Search Results

Search found 2589 results on 104 pages for 'ef es'.

Page 84/104 | < Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >

  • Building vs buying a server for an academic lab [closed]

    - by Roy
    I'm looking for advice on the classic build vs buy question. We need a new linux server to run Matlab computation on in our lab (academic). Matlab parallel computing toolbox licence allows up to 12 local workers so we are aiming at a 12 core server with 4GB memory per core (total of 48gb). The system will have an SSD for the OS and a raid-5 (4x2tb) for data. I looked around and found a (relatively) cheap vendor, Silicon Mechanics, that offers a system to our liking (specs below) for $6732. However, buying the components from newegg cost only $4464! The difference is $2268 which is 50% of the base cost. If buying from a company can be thought of as a sort of insurance, basically my premiums are of 50% of the base cost which to me sounds like a lot. Of course any downtime is bad, but the work is not "mission critical", i.e. if it takes a few days to fix it when it breaks its no the end of the world. If it takes weeks to months then its a problem. If it breaks 2-3 times in 3 years, not too bad. If it breaks every month not good. In term of build experience, I set up a linux cluster in grad school (from existing computers) and I build my home pcs but I never built a server before. The server components I'm thinking about: 1 x SUPERMICRO SYS-7046T-6F 4U Tower Server Barebone Dual LGA 1366 Intel 5520 DDR3 1333/1066/800 ($1,050) 12 x Kingston 4GB 240-Pin DDR3 SDRAM DDR3 1333 (PC3 10600) ECC Unbuffered Server Memory ($420) 2 x Intel Xeon E5645 Westmere-EP 2.4GHz LGA 1366 80W Six-Core ($1,116) 4 x Seagate Constellation ES 2TB 7200 RPM SATA 6.0Gb/s 3.5" ($1,040) 1 x SAMSUNG Internal DVD Writer Black SATA ($20) 1 x Intel 520 Series 2.5" 180GB SATA III MLC SSD $300 1 x LSI LSI00281 PCI-Express 2.0 x8 MD2 Low profile SATA / SAS MegaRAID SAS 9260CV-4i Controller Card, $695

    Read the article

  • How Does EoR Design Work with Multi-tiered Data Center Topology

    - by S.C.
    I just did a ton of reading about the different multi-tier network topology options as outlined by Cisco, and now that I'm looking at the physical options (End of Row (EoR) vs Top of Rack(ToR)), I find myself confused about how these fit into the logical constructs. With ToR it also maps 1:1: at the top of each rack there is a switch(es) that essentially act as the access layer. They connect via fiber to other switches, maybe chassis-based, that act as the aggregation layer, that then connect to the core layer. With EoR it seems that the servers are connecting directly to the aggregation layer, skipping the access layer all together, by plugging directly into what are typically chassis switches. In EoR then is the standard 3-tier model now a 2-tier model: the servers go to the chassis switch which goes straight to the core switch? The reason it matters to me is that my understanding was that the 3-tier model was more desirable due to less complexity. The agg switch pair acts as default gateway and does routing; if you use up all of your ports in your agg layer pair it's much more complicated to add additional switches, than simply adding more switches at the access layer. Are there other downsides to this layout? Does this 3-tier architecture still apply in some way in EoR? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Liked Arch Linux - but I am still not sure if its the right distro for me...

    - by BlackAndGold
    As the title says... I used Arch Linux for a while and liked it a lot: leightweight, sleek, fast and well documented with a great community. However I had to format my hd and for the sake of being too lazy to reinstall arch, I used windows 7 exclusively for a while. Now I want to get back to linux again (still dual boot), mainly for web development purposes and using handy tools such as rsync ect. Again, I liked Arch, but there is too much tweeking, too much reading up and too much figuring out what to do as well es some bad suprises especially when you need them the least and when just quickly want to get some work done. I kind of would like to have a little more "out of the box" distro that is still fast and somewhat leighweight and of course reliable. I actually considered Ubuntu, which I am not too big of a fan of, but I will still give the minimal install a shot. However other distros seem interesting as well, such as crunchbang and mint debian ecpecially. My question, hoping this isn't too boring for many you, what is the right distro for me?

