Search Results

Search found 2674 results on 107 pages for 'validate'.

Page 84/107 | < Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >

  • Spring MVC parameter validation

    - by Don
    Hi, I've defined a controller, validator and command class for a Spring 2.5 MVC application like this: public class ResourceController extends AbstractCommandController { private MessageRetriever messageRetriever; protected ModelAndView handle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception { ResourceCommand resourceCommand = (ResourceCommand) command; // I NEED TO CHECK HERE IF COMMAND IS VALID? } public static class ResourceCommand { private String module; private String site; private String lang; // GETTERS AND SETTERS OMITTED } public static class ResourceValidator implements Validator { public boolean supports(Class clazz) { return ResourceCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } public void validate(Object obj, Errors errors) { ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "module", "MODULE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "site", "SITE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "lang", "LANG_REQUIRED"); } } } I have wired these all together in the application context: <bean id="resourceController" class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController"> <property name="commandClass" value="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceCommand"/> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceValidator"/> </property> </bean> However, I can't figure out how to actually check whether the command is valid or not - I assume the framework calls the validator, but how do I get access to the result? Incidentally, I'm using Java 1.4, so can't use any solutions that require annotations or other Java 1.5 features. Thanks, Don

    Read the article

  • scripsharp reference web service / strongly type to results model

    - by user175528
    With scriptsharp (script#) is it possible to get strong typing when calling a service defined in my web app? The only way I can see is to: 1 - use linked / shared files to shadow copy my results classes / domain models across into my script# lib 2 - replicate my model across in the script# lib and use automapper to validate? 3 - use some .tt to code gen? also, even if I can do this, how do I get around the auto camel-casing script# does, when my service result (asmx) wont do this? (so my JSON response will comback as UserMessage, script# will have changed that to userMessage) basically, what I am looking to use script# to achieve is better compile time support against our domain model when calling and processing services in javascript, so something like this: Scriptlet public static class MyScriptlet { public static void Main() { MyService.Service1("hello", ProcessResponse);} public static void ProcessResponse(MyService.Service1ResponseData resp) { jQuery.Select('#Message').Text(resp.UserMessage); jQuery.Select('#Detail').Text(resp.UserDetail); } Service (in our web app) public class MyService { public class Service1ResponseData { public string UserMessage {get;set;} public string UserDetail {get;set;} } public Service1ResponseData Service1(string user) { return new Service1ResponseData() { UserMessage:"hi",UserDetail:"some text"}; } }

    Read the article

  • Windows-Mobile Directshow: Specifying bitrate/quality of a WMV video capture

    - by Landstander
    Hi- I'm stumped on this, and I'm really hoping someone could point me in the right direction. I'm currently capturing video in Windows Mobile and encoding it using the WMV 9 DMO (CLSID_CWMV9EncMediaObject). That all works well enough, but the output video's bitrate is too high, resulting in a video file that's much too large for my needs. Ultimately, my goal is to mimic the video settings that Microsoft's Camera Capture Dialog outputs in the "messaging" quality mode (64kbps) from my C++ code. Currently, my code's outputting a WMV file with a bitrate of 352kbps. The only example I could find of specifying the capture bitrate with a WMV9 DMO was this. The idea in that code was basically to use a propertybag to write a bitrate to a property of the DMO. Update: In windows mobile, the closest codec property I can find that seems to equate to the bitrate is "g_wszWMVCVBRQuality". Microsoft's documentation of this property is extremely confusing to me: It basically seems to say that a higher number equates to a higher quality, but it gives absolutely no explanation of the specifics for each number. When I attempt to set this property to value like "1" via a propertybag for the WMV9 DMO, I run into a -2147467259 (unknown) error. To summarize: What is the basic strategy to specify the bitrate/quality of a video being captured via directshow (wmv9) on a windows mobile platform? I've heard (or wondered about) the following methods: Use the propertybag to change the encoder DMO's property that corresponds to bitrate/quality (currently failing) Create your own custom transcoder/encoder to specify it. This seems unnecessary since the WMV encoder works well enough- it's just at too high a bitrate. The VIDEOINFOHEADER has a bitrate property, but I suspect that specifying new settings here will do nothing to alter the actual encoding process since I wouldn't think file attributes would come into play until after the encoding. Any suggestions? PS: I would post specific source code, but at this point it may confuse more than it helps since I'm floundering so much on how to do this. At this point, I'm just trying to validate the general strategy. THANKS!

