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• Agile language for 2d game prototypes?

  - by instanceofTom

  Occasionally ( read: when my fiancé allows ) I like to prototype different game or game-like ideas I have. Usually I use Java or C# (not xna yet) because they are the languages I have the most practice with. However I would like to learn something more suited to agile development; a language in which it would be easier to knock out quick prototypes. At my job I have recently been working with looser (weak/dynamically typed) languages, specifically python and groovy, and I think something similar would fit what I am looking for. So, my question is: What languages (and framework/engine) would be good for rapidly developing prototypes of 2d game concepts? A few notes: I don't need blazing fast bitcrunching performance. In this case I would strongly prefer ease of development over performance. I'd like to use a language with a healthy community, which to me means a fair amount of maintained 3rd party, libraries. I'd like the language to be cross-platform friendly, I work on a variety of different operating systems and would like something that is portable with minimum effort. I can't imagine myself using a language with out decent options for debugging and editor syntax highlighting support. Note: If you are aware of a Java or C# library/framework that you think streamlines producing game prototypes I open to learning something new for those languages too

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• confused about how to use JSON in C#

  - by Josh

  The answer to just about every single question about using C# with json seems to be "use JSON.NET" but that's not the answer I'm looking for. the reason I say that is, from everything I've been able to read in the documentation, JSON.NET is basically just a better performing version of the DataContractSerializer built into the .net framework... Which means if I want to deserialize a JSON string, I have to define the full, strongly-typed class for EVERY request I might have. so if I have a need to get categories, posts, authors, tags, etc, I have to define a new class for every one of these things. This is fine if I built the client and know exactly what the fields are, but I'm using someone else's api, so I have no idea what the contract is unless I download a sample response string and create the class manually from the JSON string. Is that the only way it's done? Is there not a way to have it create a kind of hashtable that can be read with json["propertyname"]? Finally, if I do have to build the classes myself, what happens when the API changes and they don't tell me (as twitter seems to be notorious for doing)? I'm guessing my entire project will break until I go in and update the object properties... So what exactly is the general workflow when working with JSON? And by general I mean library-agnostic. I want to know how it's done in general, not specifically to a target library... I hope that made sense, this has been a very confusing area to get into... thanks!

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• Exception calling UpdateModel - Value cannot be null or empty

  - by James Alexander

  This is probably something silly I'm missing but I'm definitely lost. I'm using .NET 4 RC and VS 2010. This is also my first attempt to use UpdateModel in .NET 4, but every time I call it, I get an exception saying Value cannont be null or empty. I've got a simple ViewModel called LogOnModel: [MetadataType(typeof(LogOnModelMD))] public class LogOnModel { public string Username { get; set; } public string Password { get; set; } public class LogOnModelMD { [StringLength(3), Required] public object Username { get; set; } [StringLength(3), Required] public object Password { get; set; } } } My view uses the new strongly typed helpers in MVC2 to generate a textbox for username and one for the password. When I look at FormCollection in my controller method, I see values for both coming through. And last but not least, here's are post controller methods: // POST: /LogOn/ [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(FormCollection form) { var lm = new LogOnModel(); UpdateModel(lm, form); var aservice = new AuthenticationService(); if (!aservice.AuthenticateLocal(lm.Username, lm.Password)) { ModelState.AddModelError("User", "The username or password submitted is invalid, please try again."); return View(lm); } return Redirect("~/Home"); } Can someone please lend some insight into why UpdateModel would be throwing this exception? Thanks!

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• Dynamically invoke web service at runtime

  - by Ulrik Rasmussen

  So, our application needs support for dynamically calling web services which are unknown at compile time. The user should therefore be able to specify a URL to a WSDL, and specify some data bindings for the request and reply parameters. When Googling for answers, it seems like the way to do this is by actually compiling a web service proxy class at runtime, loading it, and invoking the methods using reflection. I think this seems like a rather clunky approach, given that I don't really need a strongly typed set of classes when I'm going to cast my data dynamically anyway. Dynamically compiling code for doing something that simple also just seems like The Wrong Way To Do It. Restricting ourself to the SOAP protocol, is there any library for C# that implements this protocol for dynamic use? I can imagine that it would be possible to generate runtime key/value data structures from the WSDL, which could be used to specify the request messages, as well as reading the replies. The library should then be able to send well-formed SOAP messages to the server, and parse the replies, without the programmer having to generate the XML manually (at least not the headers and other plumbing). I can't seem to find any library that actually does this. Is what I want to do really that esoteric, or have I just searched the wrong places? Thanks, Ulrik

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• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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• C# Generics Question

  - by TheCloudlessSky

  Would it be possible to do something like the following in c#? Basically TParent and TChildren should be types of the class A but not necessairly have the same types that were passed in. I know this may sound confusing but I want to strongly type the children and parents of a particular object, but at the same time they must be of the same type. Because TParent inherits from A this would imply that it requires type parameters that inherit from A but using potentially different types. public class A<TParent, TChildren> where TParent : A where TControls : A { TParent Parent; List<TChildren> Children; } or more easily seen here: public class A<TParent, TChildren> where TParent : A<?, ?> where TChildren : A<?, ?> { TParent Parent; List<TChildren> Children; } I hope this isn't too confusing. Is this at all possible? Thanks :)

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• Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

  - by arrages

  In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

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• Convert long/lat to pixel x/y on a given picure.

  - by Kalinin

  I have a city "map" (for example - Moscow). She in accuracy repeats the contours the given city in google maps (that is it is copied from google maps and it is a little processed, but the sense remained the same). Also I have object co-ordinates in a city (in co-ordinates of google). Problem: how to convert google co-ordinates to the co-ordinates of my picture (that is in pixels on OX and OY on a picture). That is I receive google-co-ordinates and it is necessary for me to draw this point on my picture. The most desired variant of the answer - is based on javascript, but it is possible and on php. I know that on small scales (for example on city scales) it to make simply enough (it is necessary to learn what google-co-ordinates has one of picture corners, then to learn "price" of one pixel in google-co-ordinates on a picture on axes OX and OY separately). But on the big scales (country scale) "price" of one pixel will be not a constant, and will vary strongly enough and the method described above cannot be applied. How to solve a problem on country scales?

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• django join-like expansion of queryset

  - by jimbob

  I have a list of Persons each which have multiple fields that I usually filter what's upon, using the object_list generic view. Each person can have multiple Comments attached to them, each with a datetime and a text string. What I ultimately want to do is have the option to filter comments based on dates. class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField("Name", max_length=30) ## has ~30 other fields, usually filtered on as well class Comment(models.Model): date = models.DateTimeField() person = models.ForeignKey(Person) comment = models.TextField("Comment Text", max_length=1023) What I want to do is get a queryset like Person.objects.filter(comment__date__gt=date(2011,1,1)).order_by('comment__date') send that queryset to object_list and be able to only see the comments ordered by date with only so many objects on a page. E.g., if "Person A" has comments 12/3/11, 1/2/11, 1/5/11, "Person B" has no comments, and person C has a comment on 1/3, I would see: "Person A", 1/2 - comment "Person C", 1/3 - comment "Person A", 1/5 - comment I would strongly prefer not to have to switch to filtering based on Comments.objects.filter(), as that would make me have to largely repeat large sections of code in the both the view and template. Right now if I tried executing the following command, I will get a queryset returning (PersonA, PersonC, PersonA), but if I try rendering that in a template each persons comment_set will contain all their comments even if they aren't in the date range. Ideally they're would be some sort of functionality where I could expand out a Person queryset's comment_set into a larger queryset that can be sorted and ordered based on the comment and put into a object_list generic view. This normally is fairly simple to do in SQL with a JOIN, but I don't want to abandon the ORM, which I use everywhere else.