    Read the article

  • OpenVPN-based VPN server on same system it's "protecting": feasible?

    - by Johnny Utahh
    Scenario: hosted machine (typically a VPS) serving wiki, svn, git, forums, email lists (eg: GNU mailman), Bugzilla (etc) privately to < 20 people. People not on team not allowed access. Seeking VPN-restricted access to said server. Have good user experience with OpenVPN-based servers/clients, but have yet to server-admin such systems. Otherwise, experienced Linux sysadmin. Target system: Ubuntu, probably 12.04. Seeking to put an OpenVPN process on above server to "protect" all the above-mentioned services, enabling only OpenVPN-authorized clients/processes to access above services. (Can easily acquire additional IP address(es) as needed for this setup.) Option: if absolutely needed, can employ an additional, dedicated, "VPN server" VPS simply to be my VPN server "front end." But prefer to have all server processes (VPN server plus other server apps) all running on same machine, if possible. Will consider further if dedicated-VPN-machine setup enables 1. easier installation/administration, 2. better/easier end-user experience, and/or 3. makes system significantly more secure. Any of above feasible? The main intention: create a VPN from purely-hosted resources, and not spend all the effort to make a non-VPN, secure site--which typically means "SSL wrapping" + all the continual webserver-application-update management. Let the VPN server deal with access security, and spend list time pushing said security "down" in the other apps/Apache.

    Read the article

  • Apache displays error page half way through PHP page execution

    - by Shep
    I've just installed Zend Server Community Edition on a Windows Server 2003 box, however there's a bit of a problem with the display of a lot of our PHP pages. The code has previously running under the same version of PHP (5.3) on IIS without any issues. By the looks of things, Apache (installed as part of Zend Server) is erroring out during the rendering of the page when it comes across something it doesn't like in the PHP. Going through the code, I've been able to get past some of the problems by removing the error suppression operator (@) from function calls and by changing the format of some includes. However, I can't do this for the whole site! Weirdly, the error code is reported as "200 OK". The code snippet below shows how the Apache error HTML interrupts the regular HTML of the page. <p>Ma quande lingues coalesce, li grammatica del resultant lingue es plu simplic e regulari quam ti del coalescent lingues.</<!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//IETF//DTD HTML 2.0//EN"> <html><head> <title>200 OK</title> </head><body> <h1>OK</h1> <p>The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request.</p> <p>Please contact the server administrator, [email protected] and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error.</p> <p>More information about this error may be available in the server error log The Apache error log doesn't offer any explanation for this, and I've exhausted my Googling skills, so any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • nginx redirect what is not coming from load balancing

    - by dawez
    I have nginx on SERVER1 that is acting as load balancing between SERVER1 and SERVER2 in SERVER1 I have the upstreams for the load balancing defined as : upstream de.server.com { # similar upstreams defined also for other languages # SELF SERVER1 server 127.0.0.1:8082 weight=3 max_fails=3 fail_timeout=2; # other SERVER2 server otherserverip:8082 max_fails=3 fail_timeout=2; } The load balancing config on SERVER1 is this one: server { listen 80; server_name ~^(?<LANG>de|es|fr)\.server\.com; location / { proxy_pass http://$LANG.server.com; proxy_set_header Host $host; proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; proxy_set_header X-Forwarded-For $proxy_add_x_forwarded_for; # trying to pass a variable in the header to SERVER2 proxy_set_header Is-From-Load-Balancer 1; } } Then in server 2 I have: server { listen 8082; server_name localhost; root /var/www/server.com/public; # test output values add_header testloadbalancer $http_is_from_load_balancer; add_header testloadbalancer2 not_load_bal; ## other stuff here to process the request } I can see the "testloadbalancer" in the response header is set to 1 when the request is coming from the load balancing, it is not present when from a direct access: SERVER2:8082 . I would like to bounce back to the SERVER1 all the direct requests that are sent to SERVER2, but keep the ones from the load balancing. So this should forbid direct access to SERVER2:8082 and redirect to SERVER1:80 .

    Read the article

  • Attempting to emulate Apache MultiViews with Nginx try_files

    - by Samuel Bierwagen
    I want a request to http://example.com/foobar to return http://example.com/foobar.jpg. (Or .gif, .html, .whatever) This is trivial to do with Apache MultiViews, and it seems like it would be equally easy in Nginx. This question seems to imply that it'd be easy as try_files $uri $uri/ index.php; in the location block, but that doesn't work. try_files $uri $uri/ =404; doesn't work, nor does try_files $uri =404; or try_files $uri.* =404; Moving it between my location / { block and the regexp which matches images has no effect. Crucially, try_files $uri.jpg =404; does work, but only for .jpg files, and it throws a configuration error if I use more than one try_files rule in a location block! The current server { block: server { listen 80; server_name example.org www.example.org; access_log /var/log/nginx/vhosts.access.log; root /srv/www/vhosts/example; location / { root /srv/www/vhosts/example; } location ~* \.(?:ico|css|js|gif|jpe?g|es|png)$ { expires max; add_header Cache-Control public; try_files $uri =404; } } Nginx version is 1.1.14.

    Read the article

  • SBS 2008 R2: Did something change with anonymous relays?

    - by gravyface
    Have noticed that prior documentation on setting up anonymous relays in SBS 2008 no longer work without some additional configuration. Used to be able to follow this documentation, which is basically: setup a new receive connector add the IP address(es) that will be permitted to relay check off "anonymous" under Permission Group and then run the Exchange shell script to grant permissions. Now what seems to be happening is that if the permitted IP address happens to fall within the same address space as another more restrictive Receive Connector (like the "Default SBS08" one) and possibly if it's ahead of the new Receive Connector alphabetically (haven't tested that yet), the relay attempt fails with "Client Was Not Authenticated" error. To get it to work, I had to modify the scope of the "Default SBS08" Receive Connector to exclude the one LAN IP that I wanted to allow relaying for. I can't recall ever having to do this for Exchange 2007 Standard and/or any other SBS 2008 servers I've setup over the last couple of years and I don't remember doing this and the wiki entry I added at the office doesn't mention it either. So my question is, has anyone else experienced this? Has there been a new change with R2 or perhaps an Exchange Service Pack?

    Read the article

  • In Outlook 2007 Rules and Alerts, EXACTLY what does "my name" mean?

    - by Cornan The Iowan
    I can't find any definition of "my name" in the Outlook 2007 Rules and Alerts or on the Internet. In this case our email system presents two email addresses for me to the outside world. I'd like BOTH of these addresses to be recognized as being "me". I thought that perhaps if I understood the definition of "my name" in the rules, I could set up my mailbox(es) appropriately. Of course if "my name" actually means a single email address, then I won't be able to do so, but if it means "any email on my account" or "any account meeting [some criteria]", then I might be successful. I'd like to note a subtlety in the rules definitions. While there is a rule named "where my name is in the To or Cc box", the only rule for explicit addresses is "sent to people or distribution list" (I'm assuming that "sent to" means "in the To:" list rather than "in the To: or cc: lists"). Summing up. My preference: 1) Understanding the precise definition of "my name" so that I can use "where my name is in the To or Cc box" to capture both email addresses from my account. 2) Learning the "sent to people or distribution list" actually includes Cc: entries (I can test this myself of course) 3) Any other solution that will let me define a rule where my secondary email address will be detected in EITHER the To: or Cc: boxes.

    Read the article

  • Can mod-rewrite be used to set environmental variables?

    - by VLostBoy
    Hi, I've got an existing simple rewrite rule like so: <Directory /path> RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / # if the requested resource does not exist RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # route the uri to a front controller RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] </Directory> This works fine, but I want to do one of either two things. On the basis of detecting the clients accept-language header, I want to either (i) Set the detected language as an environmental variable that the script can use or (ii)Rewrite the request so that the url begins with the language code (e.g. www.example.com/en/some/resource) In terms of implementing (i), I defined this rule: <Directory /path> RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / # if the requested resource does not exist RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # if the users preferred language is supported... RewriteCond %{HTTP:Accept-Language} ^.*(de|es|fr|it|ja|ru|en).*$ [NC] # define an environmental variable PREFER_LANG RewriteRule ^(.*)$ - [env=PREFER_LANG:%1] # route the uri to a front controller RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] </Directory> I've tried a few variations, but PREFER_LANG is not defined in $_SERVER nor retrievable by getenv. In terms of implementing (ii)... lets just say its messy. I'll post it if I can't get an answer to one. Can anyone advise me? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Portforwarding Combine Several Ports

    - by kiraitachi
    Hi I got a Raspberry Pi at A.A.A.B in my local network and I have set up a DMZ on my router so that any incoming traffic that comes to my router gets redirected to my raspberry pi wich I can connect via NO-IP adress. The problem is that I want to set up portforwarding since i got several services running on my Pi like SSH, torrent webgui, webalbum, etc. I had this already done before long time ago, but I forgot a bit the syntax and cant get to set it up. Router Help says: The Application allows you to do port forwarding, but only have the ports open when data flowing out of the trigger ports. When a program sends data out on outgoing ports called trigger ports, the device then allows incoming data on the open ports specified in your port triggering configuration. 1.Trigger Port Start Trigger Port Start Specify the start port on the device that would trigger the device to open ports for incoming data. 2.Trigger Port End Specify the end port on the device that would trigger the device to open ports for incoming data. You can enter a port number the same as the trigger port start or enter a larger port number to specify a port range. 3.Trigger Traffic Protocol Type Select the trigger traffic type. Open Port Specify all the ports to be opened. It's content could be: A single port only. A port range only. Start open port number and end port number should be separated by "-" . Combined several single port and several port ranges. Each single port or port range should be separated by "," . Open Traffic Protocol Type Select the open traffic type. This are the fields: http://es.tinypic.com/view.php?pic=n5lv1k&s=8 I think this is the syntax 1-7999,8001-9090,9092-65535. But each time I want to add it gives me an error. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Multitenancy in SQL Azure

    - by cibrax
    If you are building a SaaS application in Windows Azure that relies on SQL Azure, it’s probably that you will need to support multiple tenants at database level. This is short overview of the different approaches you can use for support that scenario, A different database per tenant A new database is created and assigned when a tenant is provisioned. Pros Complete isolation between tenants. All the data for a tenant lives in a database only he can access. Cons It’s not cost effective. SQL Azure databases are not cheap, and the minimum size for a database is 1GB.  You might be paying for storage that you don’t really use. A different connection pool is required per database. Updates must be replicated across all the databases You need multiple backup strategies across all the databases Multiple schemas in a database shared by all the tenants A single database is shared among all the tenants, but every tenant is assigned to a different schema and database user. Pros You only pay for a single database. Data is isolated at database level. If the credentials for one tenant is compromised, the rest of the data for the other tenants is not. Cons You need to replicate all the database objects in every schema, so the number of objects can increase indefinitely. Updates must be replicated across all the schemas. The connection pool for the database must maintain a different connection per tenant (or set of credentials) A different user is required per tenant, which is stored at server level. You have to backup that user independently. Centralizing the database access with store procedures in a database shared by all the tenants A single database is shared among all the tenants, but nobody can read the data directly from the tables. All the data operations are performed through store procedures that centralize the access to the tenant data. The store procedures contain some logic to map the database user to an specific tenant. Pros You only pay for a single database. You only have a set of objects to maintain and backup. Cons There is no real isolation. All the data for the different tenants is shared in the same tables. You can not use traditional ORM like EF code first for consuming the data. A different user is required per tenant, which is stored at server level. You have to backup that user independently. SQL Federations A single database is shared among all the tenants, but a different federation is used per tenant. A federation in few words, it’s a mechanism for horizontal scaling in SQL Azure, which basically uses the idea of logical partitions to distribute data based on certain criteria. Pros You only have a single database with multiple federations. You can use filtering in the connections to pick the right federation, so any ORM could be used to consume the data. Cons There is no real isolation at that database level. The isolation is enforced programmatically with federations.