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation Plugin: Invoke errorPlacement function when onfocusout, keyup and click

    - by th3hamburgler
    Hi, I am using the jquery validation plugin and want to use the errorPlacement function to add error messages to the fields title attribute and display just a ? next to the field. This works great when the form is submitted with the submit button but when any of the following events are triggered: - onfocusout - click - onkeyup The validation checks are run but it skips the errorPlacement function and adds the full error message after the field, like the default behaviour. I am using the following code: $("#send-mail").validate({ debug: true, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set text as tick label.html("&#10004;").addClass("valid"); }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { console.log("errorPlacement called for "+element.attr("name")+" field"); // check for blank/success error if(error.text() == "") { // remove field title/error message from element element.attr("title", ""); console.log("error check passed"); } else { // get error message var message = error.text(); // set as element title element.attr("title", message); // clear error html and add cross glyph error.html("&#10008;"); console.log("error check failed: "+message); } // add error label after form element error.insertAfter(element); }, ignoreTitle: true, errorClass: "invalid" });

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 64 Bit - ODBC32 - Legacy App Problem

    - by Arturo Caballero
    Good day StackOverFlowlers, I´m a little stuck (really stuck) with an issue with a legacy application on my organization. I have a Windows 7 Enterprise 64 Bit machine, Access 2000 Installed and the Legacy App (Is built with something like VB but older) The App uses System ODBC in order to connect to a SQL 2000 DataBase on a Remote Server. I created the ODCB using C:\Windows\SysWOW64\odbcad32.exe app in order to create a System DSN. I did not use the Windows 7 because it is not visible to the Legacy App. I tested the ODBC connection with Access and worked ok, I can access the remote database. Then I run the legacy App as Administrator and the App can see the ODBC, but I´m getting errors on credential validation and I´m getting this error: DIAG [08001] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. (17) DIAG [01000] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]ConnectionOpen (Connect()). (53) DIAG [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed (0) I use Trusted Connection on the ODBC in order to validate the user by Domain Controller. I think that the credentials are not being sent by the Legacy App to the ODBC, or something like that. I don´t have the source code of the Legacy App in order to debug the connection. Also, I turned off the Firewall. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to avoid saving a blank model which attributes can be blank

    - by auralbee
    Hello people, I have two models with a HABTM association, let´s say book and author. class Book has_and_belongs_to_many :authors end class Author has_and_belongs_to_many :books end The author has a set of attributes (e.g. first-name,last-name,age) that can all be blank (see validation). validates_length_of :first_name, :maximum => 255, :allow_blank => true, :allow_nil => false In the books_controller, I do the following to append all authors to a book in one step: @book = Book.new(params[:book]) @book.authors.build(params[:book][:authors].values) My question: What would be the easiest way to avoid the saving of authors which fields are all blank to prevent too much "noise" in the database? At the moment, I do the following: validate :must_have_some_data def must_have_some_data empty = true hash = self.attributes hash.delete("created_at") hash.delete("updated_at") hash.each_value do |value| empty = false if value.present? end if (empty) errors.add_to_base("Fields do not contain any data.") end end Maybe there is an more elegant, Rails-like way to do that. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC OutputCache with POST Controller Actions

