). My purpose is to export every line of the first table with it's respective lines of the second in an Excel File. I am doing it with a for (for each line of 1st table), in which I write a line of the 1st table in the Excel File, then I populate the 2nd table (for this line of 1st Table), I get every line from the Table (from it's Model actually) and put it in the Excel File under the current line of 1st table. This means that if I have n lines in first table I will clear and populate again the second table n times. All this code is called in a seperate thread. THE PROBLEM IS: Everything works perfectly fine ecxept that I am getting some exceptions. The strange thing is that I'm not getting anything false in my result. The Excel file is perfect. Some of the lines of the exceptions are: Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: 0 = 0 at java.util.Vector.elementAt(Vector.java:427) at javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel.getValueAt(DefaultTableModel.java:632) at javax.swing.JComponent.paint(JComponent.java:1017) at javax.swing.RepaintManager.paint(RepaintManager.java:1220) at javax.swing.RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions(RepaintManager.java:803) I am assuming that the problem lies in the fact that the second table needs some more time to be populated before I try to get any data from it. That's why I see RepaintManager and paintDirtyRegions in my exceptions. Another thing I did is that I ran my program in debug mode and I put a breakpoint after each population of the 2nd table. Then I pressed F5 to continue for each population of 2nd table and no exception appeared. The program came to it's end without any exceptions. This is another important fact that tells me that maybe in this case I gave the table enough time to be populated. Of course you will ask me: If your program works fine, why do you care about the exceptions? I care for avoiding any future problems and I care to have a better understanding of Java and Java GUI and threads. Why do you depend on a GUI component (and it's model) to get your information and why don't you recreate the resultset that populates your tables using an SQL Query and get your info from the resultset? That would be the best and the right way. The fact is that I have the tables code ready and it was easier for me to just get the info from them. But the right way would be to get everything direct from database. Anyway what I did brought out my question, and answering it would help me understand more things about java. So I posted it.

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  • How to apply or chain multiple matching templates in XSLT?

    - by Ignatius
    I am working on a stylesheet employing many templates with match attributes: <xsl:template match="//one" priority="0.7"> <xsl:param name="input" select="."/> <xsl:value-of select="util:uppercase($input)"/> <xsl:next-match /> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="/stuff/one"> <xsl:param name="input" select="."/> <xsl:value-of select="util:add-period($input)"/> </xsl:template> <xsl:function name="util:uppercase"> <xsl:param name="input"/> <xsl:value-of select="upper-case($input)"/> </xsl:function> <xsl:function name="util:add-period"> <xsl:param name="input"/> <xsl:value-of select="concat($input,'.')"/> </xsl:function> What I would like to do is be able to 'chain' the two functions above, so that an input of 'string' would be rendered in the output as 'STRING.' (with the period.) I would like to do this in such a way that doesn't require knowledge of other templates in any other template. So, for instance, I would like to be able to add a "util:add-colon" method without having to open up the hood and monkey with the existing templates. I was playing around with the <xsl:next-match/> instruction to accomplish this. Adding it to the first template above does of course invoke both util:uppercase and util:add-period, but the output is an aggregation of each template output (i.e. 'STRINGstring.') It seems like there should be an elegant way to chain any number of templates together using something like <xsl:next-match/>, but have the output of each template feed the input of the next one in the chain. Am I overlooking something obvious?

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  • embedded Italic, bold fonts don't look the same in flex as in Windows...