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• When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

  - by Ani

  I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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• Convincing why testing is good

  - by FireAphis

  Hello, In my team of real-time-embedded C/C++ developers, most people don't have any culture of testing their code beyond the casual manual sanity checks. I personally strongly believe in advantages of autonomous automatic tests, but when I try to convince I get some reappearing arguments like: We will spend more time on writing the tests than writing the code. It takes a lot of effort to maintain the tests. Our code is spaghetti; no way we can unit-test it. Our requirement are not sealed – we’ll have to rewrite all the tests every time the requirements are changed. Now, I'd gladly hear any convincing tips and advises, but what I am really looking for are references to researches, articles, books or serious surveys that show (preferably in numbers) how testing is worth the effort. Something like "We in IBM/Microsoft/Google, surveying 3475 active projects, found out that putting 50% more development time into testing decreased by 75% the time spent on fixing bugs" or "after half a year, the time needed to write code with test was only marginally longer than what used to take without tests". Any ideas? P.S.: I'm adding C++ tag too in case someone has a specific experience with convincing this, usually elitist, type of developers :-)

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• Appropriate uses of Monad `fail` vs. MonadPlus `mzero`

  - by jberryman

  This is a question that has come up several times for me in the design code, especially libraries. There seems to be some interest in it so I thought it might make a good community wiki. The fail method in Monad is considered by some to be a wart; a somewhat arbitrary addition to the class that does not come from the original category theory. But of course in the current state of things, many Monad types have logical and useful fail instances. The MonadPlus class is a sub-class of Monad that provides an mzero method which logically encapsulates the idea of failure in a monad. So a library designer who wants to write some monadic code that does some sort of failure handling can choose to make his code use the fail method in Monad or restrict his code to the MonadPlus class, just so that he can feel good about using mzero, even though he doesn't care about the monoidal combining mplus operation at all. Some discussions on this subject are in this wiki page about proposals to reform the MonadPlus class. So I guess I have one specific question: What monad instances, if any, have a natural fail method, but cannot be instances of MonadPlus because they have no logical implementation for mplus? But I'm mostly interested in a discussion about this subject. Thanks! EDIT: One final thought occured to me. I recently learned (even though it's right there in the docs for fail) that monadic "do" notation is desugared in such a way that pattern match failures, as in (x:xs) <- return [] call the monad's fail. It seems like the language designers must have been strongly influenced by the prospect of some automatic failure handling built in to haskell's syntax in their inclusion of fail in Monad.

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• Different approaches for finding users within Active Directory

  - by EvilDr

  I'm a newbie to AD programming, but after a couple of weeks of research have found the following three ways to search for users in Active Directory using the account name as the search parameter: Option 1 - FindByIdentity Dim ctx As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim u As UserPrincipal = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(ctx, IdentityType.SamAccountName, "MYDOMAIN\Administrator") If u Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn("Name=" & u.Name) Trace.Warn("DisplayName=" & u.DisplayName) Trace.Warn("DistinguishedName=" & u.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn("EmployeeId=" & u.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn("EmailAddress=" & u.EmailAddress) End If Option 2 - DirectorySearcher Dim connPath As String = "LDAP://" & Environment.MachineName Dim de As New DirectoryEntry(connPath) Dim ds As New DirectorySearcher(de) ds.Filter = String.Format("(&(objectClass=user)(anr={0}))", Split(User.Identity.Name, "\")(1)) ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("name") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("displayName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("distinguishedName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("employeeId") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail") Dim src As SearchResult = ds.FindOne() If src Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else For Each propertyKey As String In src.Properties.PropertyNames Dim valueCollection As ResultPropertyValueCollection = src.Properties(propertyKey) For Each propertyValue As Object In valueCollection Trace.Warn(propertyKey & "=" & propertyValue.ToString) Next Next End If Option 3 - PrincipalSearcher Dim ctx2 As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim sp As New UserPrincipal(ctx2) sp.SamAccountName = "MYDOMAIN\Administrator" Dim s As New PrincipalSearcher s.QueryFilter = sp Dim p2 As UserPrincipal = s.FindOne() If p2 Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn(p2.Name) Trace.Warn(p2.DisplayName) Trace.Warn(p2.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn(p2.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn(p2.EmailAddress) End If All three of these methods return the same results, but I was wondering if any particular method is better or worse than the others? Option 1 or 3 seem to be the best as they provide strongly-typed property names, but I might be wrong? My overall objective is to find a single user within AD based on the user principal value passed via the web browser when using Windows Authentication on a site (e.g. "MYDOMAIN\MyUserAccountName")

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• Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

  - by Randolpho

  The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

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• MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

  - by Morinar

  This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

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• ASP.MVC 2 Model Data Persistance

  - by toccig

  I'm and MVC1 programmer, new to the MVC2. The data will not persist to the database in an edit scenario. Create works fine. Controller: // // POST: /Attendee/Edit/5 [Authorize(Roles = "Admin")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Attendee attendee) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(attendee, "Attendee"); repository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", attendee); } else { return View(attendee); } } Model: [MetadataType(typeof(Attendee_Validation))] public partial class Attendee { } public class Attendee_Validation { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_id { get; set; } [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_pin { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "* required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_fname { get; set; } [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_mname { get; set; } } I tried to add [Bind(Exclude="attendee_id")] above the Class declaration, but then the value of the attendee_id attribute is set to '0'. View (Strongly-Typed): <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> ... <%=Html.Hidden("attendee_id", Model.attendee_id) %> ... <%=Html.SubmitButton("btnSubmit", "Save") %> <% } %> Basically, the repository.Save(); function seems to do nothing. I imagine it has something to do with a primary key constraint violation. But I'm not getting any errors from SQL Server. The application appears to runs fine, but the data is never persisted to the Database.

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• Help regarding database and logic layer for my ASP.NET MVC application

  - by Ismail S

  I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right?

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• When I try to pass large amounts of information using jquery $.ajax(post) method. it throws potenti

  - by dotnetrocks

  I am trying to create a preview window for my texteditor in my blog page. I need to send the content to the server to clean up the text entered before I can preview it on the preview window. I was trying to use $.ajax({ type: method, url: url, data: values, success: LoadPageCallback(targetID), error: function(msg) { $('#' + targetID).attr('innerHTML', 'An error has occurred. Please try again.'); } }); Whenever I tried to click on the preview button it returns an XMLHTTPRequest error. The error description - Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. The ValidateRequest for the page is set to false. Is there a way I can set validaterequest to false for the ajax call.Please advise Thank you for reading my post.

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• How to pass a Lambda Expression as method parameter with EF

  - by Registered User

  How do I pass an EF expression as a method argument? To illustrate my question I have created a pseudo code example: The first example is my method today. The example utilizes EF and a Fancy Retry Logic. What I need to do is to encapsulate the Fancy Retry Logic so that it becomes more generic and does not duplicate. In the second example is how I want it to be, with a helper method that accepts the EF expression as an argument. This would be a trivial thing to do with SQL, but I want to do it with EF so that I can benefit from the strongly typed objects. First Example: public static User GetUser(String userEmail) { using (MyEntities dataModel = new MyEntities ()) { var query = FancyRetryLogic(() => { (dataModel.Users.FirstOrDefault<User>(x => x.UserEmail == userEmail))); }); return query; } } Second Example: T RetryHelper<T>(Expression<Func<T, TValue>> expression) { using (MyEntities dataModel = new (MyEntities ()) { var query = FancyRetryLogic(() => { return dataModel.expression }); } } public User GetUser(String userEmail) { return RetryHelper<User>(<User>.FirstOrDefault<User>(x => x.UserEmail == userEmail)) }

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• Can a conforming C# compiler optimize away a local (but unused) variable if it is the only strong re

  - by stakx

  The title says it all, but let me explain: void Case_1() { var weakRef = new WeakReference(new object()); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. if (weakRef.IsAlive) ... } In this code example, I obviously have to plan for the possibility that the new'ed object is reclaimed by the garbage collector; therefore the if statement. (Note that I'm using weakRef for the sole purpose of checking if the new'ed object is still around.) void Case_2() { var unusedLocalVar = new object(); var weakRef = new WeakReference(unusedLocalVar); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. Debug.Assert(weakReferenceToUseless.IsAlive); } The main change in this code example from the previous one is that the new'ed object is strongly referenced by a local variable (unusedLocalVar). However, this variable is never used again after the weak reference (weakRef) has been created. Question: Is a conforming C# compiler allowed to optimize the first two lines of Case_2 into those of Case_1 if it sees that unusedLocalVar is only used in one place, namely as an argument to the WeakReference constructor? i.e. is there any possibility that the assertion in Case_2 could ever fail?

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• What are the interets of synthetic methods?

  - by romaintaz

  Problem One friend suggested an interesting problem. Given the following code: public class OuterClass { private String message = "Hello World"; private class InnerClass { private String getMessage() { return message; } } } From an external class, how may I print the message variable content? Of course, changing the accessibility of methods or fields is not allowed. (the source here, but it is a french blog) Solution The code to solve this problem is the following: try { Method m = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethod("access$000", OuterClass.class); OuterClass outerClass = new OuterClass(); System.out.println(m.invoke(outerClass, outerClass)); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Note that the access$000 method name is not really standard (even if this format is the one that is strongly recommanded), and some JVM will name this method access$0. Thus, a better solution is to check for synthetic methods: Method method = null; int i = 0; while ((method == null) && (i < OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods().length)) { if (OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i].isSynthetic()) { method = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i]; } i++; } if (method != null) { try { System.out.println(method.invoke(null, new OuterClass())); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } So the interesting point in this problem is to highlight the use of synthetic methods. With these methods, I can access a private field as it was done in the solution. Of course, I need to use reflection, and I think that the use of this kind of thing can be quite dangerous... Question What is the interest - for me, as a developer - of a synthetic method? What can be a good situation where using the synthetic can be useful?

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• How can I keep the the logic to translate a ViewModel's values to a Where clause to apply to a linq query out of My Controller?

  - by Mr. Manager

  This same problem keeps cropping up. I have a viewModel that doesn't have any persistent backing. It is just a ViewModel to generate a search input form. I want to build a large where clause from the values the user entered. If the Action Accepts as a parameter SearchViewModel How do I do this without passing my viewModel to my service layer? Service shouldn't know about ViewModels right? Oh and if I serialize it, then it would be a big string and the key/values would be strongly typed. SearchViewModel this is just a snippet. [Display(Name="Address")] public string AddressKeywords { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the census. /// </summary> public string Census { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the lot block sub. /// </summary> public string LotBlockSub { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the owner keywords. /// </summary> [Display(Name="Owner")] public string OwnerKeywords { get; set; } In my controller action I was thinking of something like this. but I would think all this logic doesn't belong in my Controller. ActionResult GetSearchResults(SearchViewModel model){ var query = service.GetAllParcels(); if(model.Census != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Census == model.Census); } if (model.OwnerKeywords != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Owners == model.OwnerKeywords); } return View(query.ToList()); }

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• Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

  - by pdkl95

  I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

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• integrating jquery with AJAX using MVC for ddl/html.dropdownlist

  - by needhelp

  the situation: a user on the page in question selects a category from a dropdown which then dynamically populates all the users of that category in a second dropdown beside it. all the data is being retrieved using LinqtoSQL and i was wondering if this can be done a) using html.dropdownlist in a strongly typed view? b) using jquery to trigger the ajax request on selected index change instead of a 'populate' button trigger? sorry i dont have code as what i was trying really wasnt working at all. I am having trouble with how to do it conceptually and programatically! will appreciate any links to examples etc greatly! thanks in advance! EDIT: this is kind of what i was trying to achieve.. first the ViewPage: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready function TypeSearch() { $.getJSON("/Home/Type", null, function(data) { //dont know what to do here }); } </script> <p> <label for="userType">userType:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("userType") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("userType", "*") %> <input type="submit" runat="server" onclick="TypeSearch()" /> <label for="accountNumber">accountNumber:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("accountNumber") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("accountNumber", "*") %> </p> Then home controller action: public ActionResult Type() { string accountType = dropdownvalue; List<Account> accounts = userRep.GetAccountsByType(accountType).ToList(); return Json(accounts); }

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• Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

  - by Mike

  I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

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