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm fairly new to using the OutputCache attribute in ASP.NET MVC. Static Pages I've enabled it on static pages on my site with code such as the following: [OutputCache(Duration = 7200, VaryByParam = "None")] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { //... If I understand correctly, I made the whole controller cache for 7200 seconds (2 hours). Dynamic Pages However, how does it work with dynamic pages? By dynamic, I mean where the user has to submit a form. As an example, I have a page with an email form. Here's what that code looks like: public class ContactController : Controller { // // GET: /Contact/ public ActionResult Index() { return RedirectToAction("SubmitEmail"); } public ActionResult SubmitEmail() { //In view for CAPTCHA: <%= Html.GenerateCaptcha() %> return View(); } [CaptchaValidator] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SubmitEmail(FormCollection formValues, bool captchaValid) { //Validate form fields, send email if everything's good... if (isError) { return View(); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } } public void SendEmail(string title, string name, string email, string message) { //Send an email... } } What would happen if I applied OutputCache to the whole controller here? Would the HTTP POST form submission work? Also, my form has a CAPTCHA; would that change anything in the equation? In other words, what's the best way to approach caching with dynamic pages? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Calling blockUI and unblockUI in combination with jQuery validator plugin

    - by Tim Stewart
    I have a very complex form with the validation working correctly. However, since it can take awhile for the validation to complete, I'd like to use blockUI to be called when I click the form's submit button to prevent confusion and double-submissions. I can't quite figure out how to do this. My code looks like this: $("#credential").validate({ rules: { EngId: { required: true } ClientAccount: { required: true } ... } and I'm calling the validation with several buttons (using their click function) depending on selections in the form, often disabling some of the rules: $("#buttonname").click(function() { $("#fieldname").rules("remove"); ... $("#credential").submit(); }); What I can't figure out is where the blockui and unblockui calls would go so that when the user clicks the button, before validation starts, blockui does its magic, and if the validation finds a problem, unblockui is called and enables the form again. I'm pretty new to Jquery and I can't find any examples that I've been able to implement successfully. I would appreciate any help anyone could give (please excuse if this has been covered before).

    Read the article

  • Error when creating JFrame from JFrame

    - by Aly
    Hi, I have an application that is works fine and the JFrame for it is launched in the constructor of a GameInitializer class which takes in some config parameters. I have tried to create a GUI in which allows the user to specify these config parameters and then click submit. When the user clicks submit a new GameInitializer object is created. The error I am getting is: Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.Error: Cannot call invokeAndWait from the event dispatcher thread at java.awt.EventQueue.invokeAndWait(Unknown Source) at javax.swing.SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(Unknown Source) at game.player.humanplayer.view.HumanView.update(HumanView.java:43) once submit is called this code is executed: values assigned to parames... new GameInitializer(userName, player, Constants.BLIND_STRUCTURE_FILES.get(blindStructure), handState); Then code in the GameInitializer constructor is: public GameInitializer(String playerName, AbstractPlayer opponent, String blindStructureConfig, AbstractHandState handState){ beginGame(playerName, opponent, blindStructureConfig, handState); } public static void beginGame(String playerName, AbstractPlayer opponent, String blindStructureConfig, AbstractHandState handState){ AbstractDealer dealer; BlindStructure.initialize(blindStructureConfig); AbstractPlayer humanPlayer = new HumanPlayer(playerName, handState); AbstractPlayer[] players = new AbstractPlayer[2]; players[0] = humanPlayer; players[1] = opponent; handState.setTableLayout(players); for(AbstractPlayer player : players){ player.initialize(); } dealer = new Dealer(players, handState); dealer.beginGame(); } It basically cascades down and eventually calls this piece of code in the HumanView class: public void update(final Event event, final ReadableHandState handState, final AbstractPlayer player) { try { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { public void run() { gamePanel.update(event, handState, player); validate(); } }); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (InvocationTargetException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } if(event.equals(Event.HAND_ENDING)){ try { if(handState.wonByShowdown() || handState.isSplitPot()){ Thread.sleep(3500); } else{ Thread.sleep(1000); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Do you have any idea why?

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc client side validation; manually calling validation via javascript for ajax posts

    - by Jopache
    Under the built in client side validation (Microsoft mvc validation in mvc 2) using data annotations, when you try to submit a form and the fields are invalid, you will get the red validation summary next to the fields and the form will not post. However, I am using jquery form plugin to intercept the submit action on that form and doing the post via ajax. This is causing it to ignore validation; the red text shows up; but the form posts anyways. Is there an easy way to manually call the validation via javascript when I'm submitting the form? I am still kind of a javascript n00b. I tried googling it with no results and looking through the js source code makes my head hurt trying to figure it out. Or would you all recommend that I look in to some other validation framework? I liked the idea of jquery validate; but would like to define my validation requirements only in my viewmodel. Any experiences with xval or anything of the sort?

    Read the article

  • reference from xaml to public class in .cs class file

    - by netmajor
    I have in my WPF project file RssInfo.cs in which I have public class public class DoubleRangeRule : ValidationRule { public double Min { get; set; } public double Max { get; set; } public override System.Windows.Controls.ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ... } } and from my XAML code in WPF window class I neet to get to this DoubleRangeRule class.. //reference to my project, all my files are in the WpfCzytanieRSS namespace xmlns:valRule="clr-namespace:WpfCzytanieRSS;assembly=WpfCzytanieRSS" <TextBox Validation.ErrorTemplate="{StaticResource TextBoxErrorTemplate}" Name="tbTitle"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="Nazwa" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <valRule:DoubleRangeRule Min="0.5" Max="10"/> //error place </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> And i get two errors: Error 1 The tag 'DoubleRangeRule' does not exist in XML namespace 'clr-namespace:WpfCzytanieRSS;assembly=WpfCzytanieRSS'. Error 2 The type 'valRule:DoubleRangeRule' was not found. Verify that you are not missing an assembly reference and that all referenced assemblies have been built. Please help to get to class DoubleRangeRule ! :)

    Read the article

  • jquery form validation: validation script specified externally

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i have a jquery form validation in the master page and it works fine and i got that working from this article: http://www.dotnetcurry.com/ShowArticle.aspx?ID=310 my question is: if i place the .js to external and add a reference to my page then its not working... it says object expected here is how i have done: in my content page (i am using master page, asp.net ) add in my content page: <script src="myform_validation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { ValidateMe(this); }); </script> below is in the external .js file: function ValidateMe() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }//, // }, messages: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { required: "Please enter a valid email address", minlength: "Please enter a valid email address" } , <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") } } , success: function(label) { // set &nbsp; as text for IE label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); } ;

    Read the article

  • Fck editor problem

    - by Josemalive
    Hi, Im using FCK Editor control instead a textarea element. I installed it without problems. But when i want to validate it with a Custom validator of ASP.Net 2.0, im not getting the result expected. These lines are the code that i have: <textarea style="width:30px;height:20px;" class="ckeditor" id="txtdescription" runat="server" name="txtdescription" cols="5" rows="10"></textarea> <asp:CustomValidator id="descval" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtdescription" EnableClientScript="true" Enabled="true" ValidateEmptyText="true" Display="Dynamic" ClientValidationFunction="ValidateTextDesc" Text="*" ErrorMessage="*"/> <asp:Button ID="buttonadd" runat="server" Text="Add text" OnClick="buttonadd_Click" /> And my javascript code that executes the CustomValidator client function is: function ValidateTextDesc(source, args) { var descriptiontext = document.getElementById("txtdescription"); if ((descriptiontext.value.indexOf("<script") != -1) || (descriptiontext.value.length==0)) { args.IsValid=false; } else { args.IsValid = true; } return args.IsValid; } My problem is that i have to click twice my submit button to execute this Client function: Do you know why this issue is happening? Thanks in advance. Regards. Josema.

    Read the article

  • Problem with sitecore home page

    - by Mirage
    hi guys i am new to site core and asp.net and iis. I have installed all on my server 2008. When i got to /localhost/sitecore/Website/sitecore. i get following error. Can anyone help me what is this and what should i need to do Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. Source Error: Line 2575: <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> Line 2576: </httpHandlers> Line 2577: <membership defaultProvider="sitecore"> -- this line shows errr Line 2578: <providers> Line 2579: <clear />