    - by Mark
    ...unless they're something like "Times New Roman" or some other established font with a fully designed italic and bold, presumably in seperate files. Let me explain what I mean (though why no one has commented on this before I have no idea.) Numerous, numerous fonts do not have a seperate file for italic and bold, and in fact to the best of my knowledge don't even have italic and bold defined as such. But if you install them on windows (for example) and then use them in an app, You can still make use of italic and bold with those fonts. For italic, and oblique angle is just given to it, presumably by Windows, and it looks the same in all Windows apps, and the bold is just given a heavier weight. OK, well here's the problem: if you embed a font like that in a Flex app, as a "SystemFont" the italic and bold will not look the same as they do in Windows. Specifically, the oblique angle is invariably much less than in Windows (i.e the italic slant is much less) and the bold version is not bold enough. I vaguely recall thinking that there was some flex mechanism to assign custom oblique angles for italic (and weight for bold) but now can't recall what it is. Does anyone know the correct established way to do this. The following is actually a seperate (but related) font question (in case anyone is expert in all this.) Its rather a lengthy question and can be skipped, but its something that's plagued me for a long time. I mention above embedding as a "SystemFont", so iow something like this: package fonts { import flash.display.Sprite; public class FLW_Script_I extends Sprite { [Embed(systemFont='FLW Script', fontName='FLW Script', fontStyle='italic', fntWeight='normal', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype')] public var wrFont:Class; } } The other alternative to SystemFont for embedding, is "Source" followed by the name of an actual font file. If you try to embed one of the aformentioned single file fonts as a Source file (as opposed to SystemFont) and specify fontStyle='italic', then the mxmlc compiler will return an error and say there is no italic info in the font file. So up to now I have only been embedding these fonts as "SystemFont". The problem is, flex uses two different font compilers internally for Source embedding and SystemFont embedding. For source font embeds it uses the "Batik" compiler and for SystemFont, the JRE (Java Runtime) font compiler. Well actually the Batik is considered a superior compiler and generally produces better looking fonts. And also if you mix normal fonts compiled with Batik and italic compiled with JRE, sometimes the line spacing is different for the two, and it doesn't look right. So does anyone have an idea how to get mxmlc to do italic and bold for these single file fonts when embedding as "Source". Would there be a way using C++ or whatever to construct an "italic" font file from the SystemFont for such a font in windows.

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  • How to successfully implement og:image for the LinkedIn

    - by Sabo
    THE PROBLEM: I am trying, without much success, to implement open graph image on site: http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/ The homepage is completeply bypassing the og:image tag, where internal pages are reading all images from the site and place og:image as the last option. Other social networks are working fine on both internal pages and homepage. THE CONFIGURATION: I have no share buttons or alike, all I want is to be able to share the link via my profile. The image is well over 300x300px: http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png Here is how my head tag looks like: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Guarenty Group : Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé</title> <meta name="keywords" content="" /> <meta name="description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání." /> <meta name="image_src" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta name="image_url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:title" content="Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/cz/" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání [...]" /> ... </head> THE TESTING RESULTS: In order to trick the cache i have tested the site with http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/?try=N, where I have changed the N every time. The strange thing is that images found for different value of N is different. Sometimes there is no image, sometimes there is 1, 2 or 3 images, but each time there is a different set of images. But, in any case I could not find the image specified in the og:graph! MY QUESTIONS: https://developer.linkedin.com/documents/setting-display-tags-shares is saying one thing, and the personnel on the support forum is saying "over 300" Does anyone know What is the official minimum dimension of the image (both w and h)? Can an image be too large? Should I use the xmlns, should I not use xmlns or it doesn't matter? What are the maximum (and minimum) lengths for og:title and og:description tags? Any other suggestion is of course welcomed :) Thanks in advance, cheers~

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  • CakePHP 1.3.4: EmailComponent error - Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller

    - by Kevin S.
    I'm trying to develop an invitation system for my website which runs on CakePHP 1.3.4. I am trying to use the built in EmailComponent to send an email. I'm getting this error (expanded): Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Code | Context */ function _render($content) { $viewClass = $this-Controller-view; $content = array( "", "" ) EmailComponent::_render() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428 EmailComponent::send() - CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 368 UsersController::send_quick_add_email() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 77 UsersController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/users_controller.php, line 104 SinglesResultsController::quick_add() - APP/controllers/singles_results_controller.php, line 63 Dispatcher::_invoke() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 204 Dispatcher::dispatch() - CORE/cake/dispatcher.php, line 171 [main] - APP/webroot/index.php, line 83 I also get the following, which I can expand if necessary: Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 428] Notice (8): Undefined property: EmailComponent::$Controller [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Trying to get property of non-object [CORE/cake/libs/controller/components/email.php, line 433] Notice (8): Undefined property: View::$webroot [CORE/cake/libs/view/view.php, line 805] Warning (2): Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/cake/cake/libs/debugger.php:673) [CORE/cake/libs/controller/controller.php, line 746] I think that the EmailComponent object holds a reference to the controller it's being called from. I don't know why it's undefined in this case. Here is the code that fails (specifically, it errors on the call to $this-Email-send()): function send_quick_add_email($email) { if($email) { $this->Email->reset(); $this->Email->to = $email; $this->Email->subject = 'Some subject text'; $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'email_template'; $this->set('user', $user); $this->set('token', $token); $this->Email->delivery = 'debug'; $this->Email->send(); } } Ok, for more clarification: The main data I am collecting on the site is results of a game played in meatspace. SinglesResultsController has an action, quick_add, which expects email addresses of people not already registered on the site. If the email addresses aren't associated with Users, UsersController::quick_add is called, which creates an inactive user, and sends an invitation email in UsersController::send_quick_add_email() I think the problem is related to the fact that the email isn't being sent in the first controller initialized (SinglesResultsController). Any thoughts on how to make it work? The Email component is declared at the top of both Controllers.