    Read the article

  • .htaccess redirect working on localhost but not on server

    - by Thread7
    I want users who hit my web site's root directory to be sent to a subdirectory. So anyone going to: http://MyDomain.com or /index.php would be sent to http://MyDomain.com/subdir I used the .htaccess file to successfully do this on my local machine (with Apache 2). But it doesn't work on the server? Users still see the default index.php in the root directory. Here is my simple .htaccess file. Any ideas? RewriteEngine On Redirect /index.php http://MyDomain.com/subdir/ Now my httpd.conf file AccessFileName .htaccess <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/icons"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <IfModule mod_negotiation.c> <IfModule mod_include.c> <Directory "/var/www/error"> AllowOverride None Options IncludesNoExec AddOutputFilter Includes html AddHandler type-map var Order allow,deny Allow from all LanguagePriority en es de fr ForceLanguagePriority Prefer Fallback </Directory> </IfModule> </IfModule>

    Read the article

  • RIA Services EntitySet does not support 'Edit' opperation

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hello everbody! Making my first steps in RIA Services (VS2010Beta2) and i encountered this problem: created an EF Model (no POCOs), generic repository on top of it and a RIA Service(hosted in an ASP.NET MVC application) and tryed to get data from within the ASP.NET MVC application: worked well. Next step: Silverlight client. Got a reference to the RIAService (through its context), queried for all the records of the repository and got them into the SL application as well (using this code sample): private ObservableCollection<Culture> _cultures = new ObservableCollection<Culture>(); public ObservableCollection<Culture> cultures { get { return _cultures; } set { _cultures = value; RaisePropertyChanged("cultures"); } } .... //Get cultures EntityQuery<Culture> queryCultures = from cu in dsCtxt.GetAllCulturesQuery() select cu; loCultures = dsCtxt.Load(queryCultures); loCultures.Completed += new EventHandler(lo_Completed); .... void loAnyCulture_Completed(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObservableCollection<Culture> temp= new ObservableCollection<Culture>loAnyCulture.Entities); AnyCulture = temp[0]; } The problem is this: whenever i try to edit some data of a record (in this example the first record) i get this error: This EntitySet of type 'Culture' does not support the 'Edit' operation. I thought that i did something weird and tryed to create an object of type Culture and assign a value to it: it worked well! What am i missing? Do i have to declare an EntitySet? Do i have to mark it? Do i have to...what? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Forbidden Patterns Check-In Policy in TFS 2010

    - by Jaxidian
    I've been trying to use the Forbidden Patterns part of the TFS 2010 Power Tools and I'm just not understanding something - I simply cannot get anything to change as I try to use this! I'm using the version that was released recently (I believe April 23, 2010), so it's not an old version. First off, yes, I know it's regex based, so let's clear that doubt... I have tried to block the following scenarios: 1) I have modified all of my T4 EF templates to generate files named EntityName.gen.cs. I then attempted to prevent TFS from wanting to check those files in. I used the regular expression \.gen\.cs\z and it didn't change a single thing! I even tried it without the \z and nadda! 2) I don't want app.config and web.config files to be checked-in by default because we have these things stored into app.config.base and web.config.base files that our build scripts use to generate our per-environment app.config and web.config files. As such, I tried the following regexes and again, nothing worked! web\.config\z, app\.config\z, web\.release\.config\z and web\.debug\.config\z. What is it that I am screwing up with this?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework with MySQL - Timeout Expired while Generating Model

    - by Nathan Taylor
    I've constructed a database in MySQL and I am attempting to map it out with Entity Framework, but I start running into "GenerateSSDLException"s whenever I try to add more than about 20 tables to the EF context. An exception of type 'Microsoft.Data.Entity.Design.VisualStudio.ModelWizard.Engine.ModelBuilderEngine+GenerateSSDLException' occurred while attempting to update from the database. The exception message is: 'An error occurred while executing the command definition. See the inner exception for details.' Fatal error encountered during command execution. Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. There's nothing special about the affected tables, and it's never the same table(s), it's just that after a certain (unspecific) number of tables have been added, the context can no longer be updated without the "Timeout expired" error. Sometimes it's only one table left over, and sometimes it's three; results are pretty unpredictable. Furthermore, the variance in the number of tables which can be added before the error indicates to me that perhaps the problem lies in the size of the query being generated to update the context which includes both the existing table definitions, and also the new tables that are being added to it. Essentially, the SQL query is getting too large and it's failing to execute for some reason. If I generate the model with EdmGen2 it works without any errors, but the generated EDMX file cannot be updated within Visual Studio without producing the aforementioned exception. In all likelihood the source of this problem lies in the tool within Visual Studio given that EdmGen2 works fine, but I'm hoping that perhaps others could offer some advice on how to approach this very unique issue, because it seems like I'm not the only person experiencing it. One suggestion a colleague offered was maintaining two separate EBMX files with some table crossover, but that seems like a pretty ugly fix in my opinion. I suppose this is what I get for trying to use "new technology". :(

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework + AutoMapper ( Entity to DTO and DTO to Entity )

    - by vbobruisk
    Hello. i got some problems using EF with AutoMapper. =/ for example : i got 2 related entities ( Customers and Orders ) and theyr DTO classes : class CustomerDTO { public string CustomerID {get;set;} public string CustomerName {get;set;} public IList< OrderDTO Orders {get;set;} } class OrderDTO { public string OrderID {get;set;} public string OrderDetails {get;set;} public CustomerDTO Customers {get;set;} } //when mapping Entity to DTO the code works Customers cust = getCustomer(id); Mapper.CreateMap< Customers, CustomerDTO (); Mapper.CreateMap< Orders, OrderDTO (); CustomerDTO custDTO = Mapper.Map(cust); //but when i try to map back from DTO to Entity it fails with AutoMapperMappingException. Mapper.Reset(); Mapper.CreateMap< CustomerDTO , Customers (); Mapper.CreateMap< OrderDTO , Orders (); Customers customerModel = Mapper.Map< CustomerDTO ,Customers (custDTO); // exception is thrown here Am i doeing something wrong ? Thanks in Advance !

    Read the article

  • Tracking changes in Entity Framework 4.0 using POCO Dynamic Proxies across multiple data contexts.

    - by Rob Packwood
    I started messing with EF 4.0 because I am curious about the POCO possibilities... I wanted to simulate disconnected web environment and wrote the following code to simulate this: Save a test object in the database. Retrieve the test object Dispose of the DataContext associated with the test object I used to retrieve it Update the test object Create a new data context and persist the changes on the test object that are automatically tracked within the DynamicProxy generated against my POCO object. The problem is that when I call dataContext.SaveChanges in the Test method above, the updates are not applied. The testStore entity shows a status of "Modified" when I check its EntityStateTracker, but it is no longer modified when I view it within the new dataContext's Stores property. I would have thought that calling the Attach method on the new dataContext would also bring the object's "Modified" state over, but that appears to not be the case. Is there something I am missing? I am definitely working with self-tracking POCOs using DynamicProxies. private static void SaveTestStore(string storeName = "TestStore") { using (var context = new DataContext()) { Store newStore = context.Stores.CreateObject(); newStore.Name = storeName; context.Stores.AddObject(newStore); context.SaveChanges(); } } private static Store GetStore(string storeName = "TestStore") { using (var context = new DataContext()) { return (from store in context.Stores where store.Name == storeName select store).SingleOrDefault(); } } [Test] public void Test_Store_Update_Using_Different_DataContext() { SaveTestStore(); Store testStore = GetStore(); testStore.Name = "Updated"; using (var dataContext = new DataContext()) { dataContext.Stores.Attach(testStore); dataContext.SaveChanges(SaveOptions.DetectChangesBeforeSave); } Store updatedStore = GetStore("Updated"); Assert.IsNotNull(updatedStore); }

    Read the article

  • MVC2 client/server validation of DateTime/Date using DataAnnotations

    - by Thomas
    The following are true: One of my columns (BirthDate) is of type Date in SQL Server. This very same column (BirthDate) is of type DateTime when EF generates the model. I am using JQuery UI Datepicker on the client side to be able to select the BirthDate. I have the following validation logic in my buddy class: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Required")] [RegularExpression(@"\b(0?[1-9]|1[012])[/](0?[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])[/](19|20)?[0-9]{2}\b", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Project.Web.ValidationMessages), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Invalid")] public virtual DateTime? BirthDate { get; set; } There are two issues with this: This will not pass server side validation (if I enable client side validation it works just fine). I am assuming that this is because the regular expression doesn't take into account hours, minutes, seconds as the value in the text box has already been cast as a DateTime on the server by the time validation occurs. If data already exists in the database and is read into the model and displayed on the page the BirthDate field shows hours, minutes, seconds in my text box (which I don't want). I can always use ToShortDateString() but I am wondering if there is some cleaner approach that I might be missing. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Autonumber with Entity Framework

    - by dcompiled
    I want to loop through a collection of objects and add them all to a table. The destination table has an auto-increment field. If I add a single object there is no problem. If I add two objects both with the primary key of zero, the entity framework fails. I can manually specify primary keys but the whole point of trying the EF was to make life easier not more complicated. Here is the code and the exception received follows. foreach (Contact contact in contacts) { Instructor instructor = InstructorFromContact(contact); context.AddToInstructors(instructor); } try { context.SaveChanges(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } System.InvalidOperationException: The changes to the database were committed successfully, but an error occurred while updating the object context. The ObjectContext might be in an inconsistent state. Inner exception message: AcceptChanges cannot continue because the object's key values conflict with another object in the ObjectStateManager. Make sure that the key values are unique before calling AcceptChanges. at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(SaveOptions options) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.SaveChanges() at DataMigration.Program.CopyInstructors() in C:\Projects\DataMigration\Program.cs:line 52

    Read the article

  • Defining reliable SIlverlight 4 architecture

    - by doteneter
    Hello everybody, It's my first question on SO. I know that there were many topics on Silverlight and architecture but didn't find answers that satisfies me. I'm ASP.NET MVC developer and are used to work on architectures built with the best practices (loose coupling with DI, etc.) Now I'm faced to the new Silverlight 4 project and would like to be sure I'm doing the best choices as I'm not experienced. Main features required by the applications are as follows : use existing SQL Server Database but with possibility to move to the cloud. using EF4 for the data acess with SQL Server. exitensibility : adding new modules without changing the main host. loose coupling. I was looking at different webcasts (Taulty, etc.), blogs about Silverlight and came up with the following architecture. EF 4 for data access (as specified with the requirements) WCF RIA Services for mid-tiers controling access to data for queries and enabling end-to-end support for data validation, authentication and roles. MEF Support for enabling modules. Unity 2.0 for DI. The problem is that I don't know how to define a reliable architecture where all these elements play well together. Should I use a framework instead like Prism or Caliburn? But for now I'm not sure what scenarios they support. What's the best usages for Unity in Silverlight ? I used to use IoC in ASP.NET MVC for loos coupling and other things like interception for audit logging. It seems that for Silverlight Unity doesn't support Interception. I would like to use it to enable loose coupling and to enable to move to the cloud if needed. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • EF4 querying from parent to grandchildren

    - by Hans Kesting
    I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select all data of it's grandchildren. That's a lot of separate queries! Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing methods I need, like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the navigation property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

    Read the article

  • Best practice for structuring a new large ASP.NET MVC2 plus EF4 VS2010 solution?

    - by Nick
    Hi, we are building a new web application using Microsoft ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework 4. Although I am sure there is not one right answer to my question, we are struggling to agree a VS2010 solution structure. The application will use SQL Server 2008 with a possible future Azure cloud version. We are using EF4 with T4 POCOs (model-first) and accessing a number of third-party web-services. We will also be connecting to a number of external messaging systems. UI is based on standard ASP.NET (MVC) with jQuery. In future we may deliver a Silverlight/WPF version - as well as mobile. So put simply, we start with a VS2010 blank solution - then what? I have suggested 4 folders Data (the EF edmx file etc), Domain (entities, repositories), Services (web-services access), Presentation (web ui etc). However under Presentation, creating the ASP.NET MVC2 project obviously creates it's own Models folder etc and it just doesn't seem to fit too well in this proposed structure. I'm also missing a business layer (or does this sit in the domain?). Again I am sure there is no one right way to do it, but I'd really appreciate your views on this. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using Entity Framework with an SQL Compact Private Installation

    - by David Veeneman
    I am using Entity Framework 4 in a desktop application with SQL Compact. I want to use a private installation of SQL Compact with my application, so that my installer can install SQL Compact without giving the user a second installation to do. It also avoids versioning hassles down the road. My development machine has SQL Compact 3.5 SP1 installed as a public installation, so my app runs fine there, as one would expect. But it's not running on my test machine, which does not have SQL Compact installed. I get this error: The specified store provider cannot be found in the configuration, or is not valid. I know some people have had difficulty with SQL Compact private installations, but I have used them for a while, and I really like them. Unfortunately, my regular private installation approach isn't working. I have checked the version numbers on my SQL CE files, and they are all 3.8.8078.0, which is the SP2 RC version. Here are the files I have included in my private installation: sqlcecompact35.dll sqlceer35EN.dll sqlceme35.dll sqlceqp35.dll sqlcese35.dll System.Data.SqlServerCe.dll System.Data.SqlServerCe.Entity.dll I have added a reference to System.Data.SqlServerCe to my project, and I have verified that all of the files listed above are being copied to the application folder on the installation machine. Here is the code I use to configure an EntityConnectionStringBuilder when I open a SQL Compact file: var sqlCompactConnectionString = string.Format("Data Source={0}", filePath); // Set Builder properties builder.Metadata = string.Format("res://*/{0}.csdl|res://*/{0}.ssdl|res://*/{0}.msl", edmName); builder.Provider = "System.Data.SqlServerCe.3.5"; builder.ProviderConnectionString = sqlCompactConnectionString; var edmConnectionString = builder.ToString(); Am I missing a file? Am I missing a configuration stepp needed to tell Entity Framework where to find my SQL Compact DLLs? Any other suggestions why EF isn't finding my SQL Compact DLLs on the installation machine? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • mvvm - prismv2 - INotifyPropertyChanged

    - by depictureboy
    Since this is so long and prolapsed and really doesnt ask a coherent question: 1: what is the proper way to implement subproperties of a primary object in a viewmodel? 2: Has anyone found a way to fix the delegatecommand.RaiseCanExecuteChanged issue? or do I need to fix it myself until MS does? For the rest of the story...continue on. In my viewmodel i have a doctor object property that is tied to my Model.Doctor, which is an EF POCO object. I have onPropertyChanged("Doctor") in the setter as such: Private Property Doctor() As Model.Doctor Get Return _objDoctor End Get Set(ByVal Value As Model.Doctor) _objDoctor = Value OnPropertyChanged("Doctor") End Set End Property The only time OnPropertyChanged fires if the WHOLE object changes. This wouldnt be a problem except that I need to know when the properties of doctor changes, so that I can enable other controls on my form(save button for example). I have tried to implement it in this way: Public Property FirstName() As String Get Return _objDoctor.FirstName End Get Set(ByVal Value As String) _objDoctor.FirstName = Value OnPropertyChanged("Doctor") End Set End Property this is taken from the XAMLPowerToys controls from Karl Shifflet, so i have to assume that its correct. But for the life of me I cant get it to work. I have included PRISM in here because I am using a unity container to instantiate my view and it IS a singleton. I am getting change notification to the viewmodel via eventaggregator that then populates Doctor with the new value. The reason I am doing all this is because of PRISM's DelegateCommand. So maybe that is my real issue. It appears that there is a bug in DelegateCommand that does not fire the RaiseCanExecuteChanged method on the commands that implement it and therefore needs to be fired manually. I have the code for that in my onPropertyChangedEventHandler. Of course this isnt implemented through the ICommand interface either so I have to break and make my properties DelegateCommand(of X) so that I have access to RaiseCanExecuteChanged of each command.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >