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  • Login with Kohana auth module - what am I doing wrong?

    - by keithjgrant
    I'm trying to login with the following controller action, but my login attempt keeps failing (I get the 'invalid username and/or password' message). What am I doing wrong? I also tried the other method given in the examples in the auth documentation, Auth::instance()->login($user->username, $form->password);, but I get the same result. Kohana version is 2.3.4. public function login() { $auth = Auth::instance(); if ($auth->logged_in()) { url::redirect('/account/summary'); } $view = new View('login'); $view->username = ''; $view->password = ''; $post = $this->input->post(); $form = new Validation($post); $form->pre_filter('trim', 'username') ->pre_filter('trim', 'password') ->add_rules('username', 'required'); $failed = false; if (!empty($post) && $form->validate()) { $login = array( 'username' => $form->username, 'password' => $form->password, ); if (ORM::factory('user')->login($login)) { url::redirect('/accounts/summary'); } else { $view->username = $form->username; $view->message = in_array('required', $form->errors()) ? 'Username and password are required.' : 'Invalid username and/or password.'; } } $view->render(true); }

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  • In IIS6, how to provide authenticated access to static files on remote server

    - by frankadelic
    We have a library of ZIP files that we would like to make available for download at an ASP.NET site. The files are sitting on a NAS device that is accessible from out web farm. Here is our initial strategy: Map an IIS virtual directory to the shared drive at path /zipfiles Users can download the zip files when given the URL However, if users share links to the files, anyone can download them. We would instead like to make use of the ASP.NET forms authentication in our site to validate users' requests before initiating the file transfer. A few problems: A request for a zip file is handled by IIS, not ASP.NET. So it is not subject to forms authentication. In addition, we don't want ASP.NET to handle the request, because it uses up an ASP.NET thread and is not scalable for download of large files. So, configuring the asp.net dll to handle *.zip requests is not an option. Any ideas on this? One idea we've tossed around is this: Initial request for download will be for an ashx handler. This handler will, after authentication, generate a download token which is saved to a database. Then, the user is redirected to the file with token appended in QueryString (e.g. /files/xyz.zip?token=123456789). An ISAPI plugin will be used to check the token. Also, the token will expire after x amount of time. Any thoughts on this? I have not implemented an ISAPI plugin so I'm not sure if this will even work. I would like to avoid custom coding since security is an issue and I'd prefer to use a time-tested solution.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Should I be worried about a ReDOS attack?

    - by PeeHaa
    Can the following code be use to ReDOS attack my site? Or will it just be ended when the max_execution_time is exceeded or is it a problem of the past? I use the following code to validate emailaddresses on my sites (by Douglas Lovell): function validate_email($email) { $isValid = true; $atIndex = strrpos($email, "@"); if (is_bool($atIndex) && !$atIndex) { $isValid = false; } else { $domain = substr($email, $atIndex+1); $local = substr($email, 0, $atIndex); $localLen = strlen($local); $domainLen = strlen($domain); if ($localLen < 1 || $localLen > 64) { // local part length exceeded $isValid = false; } else if ($domainLen < 1 || $domainLen > 255) { // domain part length exceeded $isValid = false; } else if ($local[0] == '.' || $local[$localLen-1] == '.') { // local part starts or ends with '.' $isValid = false; } else if (preg_match('/\\.\\./', $local)) { // local part has two consecutive dots $isValid = false; } else if (!preg_match('/^[A-Za-z0-9\\-\\.]+$/', $domain)) { // character not valid in domain part $isValid = false; } else if (preg_match('/\\.\\./', $domain)) { // domain part has two consecutive dots $isValid = false; } else if(!preg_match('/^(\\\\.|[A-Za-z0-9!#%&`_=\\/$\'*+?^{}|~.-])+$/', str_replace("\\\\","",$local))) { // character not valid in local part unless // local part is quoted if (!preg_match('/^"(\\\\"|[^"])+"$/', str_replace("\\\\","",$local))) { $isValid = false; } } if ($isValid && !(checkdnsrr($domain,"MX") || checkdnsrr($domain,"A"))) { // domain not found in DNS $isValid = false; } } return $isValid; }

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

    - by Robert Cabri
    I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

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  • How to use the same element name in different purposes ( in XML and DTD ) ?