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  • In Ruby, how does coerce() actually work?

    - by Jian Lin
    It is said that when we have a class Point and knows how to perform point * 3 like the following: class Point def initialize(x,y) @x, @y = x, y end def *(c) Point.new(@x * c, @y * c) end end point = Point.new(1,2) p point p point * 3 Output: #<Point:0x336094 @x=1, @y=2> #<Point:0x335fa4 @x=3, @y=6> but then, 3 * point is not understood: Point can't be coerced into Fixnum (TypeError) So we need to further define an instance method coerce: class Point def coerce(something) [self, something] end end p 3 * point Output: #<Point:0x3c45a88 @x=3, @y=6> So it is said that 3 * point is the same as 3.*(point) that is, the instance method * takes an argument point and invoke on the object 3. Now, since this method * doesn't know how to multiply a point, so point.coerce(3) will be called, and get back an array: [point, 3] and then * is once again applied to it, is that true? point * 3 which is the same as point.*(3) and now, this is understood and we now have a new Point object, as performed by the instance method * of the Point class. The question is: 1) who invokes point.coerce(3) ? Is it Ruby automatically, or is it some code inside of * method of Fixnum by catching an exception? Or is it by case statement that when it doesn't know one of the known types, then call coerce? 2) Does coerce always need to return an array of 2 elements? Can it be no array? Or can it be an array of 3 elements? 3) And is the rule that, the original operator (or method) * will then be invoked on element 0, with the argument of element 1? (element 0 and element 1 are the two elements in that array returned by coerce) Who does it? Is it done by Ruby or is it done by code in Fixnum? If it is done by code in Fixnum, then it is a "convention" that everybody follows when doing a coerce? So could it be the code in * of Fixnum do something like this: if (something.typeof? ...) else if ... # other type else if ... # other type else # if it is not a type I know array = something.coerce(self) return array[0].*(array[1]) end

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  • Ninject with Object Initializers and LINQ

    - by Alexander Kahoun
    I'm new to Ninject so what I'm trying may not even be possible but I wanted to ask. I free-handed the below so there may be typos. Let's say I have an interface: public interface IPerson { string FirstName { get; set; } string LastName { get; set;} string GetFullName(); } And a concrete: public class Person : IPerson { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string GetFullName() { return String.Concat(FirstName, " ", LastName); } } What I'm used to doing is something like this when I'm retrieving data from arrays or xml: public IEnumerable<IPerson> GetPeople(string xml) { XElement persons = XElement.Parse(xml); IEnumerable<IPerson> people = ( from person in persons.Descendants("person") select new Person { FirstName = person.Attribute("FName").Value, LastName = person.Attribute("LName").Value }).ToList(); return people; } I don't want to tightly couple the concrete to the interface in this manner. I haven't been able to find any information in regards to using Ninject with LINQ to Objects or with object initializers. I may be looking in the wrong places, but I've been searching for a day now with no luck at all. I was contemplating putting the kernel into an singleton instance and seeing if that would work, but I'm not sure that it will plus I've heard that passing your kernel around is a bad thing. I'm trying to implement this in a class library currently. If this is not possible, does anyone have any examples or suggestions as to what the best practice is in this case? Thanks in advance for the help. EDIT: Based on some of the answers I feel I should clarify. Yes, the example above appears short lived but it was simply an example of one piece that I was trying to do. Let's give a bigger picture. Say instead of XML I am gathering all my data through a 3rd party web service and I'm creating an interface for it, the data could be a defined object in the wsdl or it could sometimes be an xml string. IPerson could be used for both the Person object and a User object. I will be doing this inside of a separate class library, because it needs to be portable and will be used in other projects, and handing it to an MVC3 Web Application and the objects will be used in javascript as well. I appreciate all the input so far.

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  • dynamic button in jsp

    - by kawtousse
    hi everyone, in my jsp i have a table constructed dynamically like the following: retour.append("<tr>"); try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery(HQL_QUERY); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()){ Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); retour.append("<td>" +object.getActivity() +"</td>"); retour.append("<td>" +object.getProjectCode() + "</td>"); retour.append("<td>" +object.getWAName() + "</td>"); retour.append("<td>" +object.getTaskCode() +"</td>"); retour.append("<td>" +object.getTimeFrom() +"</td>"); retour.append("<td>" +object.getTimeSpent() + "</td>"); retour.append("<td>" +object.getPercentTaskComplete() + "</td>"); if (droitdaccess) { retour.append(""); retour.append(""); retour.append(""); retour.append("<td bordercolor=#FFFFFF>"); retour.append("<input type=\"hidden\" id=\"id_"+nomTab+"_"+compteur+"\" value=\""+object.getIdDailyTimeSheet()+"\"/>"); retour.append("<img src=\"icon_delete.gif\" onClick=\"deletearowById('id_"+nomTab+"_"+compteur+"')\" style=\"cursor:pointer\" name=\"action\" value=\"deleting\" />"); retour.append("</td>"); } } compteur++; retour.append("</tr>"); } //terminer la table. retour.append ("</table>"); next to the table i want to display a button named send in order to send the table content. I do not really want to dispaly this button where the table is empty. So at least if the table is populated by nly one record i want that button being displayed. How should i deal in this case. Thanks.

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  • Parallel.For maintain input list order on output list

    - by romeozor
    I'd like some input on keeping the order of a list during heavy-duty operations that I decided to try to do in a parallel manner to see if it boosts performance. (It did!) I came up with a solution, but since this was my first attempt at anything parallel, I'd need someone to slap my hands if I did something very stupid. There's a query that returns a list of card owners, sorted by name, then by date of birth. This needs to be rendered in a table on a web page (ASP.Net WebForms). The original coder decided he would construct the table cell-by-cell (TableCell), add them to rows (TableRow), then each row to the table. So no GridView, allegedly its performance is bad, but the performance was very poor regardless :). The database query returns in no time, the most time is spent on looping through the results and adding table cells etc. I made the following method to maintain the original order of the list: private TableRow[] ComposeRows(List<CardHolder> queryResult) { int queryElementsCount = queryResult.Count(); // array with the query's size var rowArray = new TableRow[queryElementsCount]; Parallel.For(0, queryElementsCount, i => { var row = new TableRow(); var cell = new TableCell(); // various operations, including simple ones such as: cell.Text = queryResult[i].Name; row.Cells.Add(cell); // here I'm adding the current item to it's original index // to maintain order in the output list rowArray[i] = row; }); return rowArray; } So as you can see, because I'm returning a very different type of data (List<CardHolder> -> TableRow[]), I can't just simply omit the ordering from the original query to do it after the operations. Also, I also thought it would be a good idea to Dispose() the objects at the end of each loop, because the query can return a huge list and letting cell and row objects pile up in the heap could impact performance.(?) How badly did I do? Does anyone have a better solution in case mine is flawed?

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  • UIButtons creating a native-like keyboard behavior.

    - by camilo
    Greets. A somehow detailed explanation on my problem, and what I have already done, and what I cannot do. I want to create a behavior resembling the one in the iPhone's keyboard. Basically, I want a view to appear when the user taps a button and WHILE the user taps that button. This, I accomplished. When the user lets go of the button WHILE his finger is on that button's area, I want to trigger an action "doing stuff". This, I was also able to do. Since all the buttons are near (like in the keyboard) and I don't want the user to select other button than the one he pressed, I reduced the hit area for the button using the -(BOOL)pointInside:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent )event function. When the user presses the button, not lifting its finger, and dragging outside the button area, I want another action to trigger. This is the first problem... This function only triggers when the user's finger is far from the buttons' area, and this time the pointInside function is not being my friend. How can I detect the user finger "left" the button area the moment it exits its bounds? This, in case you didn't realize... was problem 1. The second problem is related with the drag enter. Again, I need to limit the area like in the drag exit. But I suppose that when I solve one of these, the other is the same. The problem is that in order to have a behavior like in the keyboard, I may need to detect the user started the touch in another button, never lifted his finger, and changed to another button. I can detect drag enter and drag exit IN THIS ORDER while on the same button. I cannot detect drag enter when the user first touched anywhere else other than the button where I want to detect the drag enter event. Basically what I need is to detect touch on any button (and not anywhere else in the view), and while the user is changing buttons without lifting the finger, I want to detect the new button being touched. This gigantic paragraph was problem #2. Any help, as you might guess, is highly appreciated. Best Regards. Thanks a lot!

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  • Using a Button to navigate to another Page in a NavigationWindow

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use the navigation command framework in WPF to navigate between Pages within a WPF application (desktop; not XBAP or Silverlight). I believe I have everything configured correctly, yet its not working. I build and run without errors, I'm not getting any binding errors in the Output window, but my navigation button is disabled. Here's the app.xaml for a sample app: <Application x:Class="Navigation.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" StartupUri="First.xaml"> </Application> Note the StartupUri points to First.xaml. First.xaml is a Page. WPF automatically hosts my page in a NavigationWindow. Here's First.xaml: <Page x:Class="Navigation.First" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="First"> <Grid> <Button CommandParameter="/Second.xaml" CommandTarget="{Binding RelativeSource= {RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type NavigationWindow}}}" Command="NavigationCommands.GoToPage" Content="Go!"/> </Grid> </Page> The button's CommandTarget is set to the NavigationWindow. The command is GoToPage, and the page is /Second.xaml. I've tried setting the CommandTarget to the containing Page, the CommandParameter to "Second.xaml" (First.xaml and Second.xaml are both in the root of the solution), and I've tried leaving the CommandTarget empty. I've also tried setting the Path to the Binding to various navigational-related public properties on the NavigationWindow. Nothing has worked so far. What am I missing here? I really don't want to do my navigation in code. Clarification. If, instead of using a button, I use a Hyperlink: <Grid> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink NavigateUri="Second.xaml">Go! </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </Grid> everything works as expected. However, my UI requirements means that using a Hyperlink is right out. I need a big fatty button for people to press. That's why I want to use the button to navigate. I just want to know how I can get the Button to provide the same ability that the Hyperlink does in this case.

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  • git filter-branch chmod

    - by Evan Purkhiser
    I accidental had my umask set incorrectly for the past few months and somehow didn't notice. One of my git repositories has many files marked as executable that should be just 644. This repo has one main master branch, and about 4 private feature branches (that I keep rebased on top of the master). I've corrected the files in my master branch by running find -type f -exec chmod 644 {} \; and committing the changes. I then rebased my feature branches onto master. The problem is there are newly created files in the feature branches that are only in that branch, so they weren't corrected by my massive chmod commit. I didn't want to create a new commit for each feature branch that does the same thing as the commit I made on master. So I decided it would be best to go back through to each commit where a file was made and set the permissions. This is what I tried: git filter-branch -f --tree-filter 'chmod 644 `git show --diff-filter=ACR --pretty="format:" --name-only $GIT_COMMIT`; git add .' master.. It looked like this worked, but upon further inspection I noticed that the every commit after a commit containing a new file with the proper permissions of 644 would actually revert the change with something like: diff --git a b old mode 100644 new mode 100755 I can't for the life of me figure out why this is happening. I think I must be mis-understanding how git filter-branch works. My Solution I've managed to fix my problem using this command: git filter-branch -f --tree-filter 'FILES="$FILES "`git show --diff-filter=ACMR --pretty="format:" --name-only $GIT_COMMIT`; chmod 644 $FILES; true' development.. I keep adding onto the FILES variable to ensure that in each commit any file created at some point has the proper mode. However, I'm still not sure I really understand why git tracks the file mode for each commit. I had though that since I had fixed the mode of the file when it was first created that it would stay that mode unless one of my other commits explicit changed it to something else. That did not appear to the be the case. The reason I thought that this would work is from my understanding of rebase. If I go back to HEAD~5 and change a line of code, that change is propagated through, it doesn't just get changed back in HEAD~4.

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  • Flatten date range memberships retaining only the highest priority membership (TRANSACT-SQL)

    - by shadowranger
    Problem statement: A table contains an item_id, a category_id and a date range (begin_date and end_date). No item may be in more than one category on any given date (in general; during daily rebuilding it can be in an invalid state temporarily). By default, all items are added (and re-added if removed) to a category (derived from outside data) automatically on a daily basis, and their membership in that category matches the lifespan of the item (items have their own begin and end date, and usually spend their entire lives in the same category, which is why this matches). For items in category X, it is occasionally desirable to override the default category by adding them to category Y. Membership in category Y could entirely replace membership in category X (that is, the begin and end dates for membership in category Y would match the begin and end dates of the item itself), or it could override it for an arbitrary period of time (at the beginning, middle or end the item's lifespan, possibly overriding for short periods at multiple times). Membership in category Y is not renewed automatically and additions to that category is done by manual data entry. Every day, when category X is rebuilt, we get an overlap, where any item in category Y will now be in category X as well (which is forbidden, as noted previously). Goal: After each repopulation of category X (which is done in a rather complicated and fragile manner, and ideally would be left alone), I'm trying to find an efficient means of writing a stored procedure that: Identifies the overlaps Changes existing entries, adds new ones where necessary (such as in the case where an item starts in category X, switches to category Y, then eventually switches back to category X before ending), or removes entries (when an item is in category Y for its entire life) such that every item remains in category Y (and only Y) where specified, while category X membership is maintained when not overridden by category Y. Does not affect memberships of categories A, B, C, Z, etc., which do not have override categories and are built separately, by completely different rules. Note: It can be assumed that X membership covers the entire lifespan of the item before this procedure is called, so it is unnecessary to query any data outside this table. Bonus credit: If for some reason there are two adjacent or overlapping memberships in for the same item in category Y, stitching them together into a single entry is appreciated, but not necessary. Example: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20090628 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 X 20080201 20080731 2 Y 20080201 20080731 Should become: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20081231 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 X 20090201 20090531 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 Y 20080201 20080731 If it matters, this needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2008

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  • many-to-many performance concerns with fluent nhibernate.

    - by Ciel
    I have a situation where I have several many-to-many associations. In the upwards of 12 to 15. Reading around I've seen that it's generally believed that many-to-many associations are not 'typical', yet they are the only way I have been able to create the associations appropriate for my case, so I'm not sure how to optimize any further. Here is my basic scenario. class Page { IList<Tag> Tags { get; set; } IList<Modification> Modifications { get; set; } IList<Aspect> Aspects { get; set; } } This is one of my 'core' classes, and coincidentally one of my core tables. Virtually half of the objects in my code can have an IList<Page>, and some of them have IList<T> where T has its own IList<Page>. As you can see, from an object oriented standpoint, this is not really a problem. But from a database standpoint this begins to introduce a lot of junction tables. So far it has worked fine for me, but I am wondering if anyone has any ideas on how I could improve on this structure. I've spent a long time thinking and in order to achieve the appropriate level of association required, I cannot think of any way to improve it. The only thing I have come up with is to make intermediate classes for each object that has an IList<Page>, but that doesn't really do anything that the HasManyToMany does not already do except introduce another class. It does not extend the functionality and, from what I can tell, it does not improve performance. Any thoughts? I am also concerned about Primary Key limits in this scenario. Most everything needs to be able to have these properties, but the Pages cannot be unique to each object, because they are going to be frequently shared and joined between multiple objects. All relationships are one-sided. (That is, a Page has no knowledge of what owns it). Because of this, I also have no Inverse() mapped HasManyToMany collections. Also, I have read the similar question : Usage of ORMs like NHibernate when there are many associations - performance concerns But it really did not answer my concerns.

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  • Can i store a Queue in viewstate? only will store the first item i add to queue

    - by Mausimo
    Hey, as the question states i am trying to store a Queue in a viewstate (to track postbacks and refreshes to stop a form from resubmitting). Here is just the viewstate code: private Queue<string> p_tempQue { set { ViewState["sTemp"] = value; } get { return (Queue<string>)ViewState["sTemp"]; } } //BasePage constructor public BasePage() { //create a Queue of string //sTemp = new Queue(); this.Load += new EventHandler(this.Page_Load); this.Init += new EventHandler(this.Page_Init); } //In the 'page_Init' event we have created a simple hidden field by name 'hdnGuid' which is attached to the page on the first hit itself. protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { //initializing the hidden field //create a hidden field with a ID HiddenField hdnGuid = new HiddenField(); hdnGuid.ID = "hdnGuid"; //if it is the first time the page is loaded, create a new guid and assign it as the hidden field value if (!Page.IsPostBack) hdnGuid.Value = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); //add the hidden field to the page Page.Form.Controls.Add(hdnGuid); } //In the 'page_Load' event we check if the hidden field value is same as the old value. In case the value is not same that means it's a 'postback' //and if the value is same then its 'refresh'. As per situation we set the 'httpContent.Items["Refresh"]' value. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(p_tempQue != null) sTemp = p_tempQue; else sTemp = new Queue<string>(); //The hdnGuid will be set the first time page is loaded, else the hdnGuid //will be set after each time the form is submitted using javascript. //assign the hidden field currently on the page for manipulation HiddenField h1 = (HiddenField)(Page.Form.FindControl("hdnGuid")); //create an instance of the GuidClass GuidClass currentGuid = new GuidClass(); //set the GuidClass Guid property to the value of the hidden field currentGuid.Guid = h1.Value; //check to see if the Queue of strings contains the string which is the current Guid property of the GuidClass //if the are equal, then the page was refreshed if (sTemp.Contains<string>(currentGuid.Guid)) { //adds item as key/value pair to share data between an System.Web.IHttpModule interface and an System.Web.IHttpHandler interface during an HTTP request. System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Items.Add("IsRefresh", true); } //if they are not requal, the page is not refreshed else { //if the current Guid property in the GuidClass is not null or not an empty string //add the new Guid to the Queue if (!(currentGuid.Guid.Equals(null) || currentGuid.Guid.Equals(""))) sTemp.Enqueue(currentGuid.Guid); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Items.Add("IsRefresh", false); } p_tempQue = sTemp; }

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  • Question about Architecture for Viewing Images in ASP.NET MVC App

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to from the browser via javascript (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • HTML5 <audio> Safari live broadcast vs not

    - by Peter Parente
    I'm attempting to embed an HTML5 audio element pointing to MP3 or OGG data served by a PHP file . When I view the page in Safari, the controls appear, but the UI says "Live Broadcast." When I click play, the audio starts as expected. Once it ends, however, I can't start it playing again by clicking play. Even using the JS API on the audio element and setting currentTime to 0 fails with an index error exception. I suspected the headers from the PHP script were the problem, particularly missing a content length. But that's not the case. The response headers include a proper Content- Length to indicate the audio has finite size. Furthermore, everything works as expected in Firefox 3.5+. I can click play on the audio element multiple times to hear the sound replay. If I remove the PHP script from the equation and serve up a static copy of the MP3 file, everything works fine in Safari. Does this mean Safari is treating audio src URLs with query parameters differently than URLs that don't have them? Anyone have any luck getting this to work? My simple example page is: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head></head> <body> <audio controls autobuffer> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.ogg" /> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.mp3" /> </audio> </body> </html> HTTP Headers from PHP script: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 15:39:34 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.10 Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=98 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg HTTP Headers from direct file access: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 20:06:59 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 03:20:02 GMT Etag: "a404b-c3f-47c3a14937c80" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg I tried hard-coding the Accept-Ranges header into the script too, but no luck.

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  • Interoperability between two AES algorithms

    - by lpfavreau
    Hello, I'm new to cryptography and I'm building some test applications to try and understand the basics of it. I'm not trying to build the algorithms from scratch but I'm trying to make two different AES-256 implementation talk to each other. I've got a database that was populated with this Javascript implementation stored in Base64. Now, I'm trying to get an Objective-C method to decrypt its content but I'm a little lost as to where the differences in the implementations are. I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Javascript and I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Cocoa but cannot make a string encrypted in Javascript decrypted in Cocoa or vice-versa. I'm guessing it's related to the initialization vector, nonce, counter mode of operation or all of these, which quite frankly, doesn't speak to me at the moment. Here's what I'm using in Objective-C, adapted mainly from this and this: @implementation NSString (Crypto) - (NSString *)encryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [self dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:TRUE]; return [Base64 encode:output]; } - (NSString *)decryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [Base64 decode:self]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:FALSE]; return [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:output encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } + (NSData *)cryptoAES256:(NSData *)input key:(NSString *)key doEncrypt:(BOOL)doEncrypt { // 'key' should be 32 bytes for AES256, will be null-padded otherwise char keyPtr[kCCKeySizeAES256 + 1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero(keyPtr, sizeof(keyPtr)); // fill with zeroes (for padding) // fetch key data [key getCString:keyPtr maxLength:sizeof(keyPtr) encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSUInteger dataLength = [input length]; // See the doc: For block ciphers, the output size will always be less than or // equal to the input size plus the size of one block. // That's why we need to add the size of one block here size_t bufferSize = dataLength + kCCBlockSizeAES128; void* buffer = malloc(bufferSize); size_t numBytesCrypted = 0; CCCryptorStatus cryptStatus = CCCrypt(doEncrypt ? kCCEncrypt : kCCDecrypt, kCCAlgorithmAES128, kCCOptionECBMode | kCCOptionPKCS7Padding, keyPtr, kCCKeySizeAES256, nil, // initialization vector (optional) [input bytes], dataLength, // input buffer, bufferSize, // output &numBytesCrypted ); if (cryptStatus == kCCSuccess) { // the returned NSData takes ownership of the buffer and will free it on deallocation return [NSData dataWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:numBytesCrypted]; } free(buffer); // free the buffer; return nil; } @end Of course, the input is Base64 decoded beforehand. I see that each encryption with the same key and same content in Javascript gives a different encrypted string, which is not the case with the Objective-C implementation that always give the same encrypted string. I've read the answers of this post and it makes me believe I'm right about something along the lines of vector initialization but I'd need your help to pinpoint what's going on exactly. Thank you!

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  • Generate a list of file names based on month and year arithmetic

    - by MacUsers
    How can I list the numbers 01 to 12 (one for each of the 12 months) in such a way so that the current month always comes last where the oldest one is first. In other words, if the number is grater than the current month, it's from the previous year. e.g. 02 is Feb, 2011 (the current month right now), 03 is March, 2010 and 09 is Sep, 2010 but 01 is Jan, 2011. In this case, I'd like to have [09, 03, 01, 02]. This is what I'm doing to determine the year: for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) I don't have a clue what to do next. What should I do here? Update: I think, I better upload the entire script for better understanding. #!/usr/bin/env python import os, sys from time import strftime from calendar import month_abbr vGroup = {} vo = "group_lhcb" SI00_fig = float(2.478) months = tuple(month_abbr) print "\n%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('VOs','CPU-time','CPU-time','kSI2K-hrs') print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('','(in Sec)','(in Hrs)','(*2.478)') print "=" * 58 for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): readFile = open(inFile, 'r') lines = readFile.readlines() readFile.close() month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) for line in lines[2:]: if line.find(vo)==0: g, i = line.split() s = vGroup.get(g, 0) vGroup[g] = s + int(i) sumHrs = ((vGroup[g]/60)/60) sumSi2k = sumHrs*SI00_fig print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10.2f" % (mnYear,vGroup[g],sumHrs,sumSi2k) del vGroup[g] When I run the script, I get this: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ================================================== Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 As I said in the original post, I like the result to be in this order instead: Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 The files in the source directory reads like this: [root@serv07 usage]# ls -l total 3632 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144972 Feb 9 19:23 01 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 556630 Feb 13 09:11 02 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 443782 Feb 11 17:23 02.bak -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144556 Feb 14 09:30 09 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 370822 Feb 9 19:24 12 Did I give a better picture now? Sorry for not being very clear in the first place. Cheers!! Update @Mark Ransom This is the result from Mark's suggestion: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ========================================================== Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 As I said before, I'm looking for the result to b printed in this order: Sep, 2010 - Dec, 2010 - Jan, 2011 - Feb, 2011 Cheers!!

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  • XSL transformation and special XML entities escaping

    - by Tomas R
    I have an XML file which is transformed with XSL. Some elements have to be changed, some have to be left as is - specifically, text with entities &quot;, &amp;, &apos;, &lt;, &gt; should be left as is, and in my case &quot; and &apos; are changed to " and ' accordingly. Test XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <root> <element> &quot; &amp; &apos; &lt; &gt; </element> </root> transformation file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" omit-xml-declaration="no" indent="no" /> <xsl:template match="element"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="no" select="." /> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element> " &amp; ' &lt; &gt; </element> desired result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element> &quot; &amp; &apos; &lt; &gt; </element> I have 2 questions: why does some of those entities are transformed and other not? how can I get a desired result?

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  • linq to sql with nservicebus table lock issue

    - by IGoor
    I am building a system using NServiceBus and my DataLayer is using Linq 2 SQL. The system is made up of 2 services. Service1 receives messages from NSB. It will query Table1 in my database and inserts a record into Table1 If a certain condition is met a new NSB message is sent to the 2nd service Service2 will update records also in Table1 when it receives messages from Service1 and it does some other non database related work. Service2 is a long running process. The problem I am having is the moment Service2 updates a record in Table1, the table is locked. The lock seems to be in place until Service2 has completed all it is processing. i.e. The lock is not released after my datacontext is disposed. This causes the query in Service1 to timeout. Once Service2 completes processing, Service1 resumes processing again without problem. So for example Service1 code may look like: int x =0; using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { x = (from dp in db.Table1 select dp).Count(); // this line will timeout while service2 is processing Table1 t = new Table1(); t.Data = "test"; db.Table1.InsertOnSubmit(t); db.SubmitChanges(); } if(x % 50 == 0) CallService2(); The code in service2 may look like: using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { Table1 t = db.Table1.Where(t => t.id == myId); t.Data = "updated"; db.SubmitChanges(); } // I would have expected the lock to have been released at this point, but this is not the case. DoSomeLongRunningTasks(); // lock will be released once service2 exits I don't understand why the lock is not released when the datacontext is disposed in Service2. To get around the problem I have been calling: db.ExecuteCommand("SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL READ UNCOMMITTED"); and this works, but I am not happy using it. I want to solve this problem properly. Has any one experienced this sort of problem before and does any one know how to solve it? Why is the lock not released after the datacontext has been disposed? Thanks in advance. p.s. sorry for the extremely long post.

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