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  • IQueryable and lazy loading

    - by Nelson
    I'm having a hard time determining the best way to handle this... With Entity Framework (and L2S), LINQ queries return IQueryable. I have read various opinions on whether the DAL/BLL should return IQueryable, IEnumerable or IList. Assuming we go with IList, then the query is run immediately and that control is not passed on to the next layer. This makes it easier to unit test, etc. You lose the ability to refine the query at higher levels, but you could simply create another method that allows you to refine the query and still return IList. And there are many more pros/cons. So far so good. Now comes Entity Framework and lazy loading. I am using POCO objects with proxies in .NET 4/VS 2010. In the presentation layer I do: foreach (Order order in bll.GetOrders()) { foreach (OrderLine orderLine in order.OrderLines) { // Do something } } In this case, GetOrders() returns IList so it executes immediately before returning to the PL. But in the next foreach, you have lazy loading which executes multiple SQL queries as it gets all the OrderLines. So basically, the PL is running SQL queries "on demand" in the wrong layer. Is there any sensible way to avoid this? I could turn lazy loading off, but then what's the point of having this "feature" that everyone was complaining EF1 didn't have? And I'll admit it is very useful in many scenarios. So I see several options: Somehow remove all associations in the entities and add methods to return them. This goes against the default EF behavior/code generation and makes it harder to do some composite (multiple entity) LINQ queries. It seems like a step backwards. I vote no. If we have lazy loading anyway which makes it hard to unit test, then go all the way and return IQueryable. You'll have more control farther up the layers. I still don't think this is a good option because IQueryable ties you to L2S, L2E, or your own full implementation of IQueryable. Lazy loading may run queries "on demand", but doesn't tie you to any specific interface. I vote no. Turn off lazy loading. You'll have to handle your associations manually. This could be with eager loading's .Include(). I vote yes in some specific cases. Keep IList and lazy loading. I vote yes in many cases, only due to the troubles with the others. Any other options or suggestions? I haven't found an option that really convinces me.

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  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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  • Checking if an int is prime more efficiently

    - by SipSop
    I recently was part of a small java programming competition at my school. My partner and I have just finished our first pure oop class and most of the questions were out of our league so we settled on this one (and I am paraphrasing somewhat): "given an input integer n return the next int that is prime and its reverse is also prime for example if n = 18 your program should print 31" because 31 and 13 are both prime. Your .class file would then have a test case of all the possible numbers from 1-2,000,000,000 passed to it and it had to return the correct answer within 10 seconds to be considered valid. We found a solution but with larger test cases it would take longer than 10 seconds. I am fairly certain there is a way to move the range of looping from n,..2,000,000,000 down as the likely hood of needing to loop that far when n is a low number is small, but either way we broke the loop when a number is prime under both conditions is found. At first we were looping from 2,..n no matter how large it was then i remembered the rule about only looping to the square root of n. Any suggestions on how to make my program more efficient? I have had no classes dealing with complexity analysis of algorithms. Here is our attempt. public class P3 { public static void main(String[] args){ long loop = 2000000000; long n = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); for(long i = n; i<loop; i++) { String s = i +""; String r = ""; for(int j = s.length()-1; j>=0; j--) r = r + s.charAt(j); if(prime(i) && prime(Long.parseLong(r))) { System.out.println(i); break; } } System.out.println("#"); } public static boolean prime(long p){ for(int i = 2; i<(int)Math.sqrt(p); i++) { if(p%i==0) return false; } return true; } } ps sorry if i did the formatting for code wrong this is my first time posting here. Also the output had to have a '#' after each line thats what the line after the loop is about Thanks for any help you guys offer!!!

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  • ArithmeticException thrown during BigDecimal.divide

    - by polygenelubricants
    I thought java.math.BigDecimal is supposed to be The Answer™ to the need of performing infinite precision arithmetic with decimal numbers. Consider the following snippet: import java.math.BigDecimal; //... final BigDecimal one = BigDecimal.ONE; final BigDecimal three = BigDecimal.valueOf(3); final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three); assert third.multiply(three).equals(one); // this should pass, right? I expect the assert to pass, but in fact the execution doesn't even get there: one.divide(three) causes ArithmeticException to be thrown! Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArithmeticException: Non-terminating decimal expansion; no exact representable decimal result. at java.math.BigDecimal.divide It turns out that this behavior is explicitly documented in the API: In the case of divide, the exact quotient could have an infinitely long decimal expansion; for example, 1 divided by 3. If the quotient has a non-terminating decimal expansion and the operation is specified to return an exact result, an ArithmeticException is thrown. Otherwise, the exact result of the division is returned, as done for other operations. Browsing around the API further, one finds that in fact there are various overloads of divide that performs inexact division, i.e.: final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three, 33, RoundingMode.DOWN); System.out.println(three.multiply(third)); // prints "0.999999999999999999999999999999999" Of course, the obvious question now is "What's the point???". I thought BigDecimal is the solution when we need exact arithmetic, e.g. for financial calculations. If we can't even divide exactly, then how useful can this be? Does it actually serve a general purpose, or is it only useful in a very niche application where you fortunately just don't need to divide at all? If this is not the right answer, what CAN we use for exact division in financial calculation? (I mean, I don't have a finance major, but they still use division, right???).

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  • Java program has errors, 80 lines of code

    - by user2961687
    I have a problem with a program. It contains a lot of errors in Eclipse. Sorry for my english and thank you in advance. Here is the task: I. Declare a class that contains private fields Jam: String taste, double weight Create constructors containing variables as parameters: (String taste, double weight), (double weight), (String taste). Parameters constructors should initialize class fields. In case the constructor does not provide the necessary parameter, it must be assumed that the field taste must have the value "No Name" and weight - 100.0. Introduce the use of all constructors creating objects that represent three kinds of jams. Note: it must be assumed that the only constructor with two parameters can be assigned to fields of the class. Declare a class Jar that contains the field Jam jam, a dedicated constructor initiating all declared fields and methods: open close isItOpen Next, create an object of class Jar and fill it with the selected type of jam, operations repeat for all the kinds of jams. This is my code this far: public class App { public static void main(String[] args) { Jam strawberry = new Jam("strawberry", 20.45); Jam raspberry = new Jam(40.50); Jam peach = new Jam("peach"); Jar jar_1 = new Jar(); Jar jar_2 = new Jar(); Jar jar_3 = new Jar(); jar_1.open(); jar_1.fillIn(strawberry); jar_2.fillIn(peach); jar_3.fillIn(raspberry); } } class Jam { String taste; double weight; public Jam(String taste, double weight) { this.taste = taste; this.weight = weight; } public Jam(double weight) { this.taste = "No name"; this.weight = weight; } public Jam(String taste) { this.taste = taste; this.weight = 100.0; } } class Jar { public Jam Jam = new Jam(); private String state_jar; public Jar() { Jam.weight = 0; Jam.taste = ""; state_jar = "closed"; } public static String open() { state_jar = open; return state_jar; } public static String close() { state_jar = "closed"; return state_jar; } public static boolean isItOpen() { return state_jar; } public void fillIn(Jam jam) { if (isItOpen == false) open(); this.Jam.weight = jam.weight; this.Jam.taste = jam.taste; this.Jam.close(); } }

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  • What is the difference between NULL in C++ and null in Java?

    - by Stephano
    I've been trying to figure out why C++ is making me crazy typing NULL. Suddenly it hits me the other day; I've been typing null (lower case) in Java for years. Now suddenly I'm programming in C++ and that little chunk of muscle memory is making me crazy. Wikiperipatetic defines C++ NULL as part of the stddef: A macro that expands to a null pointer constant. It may be defined as ((void*)0), 0 or 0L depending on the compiler and the language. Sun's docs tells me this about Java's "null literal": The null type has one value, the null reference, represented by the literal null, which is formed from ASCII characters. A null literal is always of the null type. So this is all very nice. I know what a null pointer reference is, and thank you for the compiler notes. Now I'm a little fuzzy on the idea of a literal in Java so I read on... A literal is the source code representation of a fixed value; literals are represented directly in your code without requiring computation. There's also a special null literal that can be used as a value for any reference type. null may be assigned to any variable, except variables of primitive types. There's little you can do with a null value beyond testing for its presence. Therefore, null is often used in programs as a marker to indicate that some object is unavailable. Ok, so I think I get it now. In C++ NULL is a macro that, when compiled, defines the null pointer constant. In Java, null is a fixed value that any non-primitive can be assigned too; great for testing in a handy if statement. Java does not have pointers, so I can see why they kept null a simple value rather than anything fancy. But why did java decide to change the all caps NULL to null? Furthermore, am I missing anything here?

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • How to optimize this SQL query for a rectangular region?

    - by Andrew B.
    I'm trying to optimize the following query, but it's not clear to me what index or indexes would be best. I'm storing tiles in a two-dimensional plane and querying for rectangular regions of that plane. The table has, for the purposes of this question, the following columns: id: a primary key integer world_id: an integer foreign key which acts as a namespace for a subset of tiles tileY: the Y-coordinate integer tileX: the X-coordinate integer value: the contents of this tile, a varchar if it matters. I have the following indexes: "ywot_tile_pkey" PRIMARY KEY, btree (id) "ywot_tile_world_id_key" UNIQUE, btree (world_id, "tileY", "tileX") "ywot_tile_world_id" btree (world_id) And this is the query I'm trying to optimize: ywot=> EXPLAIN ANALYZE SELECT * FROM "ywot_tile" WHERE ("world_id" = 27685 AND "tileY" <= 6 AND "tileX" <= 9 AND "tileX" >= -2 AND "tileY" >= -1 ); QUERY PLAN ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Bitmap Heap Scan on ywot_tile (cost=11384.13..149421.27 rows=65989 width=168) (actual time=79.646..80.075 rows=96 loops=1) Recheck Cond: ((world_id = 27685) AND ("tileY" <= 6) AND ("tileY" >= (-1)) AND ("tileX" <= 9) AND ("tileX" >= (-2))) -> Bitmap Index Scan on ywot_tile_world_id_key (cost=0.00..11367.63 rows=65989 width=0) (actual time=79.615..79.615 rows=125 loops=1) Index Cond: ((world_id = 27685) AND ("tileY" <= 6) AND ("tileY" >= (-1)) AND ("tileX" <= 9) AND ("tileX" >= (-2))) Total runtime: 80.194 ms So the world is fixed, and we are querying for a rectangular region of tiles. Some more information that might be relevant: All the tiles for a queried region may or may not be present The height and width of a queried rectangle are typically about 10x10-20x20 For any given (world, X) or (world, Y) pair, there may be an unbounded number of matching tiles, but the worst case is currently around 10,000, and typically there are far fewer. New tiles are created far less frequently than existing ones are updated (changing the 'value'), and that itself is far less frequent that just reading as in the query above. The only thing I can think of would be to index on (world, X) and (world, Y). My guess is that the database would be able to take those two sets and intersect them. The problem is that there is a potentially unbounded number of matches for either for either of those. Is there some other kind of index that would be more appropriate?

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  • Web Services Primer for a WinForms Developer?

    - by Unicorns
    I've been writing client/server applications with Winforms for about six years now, but I have yet to venture into the web space (neither ASP.NET nor web services). Given the direction that the job market has been heading for some time and the fact that I have a basic curiosity, I'd like to get involved with writing web services, but I don't know where to start. I've read about various options (XML/SOAP vs. JSON, REST vs...well, actually I don't know what it's called, etc.), but I'm not sure what sort of criteria are in play when making the determination to use one or the other. Obviously, I'd like to leverage the tools that I have (Visual Studio, the .NET framework, etc.) without hamstringing myself into only targeting a particular audience (i.e. writing the service in such a way as to make it difficult to consume from a Windows Mobile/Android/iPhone client, for example). For the record, my plan--for now--is to use WCF for my web service development, but I'm open to using another .NET approach if that's advisable. I realize that this question is pretty open-ended so it may get closed, but here are some things I'm wondering: What are some things to consider when choosing the type of web service (REST, etc.) I intend to write? Is it possible (and, if so, feasible) to move from one approach to another? Can web services be written in an event-driven way? As I said I'm a Winforms developer, so I'm used to objects raising events for me to react to. For instance, if I have two clients connected to my service, is there a way for me to "push" information to one of them as a result of an action by the other? If this is possible, is this advisable or am I just not thinking about it correctly? What authentication mechanisms seem to work best for public-facing services? What about if I plan to have different types of OS'es and clients connecting to the service? Is there a generally accepted platform-agnostic approach? In the line of authentication, is this something that I should be doing myself (authenticating an managing sessions, etc.) or is this something should be handled at the framework level and I just define exactly how it should work? If that's the case, how do I tell who the requester has authenticated themselves as? I started writing an authentication mechanism (simple username/password combinations stored in the database and a corresponding session table with a GUID key) within my service and just requiring that key to be passed with every operation (other than logging in, of course), but I want to make sure that I'm not reinventing the wheel here. However, I also don't want to clutter up the server with a bunch of machine user accounts just to use Basic authentication. I'm also under the impression that Digest (and of course Windows) authentication requires a machine (or AD) user account.

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • jQuery AJAX Web service works only locally

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a simple ASP.NET Web Service [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { } [WebMethod] public string SetName(string name) { return "hello my dear friend " + name; } } For this Web Service I created Virtual Directory, so I can receive the access by taping http://localhost:89/Service.asmx. I try to call it via simple html page with jQuery. For this purpose I use function CallWS() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "{'name':'Pumba'}", dataType: "json", url: "http://localhost:89/Service.asmx/SetName", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (msg) { $('#DIVid').html(msg.d); }, error: function (e) { $('#DIVid').html("Error"); } }); The most interesting fact: If I create the html page in the project with my WebService and change url to Service.asmx/SetName everything works excellent. But if I try to call this webservice remotely - success function works but msg is null. After that I tried to call this service even via SOAP. It is the the same - locally it works excellent, but remotely - not at all. var ServiceUrl = 'http://localhost:89/Service.asmx?op=SetName'; function beginSetName(Name) { var soapMessage = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <SetName xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <name>' + Name + '</name> </SetName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; $.ajax({ url: ServiceUrl, type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: soapMessage, complete: endSetName, contentType: "text/xml; charset=\"utf-8\"" }); return false; } function endSetName(xmlHttpRequest, status) { $(xmlHttpRequest.responseXML) .find('SetNameResult') .each(function () { var name = $(this).text(); alert(name); }); } In this case status has value "parseerror". Could you please help me to resolve this problem? What should I do to call another WebService remotely by url via jQuery. Thank you in advance, Greg

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  • Adding x11vnc as a Solaris SMF service

    - by rojanu
    I am trying add x11vnc as SMF service but cannot get service to start. I tried googling but couldn't find anything that could help me. Here is the startup script #!/sbin/sh # # Copyright (c) 1995, 1997-1999 by Sun Microsystems, Inc. # All rights reserved. # #ident "@(#)x11vnc 1.14 06/11/17 SMI" case "$1" in 'start') #/usr/local/bin/x11vnc -geometry 1280x1024 -noshm -display :0 -ncache 10 -noshm -shared -forever -o /tmp/vnc_remote.log -bg /usr/local/bin/x11vnc -unixpw -ncache 10 -display :0 -noshm -shared -forever -o /tmp/vnc_remote.log ;; 'stop') /usr/bin/pkill -x -u 0 x11vnc ;; *) echo "Usage: $0 { start | stop }" ;; esac exit 0 and here is the manifest file <?xml version='1.0'?> <!DOCTYPE service_bundle SYSTEM '/usr/share/lib/xml/dtd/service_bundle.dtd.1'> <service_bundle type='manifest' name='vnc'> <service name='application/x11vnc' type='service' version='0'> <create_default_instance enabled='true'/> <single_instance/> <dependency name='docusp' grouping='require_all' restart_on='none' type='service'> <service_fmri value='svc:/milestone/multi-user-server:default'/> </dependency> <exec_method name='start' type='method' exec='/lib/svc/method/x11vnc' timeout_seconds='0'> <method_context/> </exec_method> <exec_method name='stop' type='method' exec=':true' timeout_seconds='10'> <method_context/> </exec_method> <stability value='Evolving' /> <property_group name='startd' type='framework'> <propval name='ignore_error' type='astring' value='core,signal'/> </property_group> </service> </service_bundle> and the log file Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing start method ("/lib/svc/method/x11vnc") ] Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing start method ("/lib/svc/method/x11vnc") ] Usage: /lib/svc/method/x11vnc { start | stop } [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Executing stop method (:kill) ] [ Nov 16 19:35:52 Restarting too quickly, changing state to maintenance ] Any Ideas?

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  • Issues with LINQ (to Entity) [adding records]

    - by Mario
    I am using LINQ to Entity in a project, where I pull a bunch of data (from the database) and organize it into a bunch of objects and save those to the database. I have not had problems writing to the db before using LINQ to Entity, but I have run into a snag with this particular one. Here's the error I get (this is the "InnerException", the exception itself is useless!): New transaction is not allowed because there are other threads running in the session. I have seen that before, when I was trying to save my changes inside a loop. In this case, the loop finishes, and it tries to make that call, only to give me the exception. Here's the current code: try { //finalResult is a list of the keys to match on for the records being pulled foreach (int i in finalResult) { var queryEff = (from eff in dbMRI.MemberEligibility where eff.Member_Key == i && eff.EffDate >= DateTime.Now select eff.EffDate).Min(); if (queryEff != null) { //Add a record to the Process table Process prRecord = new Process(); prRecord.GroupData = qa; prRecord.Member_Key = i; prRecord.ProcessDate = DateTime.Now; prRecord.RecordType = "F"; prRecord.UsernameMarkedBy = "Autocard"; prRecord.GroupsId = qa.GroupsID; prRecord.Quantity = 2; prRecord.EffectiveDate = queryEff; dbMRI.AddObject("Process", prRecord); } } dbMRI.SaveChanges(); //<-- Crashes here foreach (int i in finalResult) { var queryProc = from pro in dbMRI.Process where pro.Member_Key == i && pro.UsernameMarkedBy == "Autocard" select pro; foreach (var qp in queryProc) { Audit aud = new Audit(); aud.Member_Key = i; aud.ProcessId = qp.ProcessId; aud.MarkDate = DateTime.Now; aud.MarkedByUsername = "Autocard"; aud.GroupData = qa; dbMRI.AddObject("Audit", aud); } } dbMRI.SaveChanges(); //<-- AND here (if the first one is commented out) } catch (Exception e) { //Do Something here } Basically, I need it to insert a record, get the identity for that inserted record and insert a record into another table with the identity from the first record. Given some other constraints, it is not possible to create a FK relationship between the two (I've tried, but some other parts of the app won't allow it, AND my DBA team for whatever reason hates FK's, but that's for a different topic :)) Any ideas what might be causing this? Thank!

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  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

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  • Interoperability between two AES algorithms

    - by lpfavreau
    Hello, I'm new to cryptography and I'm building some test applications to try and understand the basics of it. I'm not trying to build the algorithms from scratch but I'm trying to make two different AES-256 implementation talk to each other. I've got a database that was populated with this Javascript implementation stored in Base64. Now, I'm trying to get an Objective-C method to decrypt its content but I'm a little lost as to where the differences in the implementations are. I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Javascript and I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Cocoa but cannot make a string encrypted in Javascript decrypted in Cocoa or vice-versa. I'm guessing it's related to the initialization vector, nonce, counter mode of operation or all of these, which quite frankly, doesn't speak to me at the moment. Here's what I'm using in Objective-C, adapted mainly from this and this: @implementation NSString (Crypto) - (NSString *)encryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [self dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:TRUE]; return [Base64 encode:output]; } - (NSString *)decryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [Base64 decode:self]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:FALSE]; return [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:output encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } + (NSData *)cryptoAES256:(NSData *)input key:(NSString *)key doEncrypt:(BOOL)doEncrypt { // 'key' should be 32 bytes for AES256, will be null-padded otherwise char keyPtr[kCCKeySizeAES256 + 1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero(keyPtr, sizeof(keyPtr)); // fill with zeroes (for padding) // fetch key data [key getCString:keyPtr maxLength:sizeof(keyPtr) encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSUInteger dataLength = [input length]; // See the doc: For block ciphers, the output size will always be less than or // equal to the input size plus the size of one block. // That's why we need to add the size of one block here size_t bufferSize = dataLength + kCCBlockSizeAES128; void* buffer = malloc(bufferSize); size_t numBytesCrypted = 0; CCCryptorStatus cryptStatus = CCCrypt(doEncrypt ? kCCEncrypt : kCCDecrypt, kCCAlgorithmAES128, kCCOptionECBMode | kCCOptionPKCS7Padding, keyPtr, kCCKeySizeAES256, nil, // initialization vector (optional) [input bytes], dataLength, // input buffer, bufferSize, // output &numBytesCrypted ); if (cryptStatus == kCCSuccess) { // the returned NSData takes ownership of the buffer and will free it on deallocation return [NSData dataWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:numBytesCrypted]; } free(buffer); // free the buffer; return nil; } @end Of course, the input is Base64 decoded beforehand. I see that each encryption with the same key and same content in Javascript gives a different encrypted string, which is not the case with the Objective-C implementation that always give the same encrypted string. I've read the answers of this post and it makes me believe I'm right about something along the lines of vector initialization but I'd need your help to pinpoint what's going on exactly. Thank you!

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  • Need help converting Ruby code to php code

    - by newprog
    Yesterday I posted this queston. Today I found the code which I need but written in Ruby. Some parts of code I have understood (I don't know Ruby) but there is one part that I can't. I think people who know ruby and php can help me understand this code. def do_create(image) # Clear any old info in case of a re-submit FIELDS_TO_CLEAR.each { |field| image.send(field+'=', nil) } image.save # Compose request vm_params = Hash.new # Submitting a file in ruby requires opening it and then reading the contents into the post body file = File.open(image.filename_in, "rb") # Populate the parameters and compute the signature # Normally you would do this in a subroutine - for maximum clarity all # parameters are explicitly spelled out here. vm_params["image"] = file # Contents will be read by the multipart object created below vm_params["image_checksum"] = image.image_checksum vm_params["start_job"] = 'vectorize' vm_params["image_type"] = image.image_type if image.image_type != 'none' vm_params["image_complexity"] = image.image_complexity if image.image_complexity != 'none' vm_params["image_num_colors"] = image.image_num_colors if image.image_num_colors != '' vm_params["image_colors"] = image.image_colors if image.image_colors != '' vm_params["expire_at"] = image.expire_at if image.expire_at != '' vm_params["licensee_id"] = DEVELOPER_ID #in php it's like this $vm_params["sequence_number"] = -rand(100000000);????? vm_params["sequence_number"] = Kernel.rand(1000000000) # Use a negative value to force an error when calling the test server vm_params["timestamp"] = Time.new.utc.httpdate string_to_sign = CREATE_URL + # Start out with the URL being called... #vm_params["image"].to_s + # ... don't include the file per se - use the checksum instead vm_params["image_checksum"].to_s + # ... then include all regular parameters vm_params["start_job"].to_s + vm_params["image_type"].to_s + vm_params["image_complexity"].to_s + # (nil.to_s => '', so this is fine for vm_params we don't use) vm_params["image_num_colors"].to_s + vm_params["image_colors"].to_s + vm_params["expire_at"].to_s + vm_params["licensee_id"].to_s + # ... then do all the security parameters vm_params["sequence_number"].to_s + vm_params["timestamp"].to_s vm_params["signature"] = sign(string_to_sign) #no problem # Workaround class for handling multipart posts mp = Multipart::MultipartPost.new query, headers = mp.prepare_query(vm_params) # Handles the file parameter in a special way (see /lib/multipart.rb) file.close # mp has read the contents, we can close the file now response = post_form(URI.parse(CREATE_URL), query, headers) logger.info(response.body) response_hash = ActiveSupport::JSON.decode(response.body) # Decode the JSON response string ##I have understood below def sign(string_to_sign) #logger.info("String to sign: '#{string_to_sign}'") Base64.encode64(HMAC::SHA1.digest(DEVELOPER_KEY, string_to_sign)) end # Within Multipart modul I have this: class MultipartPost BOUNDARY = 'tarsiers-rule0000' HEADER = {"Content-type" => "multipart/form-data, boundary=" + BOUNDARY + " "} def prepare_query (params) fp = [] params.each {|k,v| if v.respond_to?(:read) fp.push(FileParam.new(k, v.path, v.read)) else fp.push(Param.new(k,v)) end } query = fp.collect {|p| "--" + BOUNDARY + "\r\n" + p.to_multipart }.join("") + "--" + BOUNDARY + "--" return query, HEADER end end end Thanks for your help.

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  • Flatten date range memberships retaining only the highest priority membership (TRANSACT-SQL)

    - by shadowranger
    Problem statement: A table contains an item_id, a category_id and a date range (begin_date and end_date). No item may be in more than one category on any given date (in general; during daily rebuilding it can be in an invalid state temporarily). By default, all items are added (and re-added if removed) to a category (derived from outside data) automatically on a daily basis, and their membership in that category matches the lifespan of the item (items have their own begin and end date, and usually spend their entire lives in the same category, which is why this matches). For items in category X, it is occasionally desirable to override the default category by adding them to category Y. Membership in category Y could entirely replace membership in category X (that is, the begin and end dates for membership in category Y would match the begin and end dates of the item itself), or it could override it for an arbitrary period of time (at the beginning, middle or end the item's lifespan, possibly overriding for short periods at multiple times). Membership in category Y is not renewed automatically and additions to that category is done by manual data entry. Every day, when category X is rebuilt, we get an overlap, where any item in category Y will now be in category X as well (which is forbidden, as noted previously). Goal: After each repopulation of category X (which is done in a rather complicated and fragile manner, and ideally would be left alone), I'm trying to find an efficient means of writing a stored procedure that: Identifies the overlaps Changes existing entries, adds new ones where necessary (such as in the case where an item starts in category X, switches to category Y, then eventually switches back to category X before ending), or removes entries (when an item is in category Y for its entire life) such that every item remains in category Y (and only Y) where specified, while category X membership is maintained when not overridden by category Y. Does not affect memberships of categories A, B, C, Z, etc., which do not have override categories and are built separately, by completely different rules. Note: It can be assumed that X membership covers the entire lifespan of the item before this procedure is called, so it is unnecessary to query any data outside this table. Bonus credit: If for some reason there are two adjacent or overlapping memberships in for the same item in category Y, stitching them together into a single entry is appreciated, but not necessary. Example: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20090628 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 X 20080201 20080731 2 Y 20080201 20080731 Should become: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20081231 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 X 20090201 20090531 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 Y 20080201 20080731 If it matters, this needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2008

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  • mulformed Farsi characters on AWT

    - by jlover2010
    Hi As i started programming by jdk6, i had no problem in text components neither in awt nor in swing. But for labels or titles of awt components, yes : I couldn't have Farsi characters displayable on AWTs just as simple as Swing by typing them into the source code. lets check this SSCCE : import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; import java.io.*; import java.util.Properties; public class EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT extends JFrame{ public EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT() { super("????"); setDefaultCloseOperation(3); setVisible(rootPaneCheckingEnabled); } public static void main(String[] args) throws AWTException, IOException { JFrame jFrame = new EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT(); MenuItem show ; // approach 1 = HardCoding : /* show = new MenuItem("\u0646\u0645\u0627\u06cc\u0634"); * */ // approach 2 = using simple utf-8 saved text file : /* BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("farsiLabels.txt")); String showLabel = in.readLine(); in.close(); show = new MenuItem(showLabel); * */ // approach 3 = using properties file : FileReader in = new FileReader("farsiLabels.properties"); Properties farsiLabels = new Properties(); farsiLabels.load(in); show = new MenuItem(farsiLabels.getProperty("tray.show")); PopupMenu popUp = new PopupMenu(); popUp.add(show); // creating Tray object Image iconIamge = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().getImage("greenIcon.png"); TrayIcon trayIcon = new TrayIcon(iconIamge, null, popUp); SystemTray tray = SystemTray.getSystemTray(); tray.add(trayIcon); jFrame.setIconImage(iconIamge); } } Yes, i know each of three approaches in source code does right when you may test it from IDE , but if you make a JAR contains just this class (and its resources) by means of NetBeans project clean&build ,you won't see the expected characters and will just get EMPTY/BLANK SQUARES ! Unfortunately, opposed to other situations i encountered before, here there is no way to avoid using awt and make use of Swing in this case. And this was just an SSCCE i made to show the problem and my recent (also first) application suffers from this subject. And i think should have to let you know I posted this question a while ago in SDN and "the Java Ranch" forums and other native forums and still I'm watching... By the way i am using latest version of Netbeans IDE... I will be so grateful if anybody has a solution to this damn AWT components never rendered any Farsi character for me... Thanks in advance

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  • many-to-many performance concerns with fluent nhibernate.

    - by Ciel
    I have a situation where I have several many-to-many associations. In the upwards of 12 to 15. Reading around I've seen that it's generally believed that many-to-many associations are not 'typical', yet they are the only way I have been able to create the associations appropriate for my case, so I'm not sure how to optimize any further. Here is my basic scenario. class Page { IList<Tag> Tags { get; set; } IList<Modification> Modifications { get; set; } IList<Aspect> Aspects { get; set; } } This is one of my 'core' classes, and coincidentally one of my core tables. Virtually half of the objects in my code can have an IList<Page>, and some of them have IList<T> where T has its own IList<Page>. As you can see, from an object oriented standpoint, this is not really a problem. But from a database standpoint this begins to introduce a lot of junction tables. So far it has worked fine for me, but I am wondering if anyone has any ideas on how I could improve on this structure. I've spent a long time thinking and in order to achieve the appropriate level of association required, I cannot think of any way to improve it. The only thing I have come up with is to make intermediate classes for each object that has an IList<Page>, but that doesn't really do anything that the HasManyToMany does not already do except introduce another class. It does not extend the functionality and, from what I can tell, it does not improve performance. Any thoughts? I am also concerned about Primary Key limits in this scenario. Most everything needs to be able to have these properties, but the Pages cannot be unique to each object, because they are going to be frequently shared and joined between multiple objects. All relationships are one-sided. (That is, a Page has no knowledge of what owns it). Because of this, I also have no Inverse() mapped HasManyToMany collections. Also, I have read the similar question : Usage of ORMs like NHibernate when there are many associations - performance concerns But it really did not answer my concerns.

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  • C++0x Overload on reference, versus sole pass-by-value + std::move?

    - by dean
    It seems the main advice concerning C++0x's rvalues is to add move constructors and move operators to your classes, until compilers default-implement them. But waiting is a losing strategy if you use VC10, because automatic generation probably won't be here until VC10 SP1, or in worst case, VC11. Likely, the wait for this will be measured in years. Here lies my problem. Writing all this duplicate code is not fun. And it's unpleasant to look at. But this is a burden well received, for those classes deemed slow. Not so for the hundreds, if not thousands, of smaller classes. ::sighs:: C++0x was supposed to let me write less code, not more! And then I had a thought. Shared by many, I would guess. Why not just pass everything by value? Won't std::move + copy elision make this nearly optimal? Example 1 - Typical Pre-0x constructor OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // single copy OurClass(SomeClass()); // single copy Cons: A wasted copy for rvalues. Example 2 - Recommended C++0x? OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass&& obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, one move OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: Presumably the fastest. Cons: Lots of code! Example 3 - Pass-by-value + std::move OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy, one move OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, two moves OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: No additional code. Cons: A wasted move in cases 1 & 2. Performance will suffer greatly if SomeClass has no move constructor. What do you think? Is this correct? Is the incurred move a generally acceptable loss when compared to the benefit of code reduction?

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  • In Ruby, how does coerce() actually work?

    - by Jian Lin
    It is said that when we have a class Point and knows how to perform point * 3 like the following: class Point def initialize(x,y) @x, @y = x, y end def *(c) Point.new(@x * c, @y * c) end end point = Point.new(1,2) p point p point * 3 Output: #<Point:0x336094 @x=1, @y=2> #<Point:0x335fa4 @x=3, @y=6> but then, 3 * point is not understood: Point can't be coerced into Fixnum (TypeError) So we need to further define an instance method coerce: class Point def coerce(something) [self, something] end end p 3 * point Output: #<Point:0x3c45a88 @x=3, @y=6> So it is said that 3 * point is the same as 3.*(point) that is, the instance method * takes an argument point and invoke on the object 3. Now, since this method * doesn't know how to multiply a point, so point.coerce(3) will be called, and get back an array: [point, 3] and then * is once again applied to it, is that true? point * 3 which is the same as point.*(3) and now, this is understood and we now have a new Point object, as performed by the instance method * of the Point class. The question is: 1) who invokes point.coerce(3) ? Is it Ruby automatically, or is it some code inside of * method of Fixnum by catching an exception? Or is it by case statement that when it doesn't know one of the known types, then call coerce? 2) Does coerce always need to return an array of 2 elements? Can it be no array? Or can it be an array of 3 elements? 3) And is the rule that, the original operator (or method) * will then be invoked on element 0, with the argument of element 1? (element 0 and element 1 are the two elements in that array returned by coerce) Who does it? Is it done by Ruby or is it done by code in Fixnum? If it is done by code in Fixnum, then it is a "convention" that everybody follows when doing a coerce? So could it be the code in * of Fixnum do something like this: if (something.typeof? ...) else if ... # other type else if ... # other type else # if it is not a type I know array = something.coerce(self) return array[0].*(array[1]) end

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  • JSON or YAML encoding in GWT/Java on both client and server

    - by KennethJ
    I'm looking for a super simple JSON or YAML library (not particularly bothered which one) written in Java, and can be used in both GWT on the client, and in its original Java form on the server. What I'm trying to do is this: I have my models, which are shared between the client and the server, and these are the primary source of data interchange. I want to design the web service in between to be as simple as possible, and decided to take the RESTful approach. My problem is that I know our application will grow substantially in the future, and writing all the getters, setters, serialization, factories, etc. by hand fills me with absolute dread. So in order to avoid it, I decided to implement annotations to keep track of attributes on the models. The reason I can't just serialize everything directly, using GWT's own one, or one which works through reflection, is because we need a certain amount of logic going on in the serialization process. I.e. whether references to other models get serialized during the serialization of the original model, or whether an ID is just passed, and general simple things like that. I've then written an annotation processor to preprocess my shared models and generate an implementing class with all the getters, setters, serialization, lazy-loading, etc. To make a long story short, I need some type of simple YAML or JSON library, which allows me to encode and decode manually, so I can generate this code through my annotation processor. I have had a look around the interwebs, but every single one I ran into supported some reflection which, while all fine and dandy, make it pretty much useless for GWT. And in the case of GWT's own JSON library, it uses JSNI for speed purposes, making it useless server side. One solution I did think about involved writing writing two sets of serialization methods on the models, one for the client and one for the server, but I'd rather not do that. Also, I'm pretty new to GWT, and even though I have done a lot of Java, it was back in the 1.2 days, so it's a bit rusty. So if you think I'm going about this problem completely the wrong way, I'm open to suggestions.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 AJAX dilemma: Lose Models concept or create unmanageable JavaScript

    - by Slightly Frustrated
    Hi, Ok, let's assume we are working with ASP.NET MVC 2 (latest and greatest preview) and we want to create AJAX user interface with jQuery. So what are our real options here? Option 1 - Pass Json from the Controller to the view, and then the view submits Json back to the controller. This means (in the order given): User opens some View (let's say - /Invoices/January) which has to visualize a list of data (e.g. <IEnumerable<X.Y.Z.Models.Invoice>>) Controller retrieves the Model from the repository (assuming we are using repository pattern). Controller creates a new instance of a class which we will serialize to Json. The reasaon we do this, is because the model may not be serializable (circular reference ftl) Controller populates the soon-to-be-serialized class with data Controller serializes the class to Json and passes it the view. User does some change and submits the 'form' The View submits back Json to the controller The Controller now must 'manually' validate the input, because the Json passed does not bind to a Model See, if our View is communicating to the controller via Json, we lose the Model validation, which IMHO is incredible disadvantage. In this case, forget about data annotations and stuff. Option 2 - Ok, the alternative of the first approach is to pass the Models to the Views, which is the default behavior in the template when you start a new project. We pass a strong typed model to the view The view renders the appropriate html and javascript, sticking to the model property names. This is important! The user submits the form. If we stick to the model names, when we .serialize() the form and submit it to the controller it will map to a model. There is no Json mapping. The submitted form directly binds to a strongly typed model, hence, we can use the model validation. E.g. we keep the business logic where it should be. Problem with this approach is, if we refactor some of the Models (change property names, types, etc), the javascript we wrote would become invalid. We will have to manually refactor the scripting and hope we don't miss something. There is no way you can test it either. Ok, the question is - how to write an AJAX front end, which keeps the business logic validation in the model (e.g. controller passes and receives a Model type), but in the same time doesn't screw up the javascript and html when we refactor the model?

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  • IP address numbers in MySQL subquery

    - by Iain Collins
    I have a problem with a subquery involving IPV4 addresses stored in MySQL (MySQL 5.0). The IP addresses are stored in two tables, both in network number format - e.g. the format output by MySQL's INET_ATON(). The first table ('events') contains lots of rows with IP addresses associated with them, the second table ('network_providers') contains a list of provider information for given netblocks. events table (~4,000,000 rows): event_id (int) event_name (varchar) ip_address (unsigned 4 byte int) network_providers table (~60,000 rows): ip_start (unsigned 4 byte int) ip_end (unsigned 4 byte int) provider_name (varchar) Simplified for the purposes of the problem I'm having, the goal is to create an export along the lines of: event_id,event_name,ip_address,provider_name If do a query along the lines of either of the following, I get the result I expect: SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE INET_ATON('192.168.0.1') >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE 3232235521 >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 That is to say, it returns the correct provider_name for whatever IP I look up (of course I'm not really using 192.168.0.1 in my queries). However, when performing this same query as a subquery, in the following manner, it doesn't yield the result I would expect: SELECT event.id, event.event_name, (SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE event.ip_address >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1) as provider FROM events Instead the a different (incorrect) value for network_provider is returned - over 90% (but curiously not all) values returned in the provider column contain the wrong provider information for that IP. Using event.ip_address in a subquery just to echo out the value confirms it contains the value I'd expect and that the subquery can parse it. Replacing event.ip_address with an actual network number also works, just using it dynamically in the subquery in this manner that doesn't work for me. I suspect the problem is there is something fundamental and important about subqueries in MySQL that I don't get. I've worked with IP addresses like this in MySQL quite a bit before, but haven't previously done lookups for them using a subquery. The question: I'd really appreciate an example of how I could get the output I want, and if someone here knows, some enlightenment as to why what I'm doing doesn't work so I can avoid making this mistake again. Notes: The actual real-world usage I'm trying to do is considerably more complicated (involving joining two or three tables). This is a simplified version, to avoid overly complicating the question. Additionally, I know I'm not using a between on ip_start & ip_end - that's intentional (the DB's can be out of date, and such cases the owner in the DB is almost always in the next specified range and 'best guess' is fine in this context) however I'm grateful for any suggestions for improvement that relate to the question. Efficiency is always nice, but in this case absolutely not essential - any help appreciated.

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  • Using empty row as default in a ComboBox with Style "DropDownList"?

    - by Pesche Helfer
    Hi board I am trying to write a method, that takes a ComboBox, a DataTable and a TextBox as arguments. The purpose of it is to filter the members displayed in the ComboBox according to the TextBox.Text. The DataTable contains the entire list of possible entries that will then be filtered. For filtering, I create a DataView of the DataTable, add a RowFilter and then bind this View to the ComboBox as DataSource. To prevent the user from typing into the ComboBox, I choose the DropDownStyle DropDownList. That’s working fine so far, except that the user should also be able to choose nothing / empty line. In fact, this should be the default member to be displayed (to prevent choosing a wrong member by accident, if the user clicks through the dialog too fast). I tried to solve this problem by adding a new Row to the view. While this works for some cases, the main issue here is that any DataTable can be passed to the method. If the DataTable contains columns that cannot be null and don’t contain a default value, I suppose I will raise an error by adding an empty row. A possibility would be to create a view that contains only the column that is defined as DisplayMember, and the one that is defined as ValueMember. Alas, this can’t be done with a view in C#. I would like to avoid creating a true copy of the DataTable at all cost, since who knows how big it will get with time. Do you have any suggestions how to get around this problem? Instead of a view, could I create an object containing two members and assign the DisplayMember and the ValueMember to these members? Would the members be passed as reference (what I hope) or would true copied be created (in which case it would not be a solution)? Thank you very much for your help! Best regards public static void ComboFilter(ComboBox cb, DataTable dtSource, TextBox filterTextBox) { cb.DropDownStyle = ComboBoxStyle.DropDownList; string displayMember = cb.DisplayMember; DataView filterView = new DataView(dtSource); filterView.AddNew(); filterView.RowFilter = displayMember + " LIKE '%" + filterTextBox.Text + "%'"; cb.DataSource = filterView; }

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