    - by BugKiller
    Hi, I Want to create a DTD schema for this xml document: <root> <student> <name> <firstname>S1</firstname> <lastname>S2</lastname> </name> </student> <course> <name>CS101</name> </course> </root> as you can see , the element name in the course contains plain text ,but the element name in the student is complex type ( first-name, last-name ). The following is the DTD: <!ELEMENT root (course|student)*> <!ELEMENT student (name)> <!ELEMENT name (lastname|firstname)> <!ELEMENT firstname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT lastname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT course (name)> When I want to validate it , I get an error because the course's name has different structure then the student's name . My Question: how can I make a work-around solution for this situation without changing the name of element name using DTD not xml schema . Thanks.

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  • Unexpected $end in PHP file

    - by mattbd
    I'm working on a PHP contact form, but I can't get it to work. I get the following error in the Apache server log, running on an Ubuntu Server VM: PHP Parse error: syntax error, unexpected $end in /home/matthew/Sites/contactFormResponse.php on line 75, referer: http://192.168.1.4/contactForm.php From googling this error, it sounds like it's normally caused by either using the short PHP tag when the server's not set up to recognise them, or by having a block of code that isn't closed correctly. But as far as I can see that isn't the case here - as far as I can see it's all closed correctly. Here's the PHP code: <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); // Define variables to hold the name, email address and message, and import the information into the variables $name = $_POST['NameInput']; $email = $_POST['EmailAddress']; $telno = $_POST['ContactNumber']; $querytype = $_POST['QueryType']; $bookingstartdate = $_POST['BookingStartDay'] . $_POST['BookingStartMonth'] . $_POST['BookingStartYear']; $bookingenddate = $_POST['BookingEndDay'] . $_POST['BookingEndMonth'] . $_POST['BookingEndYear']; $message = $_POST['QueryText']; // Validate the inputs - send it if it's OK if(3 < strlen($name) && 3 < strlen($email)) { $email_message = <<< EMAIL Message from contact form at holidaychalet.co.uk Name: $name Email: $email Contact Number: $telno Query Type: $querytype Booking Start Date: $bookingstartdate Booking End Date: $bookingenddate The message: $message EMAIL; $headers = "cc:[email protected]\r\n"; if(mail('matthew@localhost','Contact form email', $email_message, $headers)) { echo "Thanks for completing the form! I'll be in touch shortly!"; } else { echo "Something went wrong - please use the back button and try again"; } } else { echo "You didn't complete the form fully enough! Please use go back using your web browser's back button"; } ?>

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  • Help with Struts Action mapping

    - by nicotine
    I am having a problem with my struts application it is a class enrollment app and when the user clicks on a "show enrolled courses" button it is supposed to show the courses they are enrolled in but it shows nothing at the moment. Struts/Apache does not return any errors, it Just shows a blank page and I cannot figure out why. My action mapping in my struts-config: <action path="/showEnrolled" type="actions.ShowEnrolledAction" name="UserFormEnrolled" scope="request" validate="true" input="/students/StudentMenu.jsp"> <forward name="success" path="/students/enrolled.jsp"/> </action> My link to the jsp enrolled.jsp page: <li><html:form action="/showEnrolled"> <html:hidden property="id" value= "<%=request.getRemoteUser()%>"/> <html:submit value = "View Enrolled Classes"/> </html:form> </li> When I click the link I get nothing but my menu on the page. The text headings for the page are not even displayed.

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  • C# reference collection for storing reference types

    - by ivo s
    I like to implement a collection (something like List<T>) which would hold all my objects that I have created in the entire life span of my application as if its an array of pointers in C++. The idea is that when my process starts I can use a central factory to create all objects and then periodically validate/invalidate their state. Basically I want to make sure that my process only deals with valid instances and I don't re-fetch information I already fetched from the database. So all my objects will basically be in one place - my collection. A cool thing I can do with this is avoid database calls to get data from the database if I already got it (even if I updated it after retrieval its still up-to-date if of course some other process didn't update it but that a different concern). I don't want to be calling new Customer("James Thomas"); again if I initted James Thomas already sometime in the past. Currently I will end up with multiple copies of the same object across the appdomain - some out of sync other in sync and even though I deal with this using timestamp field on the MSSQL server I'd like to keep only one copy per customer in my appdomain (if possible process would be better). I can't use regular collections like List or ArrayList for example because I cannot pass parameters by their real local reference to the their existing Add() methods where I'm creating them using ref so that's not to good I think. So how can this be implemented/can it be implemented at all ? A 'linked list' type of class with all methods working with ref & out params is what I'm thinking now but it may get ugly pretty quickly. Is there another way to implement such collection like RefList<T>.Add(ref T obj)? So bottom line is: I don't want re-create an object if I've already created it before during the entire application life unless I decide to re-create it explicitly (maybe its out-of-date or something so I have to fetch it again from the db). Is there alternatives maybe ?

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  • Why do mozilla and webkit prepend -moz- and -webkit- to CSS3 rules?

    - by egarcia
    CSS3 rules bring lots of interesting features. Take border-radius, for example. The standard says that if you write this rule: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; } I should get a 5px border radius. But neither mozilla nor webkit implement this. However, they implement the same thing, with the same parameters, with a different name (-moz-border-radius and -webkit-border-radius, respectively). In order to satisfy as many browsers as possible, you end up with this: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; -moz-border-radius: 5px; -webkit-border-radius: 5px; } I can see two obvious disadvantages: Copy-paste code. This has obvious risks that I will not discuss here. The W3C CSS validator will not validate these rules. At the same time, I don't see any obvious advantages. I believe that the people behind mozilla and webkit are more intelligent than myself. There must be some good reasons to have things structured this way. It's just that I can't see them. So, I must ask you people: why is this?

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  • Pass an Event as parameter

    - by dkson
    I have a class which bundles events and registers controls to easily register/unregister them, it's basically used this way: Private Sub MyFocusHandler(ByVal sender As Object, ...) ... End Sub ... Dim b1 = new MyTextBox() Dim b2 = new MyTextBox() .... 'Lot of Controls' Dim cr = new ControlRegistration() cr.RegisterControl(b1) cr.RegisterControl(b2) .... 'Register a lot of controls' cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) cr.RegisterEvent("Validate",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyValidateHandler)) So I don't have to add the handlers manually for each control. The ControlRegistration-Class will cycle through the list of registered controls and check if a control has a registered event and then attach the eventhandler, something like: ... For Each control in contols Dim ev_info As Reflection.EventInfo = _ control.GetType().GetEvent(.GetType().GetEvent(event_name)) If Not (ev_info Is Nothing) Then ev_info.AddEventHandler ... ... My problem is that i am identifying the event by a string Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal eventName As String, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) I don't want to depend on the name of the event, since it is possibly that the name changes, and then things will break up. Is there a way I can do this like: Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal theEvent As ???, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent(IMyControl.MyEvent,New EventHandler(AddressOf MyEventHandler)) I hope it is clear what I want to archive. Anybody any ideas? Thanks

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  • Data Annotations on ViewModels or Domain Objects

    - by Ahmad
    Where would data annotations be more suitable: ViewModels or Domain Objects or Both I am struggling to decide where these will be more suited. I have not as yet fully utilized them but this question came to mind. From most of the examples I have seen, they are generally placed on Models and simply use the required attributes for validation using ModelState.IsValid. I have also seen another question on SO where the use of data annotations alone is not sufficient and advocate. Option 1 - I will still need to validate again in my service layer. ( I think that my service layer should be complete and this include validation, since its planned to be used elsewhere) Option 2 - How will I then get the benefits of the built in validation both client and server side. Option 3 - there will be a repetition of validation logic, however I was wondering if one could use a MetaData class approach that can be used for both ViewModels and Domain Objects. ( This is completely of the top of my head, so it may be nonsensical) I wonder if this question even makes sense. If not, can someone please help in understanding this better. Have I completely misunderstood the use of data annotations?

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  • Cocoa Services Programming - How to identify whether the selected item is a folder or file wih NSFi

    - by rockybalboa
    Hi , I have some queries regarding Services menu validation . I would like to enable different services provided by my app based on whether a file or folder is selected in the Finder. I have set NSFilenamesPboardType as the send type for the services . I have gone through the - (id)validRequestorForSendType:(NSString *)sendType returnType:(NSString *)returnType method but my issue is that the validation there seems to be done based on the sendType and return type. In my case , the selected file and folder pasteboard type is the same and I cannot determine whether the selected item in the Finder is a file or folder during the validation process ( This is before the actual service gets invoked i.e when the services menu is being shown to the user ) ? So my question is that is there any way I can get some info about the selected item in the Finder and validate the different service menus offered by my application based on some info regarding the item rather than the basic validation of the send and return types ? I am not able to find out any manner to do so but "Folder Actions" service in Snow Leopard gets enabled only for folders so it can be done. I did a /System/Library/CoreServices/pbs -dump_pboard and it is using a NSFilenamePBoardType also yet manages to activate only for folders. Thanks in advace for any help .

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  • Validating age field

    - by Marcelo
    Hi people, I'm trying to validate an age field in a form but I'm having some problem. First I tried to make sure that the field will not be send empty. I don't know JavaScript so I searched some scripts and adapted them to this: function isInteger (s) { var i; if (isEmpty(s)) if (isInteger.arguments.length == 1) return 0; else return (isInteger.arguments[1] == true); for (i = 0; i < s.length; i++) { var c = s.charAt(i); if (!isDigit(c)) return false; } return true; } function isEmpty(s) { return ((s == null) || (s.length == 0)) } function validate_required(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if ((validate_required(age,"Age must be filled out!")==false) || isInteger(age,"Age must be and int number")==false)) {email.focus();return false;} } } //html part <form action="doador.php" onsubmit="return validate_form(this)" method="post"> It's working fine for empty fields, but if I type any letters or characters in age field, it'll be sent and saved a 0 in my database. Can anyone help me? Sorry for any mistake in English, and thanks in anvance for your help.

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  • Login page shows blank

    - by user481913
    The login page on a project i'm currently fixing up shows blank. i tried echoing some words to find out where the fault lied. I found out that commenting out the below piece of code made it to display. elseif( isset($_POST['do_login'] ) ){//Login user $email = (isset($_POST['login']) && is_string($_POST['login']) && strlen($_POST['login'])<100)?$_POST['login'] : null; $password = (isset($_POST['password']) && is_string($_POST['password']) && strlen($_POST['password'])<100)?$_POST['password'] : null; $remember = isset($_POST['chkremember']) ? true : false; $result = $auth->login($email, $password, $remember); switch($result){ case 1: $msg = 'You have successfully logged in.' break; case 2: $msg = 'Your account has not yet been confirmed. <br/> Please check the e-mail message sent by us and click the confirmation code to validate this account. <a href="user_login.php?view=resend&resend_email='.$email.'">resend activation e-mail</a>'; break; case 3: $msg = 'Your account is not enabled!'; break; case 4: $msg = 'Account with given login credentials does not exist!'; break; } } Can anyone help me figiure out what's wrong with this piece of code?

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  • Validating collection elements in WPF

    - by Chris
    I would like to know how people are going about validating collections in WPF. Lets say for example that I have an observable collection of ViewModels that I am binding to the items source of a grid, and the user can add new rows to the grid and needs to fill them. First of all I need to validate on each row to ensure that required fields of each ViewModel are filled in. This is fine and simple to do for each row. However, the second level of validation is on the collection as a whole. For example i want to ensure that no two rows of the collection have the same identifier, or that no two rows have the same name. Im basically checking for duplicate properties within different rows. I also have more complex conditions where I must ensure that there is at least one item within the collection that has some property set. How do I get a validation rule that would allow me to check these rules, validating on the whole collection rather than the individual items. I also want to print any validation error above the datagrid so that the user can fix the problem and the message will update or disappear as the user fixes each different rule. Anyone have any experience of the proper way to do this? Thanks Chris

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  • Why are Managed Beans not loaded in Tomcat?

    - by c0d3x
    Hi, I created a JSF 2 web application with facelets. The libs for JSF where stored at tomcat/lib, to share it between several applications. I thought maybe it would be better to store the libs inside the WEB-INF/lib folder of the application, to get the application more independent from server configurations. Now when I start tomcat via eclipse, the managed beans are loaded and working. But when I start tomcat directly / standalone the managed beans are not loaded automatically. I used @ManagedBean @SessionScoped / @RequestScoped annotations to declare classes as managed beans. Why is this? What can I do to fix it? I don't use any faces-config.xml file yet. Thanks in advance. edited: Maybe this helps to see whats going on: javax.el.PropertyNotFoundException: /Artikel.xhtml @12,108 value="#{artikelBackingBean.nameFilterPattern}": Target Unreachable, identifier 'artikelBackingBean' resolved to null at com.sun.faces.facelets.el.TagValueExpression.getType(TagValueExpression.java:93) at com.sun.faces.renderkit.html_basic.HtmlBasicInputRenderer.getConvertedValue(HtmlBasicInputRenderer.java:95) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.getConvertedValue(UIInput.java:1008) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.validate(UIInput.java:934) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.executeValidate(UIInput.java:1189) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.processValidators(UIInput.java:691) at javax.faces.component.UIForm.processValidators(UIForm.java:243) at javax.faces.component.UIComponentBase.processValidators(UIComponentBase.java:1080) at javax.faces.component.UIViewRoot.processValidators(UIViewRoot.java:1180) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ProcessValidationsPhase.execute(ProcessValidationsPhase.java:76) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.Phase.doPhase(Phase.java:101) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:118) at javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet.service(FacesServlet.java:312) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.authenticator.AuthenticatorBase.invoke(AuthenticatorBase.java:433) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:293) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:849) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:454) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619)

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • XSD validation on the sequence of attributes.

    - by infant programmer
    How to validate the sequence of attributes? In my sample XML: <root id1="1" id2="2" id3="3" id4=""> <node/> </root> the appearance of attributes of root must come in same order as written above, however the xsd what I have written accepts the attributes in any order, here is the XSD: <xs:element name="root"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="node" /> </xs:sequence> <xs:attributeGroup ref="attt"/> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:attributeGroup name="attt"> <xs:attribute name="id1" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> <xs:attribute name="id2" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> <xs:attribute name="id3" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> <xs:attribute name="id4" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> </xs:attributeGroup> Is it possible to put restriction on the sequence of attribute?

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  • Prevent Text Input expanding in IE

    - by Caroline
    Hi, I am having a problem with an input field in IE. The code is for a portlet and widths need to be dynamic as the user can place the portlet on any of the three columns in the page which all have different widths. As always it works fine in FF but not in IE. In order to make the width dyanaic I have set width="100%". Data to populate the text input comes from a DB. When the page is rendered if there is a long URL the text input expands to fill the contents in IE but in FF it just stays the same width (ie 100% of the TD that it lives in). How can I stop IE from changing the width in order to fit the contents. Setting the width to a fixed width of 100px fixes the issue but I need to have the width as a percentage in order to accommodate the layout of the portlet wherever it is put in on the page. I have tried overflow:hidden and word-wrap:break-word but I cant get either to work. Here is my input code and style sheets <td class="right" > <input type="text" class="validate[custom[url]]" value="" id="linkText" name="communicationLink" maxlength="500" maxsize="100" /> </td> .ofCommunicationsAdmin input { font-family: "Trebuchet MS"; font-size: 11px; font-weight:normal; color:#333333; overflow:hidden; } .ofCommunicationsAdmin #linkText { overflow:hidden; width:100%; border:1px #cccccc solid; background:#F4F7ED top repeat-x; } .ofCommunicationsAdmin td.right { vertical-align: top; text-align: left; }

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  • Windows SQL wildcards and ASP.net parameters

    - by Vinzcent
    Hey In my SQL statement I use wildcards. But when I try to select something, it never select something. While when I execute the querry in Microsoft SQL Studio, it works fine. What am I doing wrong? Click handler protected void btnTitelAuteur_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cvalTitelAuteur.Enabled = true; cvalTitelAuteur.Validate(); if (Page.IsValid) { objdsSelectedBooks.SelectMethod = "getBooksByTitleAuthor"; objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Clear(); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("title", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("author", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.Select(); gvSelectedBooks.DataBind(); pnlZoeken.Visible = false; pnlKiezen.Visible = true; } } In my Data Acces Layer public static DataTable getBooksByTitleAuthor(string title, string author) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.GENRE " + "FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID " +"WHERE (tblBooks.TITLE LIKE '%@title%');"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add("@title", SqlDbType.Text); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["@title"].Value = title; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Books"); return ds.Tables["Books"]; } Thanks, Vincent

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  • How to return value using ajax

    - by Priyanka
    Hello. I have Ajax file in which code has written to accept values form user and then these values are taken in a Ajax function as follows: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#newsletterform").validate(); $('#Submit').click(function(){ var name = $('#newsletter_name').val(); var email = $('#newsletter_email').val(); sendValue(email,name); }); }); The function for paasing values and getting values from other file: function sendValue(str,name){ $.post( "newsletter/subscribe.php", //Ajax file { sendValue: str, sendVal: name }, function(data2){ $('#display').html(data2.returnValue); }, //How you want the data formated when it is returned from the server. "json" ); } and these values are passed to another file called "subscribe.php" in which insertion code to database is written and again I return the value to my first ajax function as follows: echo json_encode(array("returnValue"=$msg)); The msg is ging to contain my message to be displayed. But now, this works fine on localhost, I get the return values nad message properly but when I upload it on server this gives me an error as: data2 is null [Break on this error] $('#display').html(data2.returnValue); This only gives error for return value but insertion, sending mail functionality works fine. Please provide me with a good solution wherein I can be able to get back the return values without any error. Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Nested hyperlinks in XHTML 1.1 document

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I'm doing a simple widget for WordPress that fetches the most recent tweets from the RSS feed provided by Twitter. This widget parses any link posted on a tweet, it also parses mentions (ie: @username) and trending topics (ie: #nowplaying). For these 3 situations, it creates links pointing to some Twitter feature. For instance: "Hi @UserA, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. #nowplaying" And it will parse into this: Hi <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA">@UserA</a>, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. <a href="http://twitter.com/#search?q=nowplaying">#nowplaying</a> Now now I need to add a global link to the whole message, like this: <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA/statuses/1234567890"> Hi <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA">@UserA</a>, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. <a href="http://twitter.com/#search?q=nowplaying">#nowplaying</a> </a> But this code does not validate and it doesn't work anyways (the browsers don't really seem to know what to do with it). Any suggestions how could I fix this?

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