    Read the article

  • Spring - SessionAttribute problem

    - by Max
    Hello, I want to implement something like this: @Controller @SessionAttributes("promotion") class PromotionController { @RequestMapping("showPromo") void showPromotionInfo( @RequestParam("promId") String promotionId, @ModelAttribute Promotion promotion, Errors errors ) { promotion = Promotions.get(promotionId); if (promotion == null || promotion.validates() == false) { errors.reject("promotion.invalid"); } return "prom"; } } The code is invalid, wont work and has some bad errors, but I don't know how to write it better. When user comes to an URL "showPromo?promId=15", controller should validate if the promotion is valid (outdated/non-existent/etc.). If it is valid - it should show it's information and save the promotion to model and session. If it's not - it should show some error about promotion being invalid. Problem is, I need to save the promotion in the session (for several requests) and don't want to use direct session management. Is it currently possible with Spring? Or am I doing something wrong? Could you please provide the optimal solution to my problem using Spring 3? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Conditional required field validation in an ASP.net ListView

    - by Jim Dagg
    I'm having a heck of a time trying to figure out how to implement validation in a ListView. The goal is to require the user to enter text in the comments TextBox, but only if the CheckBox is checked. Downside is that these controls are in the EditTemplate of a ListView. Below is a snippet of the relevant code portion of the EditTemplate: <tr style="background-color: #00CCCC; color: #000000"> <td> Assume Risk? <asp:CheckBox ID="chkWaive" runat="server" Checked='<%# Bind("Waive") %>' /> </td> <td colspan="5"> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator1" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Comments required" ControlToValidate="txtComments" /> <asp:TextBox Width="95%" ID="txtComments" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Comment") %>'></asp:TextBox> </td> <td> <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" CommandName="Update" Width="100px" /> </td> </tr> Is there a way to do conditional validation using this method? If not, is there a way I could validate manually in the ItemUpdating event of the Listview, or somewhere else, and on a failure, alert the user of the error via a label or popup alert?

    Read the article

  • Custom CheckBoxList in ASP.NET

    - by Rick
    Since ASP.NET's CheckBoxList control does not allow itself to be validated with one of the standard validation controls (i.e., RequiredFieldValidator), I would like to create a UserControl that I can use in my project whenever I need a checkbox list that requires one or more boxes to be checked. The standard CheckBoxList can be dragged onto a page, and then you can manually add <asp:ListItem> controls if you want. Is there any way I can create a UserControl that lets me manually (in the markup, not programmatically) insert ListItems from my page in a similar manner? In other words, can I insert a UserControl onto a page, and then from the Designer view of the Page (i.e., not the designer view of the UserControl), can I manually add my ListItems like so: <uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> <asp:ListItem Text="A" value="B"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="X" value="Y"></asp:ListItem> </uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> If a UserControl is not the appropriate choice for the end result I'm looking for, I'm open to other suggestions. Please note that I am aware of the CustomValidator control (which is how I plan to validate within my UserControl). It's just a pain to write the same basic code each time I need one of these required checkbox lists, which is why I want to create a re-usable control.

    Read the article

  • Payapl sandbox a/c in Dotnet..IPN Response Invaild

    - by Sam
    Hi, I am Integrating paypal to mysite.. i use sandbox account,One Buyer a/c and one more for seller a/c...and downloaded the below code from paypal site string strSandbox = "https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr"; HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strSandbox); //Set values for the request back req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; byte[] param = Request.BinaryRead(HttpContext.Current.Request.ContentLength); string strRequest = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(param); strRequest += "&cmd=_notify-validate"; req.ContentLength = strRequest.Length; //for proxy //WebProxy proxy = new WebProxy(new Uri("http://url:port#")); //req.Proxy = proxy; //Send the request to PayPal and get the response StreamWriter streamOut = new StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream(), System.Text.Encoding.ASCII); streamOut.Write(strRequest); streamOut.Close(); StreamReader streamIn = new StreamReader(req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()); string strResponse = streamIn.ReadToEnd(); streamIn.Close(); if (strResponse == "VERIFIED") { //check the payment_status is Completed //check that txn_id has not been previously processed //check that receiver_email is your Primary PayPal email //check that payment_amount/payment_currency are correct //process payment } else if (strResponse == "INVALID") { //log for manual investigation } else { //log response/ipn data for manual investigation } and when add this snippets in pageload event of success page i get the ipn response as INVALID but amount paid successfully but i am getting invalid..any help..Paypal Docs in not Clear. thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Validation without ServiceLocator

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, I am getting back again and again to it thinking about the best way to perform validation on POCO objects that need access to some context (ISession in NH, IRepository for example). The only option I still can see is to use S*ervice Locator*, so my validation would look like: public User : ICanValidate { public User() {} // We need this constructor (so no context known) public virtual string Username { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationError> Validate() { if (ServiceLocator.GetService<IUserRepository>().FindUserByUsername(Username) != null) yield return new ValidationError("Username", "User already exists.") } } I already use Inversion Of control and Dependency Injection and really don't like the ServiceLocator due to number of facts: Harder to maintain implicit dependencies. Harder to test the code. Potential threading issues. Explicit dependency only on the ServiceLocator. The code becomes harder to understand. Need to register the ServiceLocator interfaces during the testing. But on the other side, with plain POCO objects, I do not see any other way of performing the validation like above without ServiceLocator and only using IoC/DI. So the question would be: is there any way to use DI/IoC for the situation described above? Thanks, Dmitriy.

    Read the article

  • Problem with XML encoding of database contents with Latin characters

    - by user89691
    I have an ASP Access database that contains strings in various European languages. The database was populated prior by agents in the respective countries. It contains entries with accented etc characters as you would expect. If I open the database with MS Access these characters show up fine. For example the the German equivalent of "Open" shows as "Öffnen" (hopefully you can see an "O" with 2 dots above it!). I have ASP code that reads the database and returns records in XML. The text is passed to XMLEncode to construct the XML, but that only seems to deal with the 5 specials like "<", "&", etc. If I dump the XML the accented characters are unchanged. <English>Open</English> <German>Öffnen</German> If I look at the raw packets with Wireshark I see that the "Ö" byte is hex D6, which appears to be it's decimal Unicode and ISO 8859-1 value. The problem starts when I try to parse the XML in client-side JS. I get: "An invalid character was found in text content" from IE. FF and Chrome happily accept the XML without hiccup but the browser shows the "Ö" character as a diamond with a question mark inside. http://www.validome.org/xml/validate/ reports "encoding error." http://www.w3schools.com/dom/dom_validate.asp thinks it is fine. The XML is UTF-8 encoded. What do I need to do to have IE accept my XML without complaint? What do I need to do to have browsers display the stuff correctly?

    Read the article

  • How to resolve a java.security.AccessControlException?

    - by thisisananth
    I have written an SAX parser in my Google App Engine Web application. in that I try to validate my xml file with an xsd. But I am getting an access control exception when my code is tyring to access that xsd. java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.io.FilePermission \WEB-INF\ApplicationResponse.xsd read) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:264) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:427) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkPermission(DevAppServerFactory.java:166) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkRead(SecurityManager.java:871) at java.io.FileInputStream.(FileInputStream.java:100) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.xs.XMLSchemaLoader.xsdToXMLInputSource(XMLSchemaLoader.java:830) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.xs.XMLSchemaLoader.processJAXPSchemaSource(XMLSchemaLoader.java:708) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.xs.XMLSchemaLoader.loadSchema(XMLSchemaLoader.java:554) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.xs.XMLSchemaValidator.findSchemaGrammar(XMLSchemaValidator.java:2459) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.xs.XMLSchemaValidator.handleStartElement(XMLSchemaValidator.java:1807) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.xs.XMLSchemaValidator.startElement(XMLSchemaValidator.java:705) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLNSDocumentScannerImpl.scanStartElement(XMLNSDocumentScannerImpl.java:330) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLNSDocumentScannerImpl$NSContentDispatcher.scanRootElementHook(XMLNSDocumentScannerImpl.java:779) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl$FragmentContentDispatcher.dispatch(XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.java:1794) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.scanDocument(XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.java:368) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(XML11Configuration.java:834) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(XML11Configuration.java:764) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.XMLParser.parse(XMLParser.java:148) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.AbstractSAXParser.parse(AbstractSAXParser.java:1242) at sax.SAXLocalNameCount.parse(SAXLocalNameCount.java:220) at com.sms2mint.InterfaceServlet.doGet(InterfaceServlet.java:54) Please let me know how to debug this? I have tried to place the xsd in classes, webcontent, /WEB-INF but didn't help. Also declared this as a resource file in appengine-web.xml also but no avail.

    Read the article

  • Params order in Foo.new(params[:foo]), need one before the other (Rails)

    - by Jeena
    I have a problem which I don't know how to fix. It has to do with the unsorted params hash. I have a object Reservation which has a virtual time= attribute and a virtual eating_session= attribute when I set the time= I also want to validate it via an external server request. I do that with help of the method times() which makes a lookup on a other server and saves all possible times in the @times variable. The problem now is that the method times() needs the eating_session attribute to find out which times are valid, but rails sometimes calls the times= method first, before there is any eating_session in the Reservation object when I just do @reservation = Reservation.new(params[:reservation]) class ReservationsController < ApplicationController def new @reservation = Reservation.new(params[:reservation]) # ... end end class Reservation < ActiveRecord::Base include SoapClient attr_accessor :date, :time belongs_to :eating_session def time=(time) @time = times.find { |t| t[:time] == time } end def times return @times if defined? @times @times = [] response = call_soap :search_availability { # eating_session is sometimes nil :session_id => eating_session.code, # <- HERE IS THE PROBLEM :dining_date => date } response[:result].each do |result| @times << { :time => "#{DateTime.parse(result[:time]).strftime("%H:%M")}", :correlation_data => result[:correlation_data] } end @times end end I have no idea how to fix this, any help is apriciated.

    Read the article

  • Submit information to url, but also open PDF

    - by Mad Ducky Digital Branding
    I have a client whose desire is to have her Wordpress blog show a MailChimp form on her home page as a gateway to a .pdf. I need the following behavior to occur when the user clicks "Submit": execute the included MailChimp's javascript file; this ensures the form was properly filled, and then performs the sign-up to the newsletter list (don't need help with this part) then show the user an informational PDF for download or viewing EDIT: The logical order was flipped from when I originally posted this. The script should execute, and only if the script gets executed properly should the PDF show to the user Note: My experience level with HTML and PHP is 3/4, and with JS I am 2/4 EDIT: (seems more like 1/4 at this point lol). If my research is correct, PHP (server-side language) would be used to do that which the client wants. Additional validation is not necessary beyond what MailChimp's script provides (it ensures that user has submitted a completed form) is not necessary in this case (the client says it's ok if the e-mail isn't valid at all). EDIT: Reworded this sentence from original post to be more clear The .pdf URL and content is static, and simply needs to be shown, not generated. ----RESEARCH---- I know that the Mailchimp form uses the following line to actually submit the information, but I want to do the action mentioned below, as well as open the aforementioned .pdf: <form action="http://*BLAH*.us2.list-manage.com/subscribe/post?u=*BLAHBLAH*&amp;id=*BLAHBLAHBLAH*" method="post" id="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" name="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" class="validate" target="_blank"> I am reading on other sites that I can conceivably point "action" to a .php file, but if there is a way to do this with javascript - since its using the .js file that I created for that already anyways, then I would be most happy. Barring that, I'll take what I can get.. ----SOLUTION?---- ...

    Read the article

  • MVC View Model Intellisense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: aggregating validators in a user control

    - by orsogufo
    I am developing a web application where I would like to perform a set of validations on a certain field (an account name in the specific case). I need to check that the value is not empty, matches a certain pattern and is not already used. I tried to create a UserControl that aggregates a RequiredFieldValidator, a RegexValidator and a CustomValidator, then I created a ControlToValidate property like this: public partial class AccountNameValidator : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public string ControlToValidate { get { return ViewState["ControlToValidate"] as string; } set { ViewState["ControlToValidate"] = value; AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameRegexValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameUniqueValidator.ControlToValidate = value; } } } However, if I insert the control on a page and set ControlToValidate to some control ID, when the page loads I get an error that says Unable to find control id 'AccountName' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator', which makes me think that the controls inside my UserControl cannot resolve correctly the controls in the parent page. So, I have two questions: 1) Is it possible to have validator controls inside a UserControl validate a control in the parent page? 2) Is it correct and good practice to "aggregate" multiple validator controls in a UserControl? If not, what is the standard way to proceed?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >