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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

    - by Fly_Trap
    I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

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  • ImageViews sometimes not displaying in FrameLayout activity

    - by Ken
    The top level layout in my activity is a framelayout. I have completed, debugged and tested this app and it works exactly like it should in all respects on my g1 and on various emulators. But on 3.7-inch displays running 2.1+, some imageviews packed in a linearlayout are periodically not visible. I know that they are there because you can touch and drag them with effect in the app. So I assume somehow they have gotten under the SurfaceView that is the main component of the app. This is apparently so even though the SurfaceView is declared in the xml prior to the LinearLayout. However, the ImageViews IN the LinearLayout are added programmatically towards the end of onCreate(). Framelayout stacks everything that is added to it, one on top of the other--the only way you will see more than one child of a frame layout is if they are smaller than the screen and are placed apart from eachother. Oddly, sometimes the imageviews ARE visible--it is random. Anyway, I've been trying to combat this with framelayout.bringChildToFront(View v) on the linearlayout without success. I wonder if anyone has any insight into how the behavior could be random like that, and how I should code these imageviews to keep this from happening, and why the problem appears only to occur on 3.7 vs 3.2 inch screens (as it happens, the two 3.2-inch screens were both htc, so vendor might be factor too). [edit] Actually, I've determined that this is a 2.2 issue, not a screen size (or even vendor) issue. Can't ensure that ImageViews added to a framelayout with a SurfaceView in it will appear on top of the surfaceview. I ran some tests in the respective onDraw() methods and the imageviews are 'visible' (0), and nothing does anything to the alpha of the drawables, which are there as well at ondraw(). [/edit] Any insight would be welcomed. Ken T.

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  • Custom Android control with children

    - by Gromix
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom Android control that contains a LinearLayout. You can think of it as an extended LinearLayout with fancy borders, a background, an image on the left... I could do it all in XML (works great) but since I have dozens of occurences in my app it's getting hard to maintain. I thought it would be nicer to have something like this: /* Main.xml */ <MyFancyLayout> <TextView /> /* what goes inside my control's linear layout */ </MyfancyLayout> How would you approach this? I'd like to avoid re-writing the whole linear layout onMeasure / onLayout methods. This is what I have for the moment: /* MyFancyLayout.xml */ <TableLayout> <ImageView /> <LinearLayout id="container" /> /* where I want the real content to go */ </TableLayout> and /* MyFancyLayout.java */ public class MyFancyLayout extends LinearLayout { public MyFancyLayout(Context context) { super(context); View.inflate(context, R.layout.my_fancy_layout, this); } } How would you go about inserting the user-specified content (the TextView in main.xml) in the right place (id=container)? Cheers! Romain ----- edit ------- Still no luck on this, so I changed my design to use a simpler layout and decided to live with a bit of repeated XML. Still very interested in anyone knows how to do this though!

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  • Codeigniter return config file as array with autoload enabled

    - by Fverswijver
    So I'm using CodeIgniter to build a website and I've made it so that all my specific settings are stored in a config file that's automatically loaded. I've also built a page that loads the settings file, makes a nice little table and allows me to edit everything from that page, afterwards it saves the entire page again (I know I could've done the same with a database but I want to try it this way). My problem is that I can't seem to use this bit when autoloading of my config file is enabled, but when I disable autoloading I can't seem to manually load it, it never finds my variables. So what I'm doing here is just taking all values from the config file and putting them in a single array so I can pass this array onto my settings administration page (edit/show all settings). $this->config->load('site_settings', TRUE); $data['settings'] = $this->config->item('site_settings'); ... $this->load->view('template', $data); config/site_settings.php <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); $config['header_img'] = './img/header/'; $config['copyright_text'] = 'Copyright Instituto Kabu'; $config['copyright_font'] = './system/fonts/motoroil.ttf'; $config['copyright_font_color'] = 'ffffff'; $config['copyright_font_size'] = '32';

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  • Dynamic script addition should be ordered?

    - by hawkettc
    Hi, I'm adding some <script> tags dynamically to the head element after page load. I understand the scripts are loaded asynchronously, but can I expect them to be parsed in the order they are added? I'm seeing the expected behaviour in Firefox, but not in Safari or Chrome. Looking at the document in Chrome developer tools and Firebug, both show the following - <html> <head> ... <script type="text/javascript" src="A.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="B.js"></script> </head> ... </html> However looking at the resource loading view, chrome seems to parse whichever is returned first from the server, while firebug always loads them in the order the script tags were added, even when B is returned first from the server. Should I expect Chrome/Safari to parse the files in the specified order? Using Chrome 5.0.375.29 beta on OS X 10.6.3

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  • jsf, richfaces, popup window

    - by Hubidubi
    Hi I would like to make a list-detail view with richfaces. There will be a link for every record in the list that should open a new window containing record details. I tried to implement the link this way: <a4j:commandLink oncomplete="window.open('/pages/serviceDetail.jsf','popupWindow', 'dependent=yes, menubar=no, toolbar=no, height=500, width=400')" actionListener="#{monitoringBean.recordDetail}" value="details" /> I use <a4j:keepAlive beanName="monitoringBean" ajaxOnly="false" /> for both the list and the detail page. recordDetail method fills the data of the selected record to a variable of the bean that I would like to display on the detail page. The problem is that keepalive doesn't work, so I get new bean instance on the detail page every time. So the the previously selected record from the other bean is not accessible here. Is there a way to pass parameter (id) to the detail page to handle record selection. Or is there any way to make keepalive work? (I this this would be the easiest). Thanks

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  • Sorting XML file through multiple attributes

    - by jbugeja
    I want to sort a 'free-form' XML file through multiple attributes (first by T and then by L). The XML is a bit complex and it is structured as shown below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <wb xmlns:cf="http://www.macromedia.com/2004/cfform" xmlns:a="urn:dummy"> <a:form name="chart"> <a:fieldset FIELD="a" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:select1 FIELDNUMBER="01" L="1" T="2" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="02" INDEX="4" L="200" T="1" /> </a:fieldset> <a:fieldset FIELD="b" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:select1 FIELDNUMBER="03" T="3" L="1" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="04" INDEX="7" T="4" L="200" /> <a:fieldset FIELD="c" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="05" T="10" INDEX="6" L="400" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="06" T="8" INDEX="8" L="200" /> </a:fieldset> </a:fieldset> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="08" INDEX="3" L="3" T="5" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="09" INDEX="2" L="2" T="4" /> </a:form> </wb> PS: The root element is wb and this is always followed by a:form The L and T are always found in elements that have a tag in the namespace a, the only exception being a:fieldset which does not have L and T a:fieldset could have multiple children of the namespace a including another a:fieldset We can also assume that L denotes Left and T denotes Top. So, the idea of this is that when I view the transformed XML I can immediately note which elements precede what. What's your take on this?

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  • Rails syntax for comments in templates: is this bug understood?

    - by brahn
    Using rails 2.3.2 I have a partial _foo.rhtml that begins with a comment as follows: <% # here is a comment %> <li><%= foo %></li> When I render the partial from a view in the traditional way, e.g. <% some_numbers = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] %> <ul> <%= render :partial => "foo", :collection => some_numbers %> </ul> I found that the <li> and </li> tags are ommitted in the output -- i.e. the resulting HTML is <ul> 1 2 3 4 5 </ul> However, I can solve this problem by fixing _foo.rhtml to eliminate the space between the <% and the # so that the partial now reads: <%# here is a comment %> <li><%= foo %></li> My question: what's going on here? E.g., is <% # comment %> simply incorrect syntax for including comments in a template? Or is the problem more subtle? Thanks!

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  • How can I change the tags/css class of some dynamic text based on output from a helper?

    - by Angela
    I have a repeated line which outputs something like: Call John Jones in -3 days (status) I have a helper called show_status(contact,email) which will output whether that particular email had been sent to that particular contact. If it is "sent," then that entire line should show up as "strike out." Similarly, if the number of days is -3 (<0), the line should be formatted in red. Here's my hack, but there must be a cleaner way to put the logic into the controller? I hard-code a value that wraps around the lines I want formatted, and assign the value based on a separate call to the same helper: <% for call in @campaign.calls %> <% if !show_call_status(@contact,call).blank? %> <%= strike_start = '<s>'%> <%= strike_end = '</s>' %> <% end %> <p> <%= strike_start %> <%= link_to call.title, call_path(call) %> on <%= (@contact.date_entered + call.days).to_s(:long) %> in <%= interval_email(@contact,call) %> days <%= make_call(@contact,call) %> <span class='status'><%= show_call_status(@contact,call) %></span> <%= strike_end %> </p> <% end %> I guess what I'd like to do is not have the if statement in the View. Not sure how to do this.

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  • writing a meta refresh method for rails

    - by aaronstacy
    I want a method in app/controllers/application.rb that can prepend/append text to whatever template gets rendered. Of course I can't call render twice w/o getting a double render error, so is this possible? I want to redirect after a delay using a meta refresh. Here's what I've got: app/controllers/application_controller.rb: def redirect_after_delay (url, delay) @redirect_delay = delay @redirect_url = url render end app/views/layouts/application.html.erb <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <%= yield :refresh_tag %> </head> <body> <%= yield %> </body> </html> So then if I want to add a redirect-after-delay, I add the following to 1) my controller and 2) the action's view: app/controllers/my_controller.rb def my_action redirect_after_delay 'http://www.google.com', 3 if some_condition end app/views/my_controller/my_action.html.erb <% content_for :refresh_tag do %> <meta http-equiv='refresh' content='<%=@redirect_delay%>;url=<%=@redirect_url%>'> <% end %> <h1>Please wait while you are redirected...</h1> Since the content_for block never changes, is it possible to do this in some generic way so that I don't have to put <%= yield :refresh_tag %> in each template? (e.g. could redirect_after_delay add it into whatever template is going to be rendered?)

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  • Catchable fatal error: Object of class view_user could not be converted to string in C:\xampp\xampp\htdocs\textile\admin\view_class.php on line 9 [closed]

    - by user1282142
    <?php include('config.inc'); class view_user { function view($user) { $temp = mysql_query("SELECT * from register_user where user_name = '$user'"); $value = mysql_fetch_array($temp); $query = mysql_query("SELECT order_user.design_name, order_user.reaad, order_user.pick, order_user.yarn_detail FROM register_user INNER JOIN order_user ON register_user.register_id = '$value[register_id]' and order_user.register_id = $value[register_id]"); if($query) { echo "<center><table border = 1> <tr> <th>Design Name</th> <th>Read</th> <th>Pick</th> <th>Design Detail</th> </tr>"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<tr>"; echo "<td>$row[design_name]</td>"; echo "<td>$row[reaad]</td>"; echo "<td>$row[pick]</td>"; echo "<td>$row[yarn_detail]</td>"; echo"</tr></center>"; } } else { echo"User doesn't Exist"; include('footer1.php'); } } } ?>

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  • How do you lock down & secure files stored on server in ASP.NET?

    - by Jon
    How do I go about securing files that are stored on the server? We have an ASP.NET app which generates PDFs. These are not stored in the wwwroot folder but in another folder i.e. C:\inetpub\data. This provides more security but maybe not enough. The ASP.NET/IIS process will need write access to this folder so it generate the PDFs there. Once the pdf is generated, it can be viewed using an ASP.NET form called viewpdf.aspx with the file to be viewed add to the query string like so viewpdf.aspx?FILE=mynewfile.pdf. This is loaded from a gridview. The full path to C:\inetpub\data is resolved and loaded in the Page_load event of the viewer page. Now I'm wondering how to secure this. Anybody could just view the file. Not by entering in the URL, as it won't been seen by IIS (its not in wwwroot), but could change the querystring in the viewpdf page. How do I stop anybody hacking this?

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  • Beginner SQL section: avoiding repeated expression

    - by polygenelubricants
    I'm entirely new at SQL, but let's say that on the StackExchange Data Explorer, I just want to list the top 15 users by reputation, and I wrote something like this: SELECT TOP 15 DisplayName, Id, Reputation, Reputation/1000 As RepInK FROM Users WHERE RepInK > 10 ORDER BY Reputation DESC Currently this gives an Error: Invalid column name 'RepInK', which makes sense, I think, because RepInK is not a column in Users. I can easily fix this by saying WHERE Reputation/1000 > 10, essentially repeating the formula. So the questions are: Can I actually use the RepInK "column" in the WHERE clause? Do I perhaps need to create a virtual table/view with this column, and then do a SELECT/WHERE query on it? Can I name an expression, e.g. Reputation/1000, so I only have to repeat the names in a few places instead of the formula? What do you call this? A substitution macro? A function? A stored procedure? Is there an SQL quicksheet, glossary of terms, language specification, anything I can use to quickly pick up the syntax and semantics of the language? I understand that there are different "flavors"?

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  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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  • Cannot use Java 7 instalation if Java 8 is installed

    - by Sebastien Diot
    I normally still use Java 7 for all my coding projects (it's a company "politics" issue), but I installed Java 8 for one third-party project I am contributing to. Now, it seems I cannot have Java 8 installed in Windows 7 x64, and still use Java 7 by default: C:\>"%JAVA_HOME%\bin\java.exe" -version java version "1.7.0_55" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_55-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 24.55-b03, mixed mode) C:\>java.exe -version java version "1.8.0_05" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.8.0_05-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 25.5-b02, mixed mode) As you can see, JAVA_HOME is completely ignored. I also have Java in the path, using "%JAVA_HOME%\bin", which resolve correctly to Java 7 when I check the path in a DOS box, but it still makes no difference. I checked in the "Java Control Panel" (not sure if this affects the default command-line Java version). Under the "Java" tab, the "View..." button, you get to see "registered" Java versions. I can add all the versions under the "User" tab, but under "System" there is only Java 8, and no way to change it. Am I missing something, or did Oracle just make it impossible to use Java 7, unless I de-install Java 8? I don't want to have to specify the "source" and "target" everywhere, and I don't even know if it is possible for me to specify it everywhere, where Java is used. EDIT: What I did is I de-installed all Java. Then installed the latest Java7 (both 86 and x64), and then the latest Java8 (both 86 and x64). After I did that, I noticed that the x64 JDK was gone. It seems Java8 killed it. So I re-installed the JDK 7 x64, after the JDK 8 x64. Still, JDK7 x64 did not seem to "replace" the "java.exe" which is copied into the "Windows" directory itself (I assume THAT is the problem).

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  • Create a multicolor selectbox on Symfony2

    - by Ninsuo
    I try to create the following field : <select name="test"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3" style="font-weight: bold; color: red;">c</option> <option value="4">d</option> <option value="5">e</option> </select> This creates a 2-color selectbox : But in Symfony2, I do not know how to apply a class to a single option. If in my view I do : {{ form_widget(myForm.test, { 'attr': { 'class': 'red', } }) }} Or if in my form I do : $builder->add('test', 'choice', array( 'required' => true, 'choices' => array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e'), 'attr' => array('class' => 'red'), )); The attribute is stored into the <select> tag and apply to the whole selectable values. How do I apply a class to an <option> in Symfony2 ?

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

    - by Evgeny
    I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

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  • EXEC_BAD_ACCESS error comes in my applicatoin in iphone

    - by Jaimin
    when i print dictionary i got this error.. here my dictTf is mutabledictionay.. when i m in home page i selct few fields and click find. so new view comes with the result.. now i go back and again click find without changing anything.. now comes proper.. now at this moment when i go back it shows this in the dictionay and EXEC_BAD_ACCESS eror comes... Printing description of dictTf: The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. (gdb)

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  • Slow performance with MVC2 DisplayFor

    - by PretzelSteelersFan
    I'm iterating through a collection on my view model. The collection contains HealthLifeDentalRates which implement IBeginsEnds. I have a Display Template BeginsEnds that displays the date range. This results in very slow performance. If I simply the date range (see commented code), it's fine. I think how I'm defining the lambda is the problem but not sure how to change it. <% foreach (var item in Model.Data.OrderBy(x=x.HealthLifeDentalRateCode)) { % <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FiscalPeriodString()) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.HealthLifeDentalRateCode) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Rate) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.IsDental.YesNo()) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.DisplayFor(i = item, "BeginsEnds") % - <%= Html.Encode(item.Ends.ToDateString()) % -- <%= Html.Encode(String.Format("{0:g}", item.Loaded)) % - <%= Html.Encode(item.LoadedBy) % <% } %>

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  • Automating Excel 2010 using F#

    - by Clive Norman
    I have been searching for a FAQ to tell me how to open a Excel Workbook/Worksheet and also how to Save the File once I have finished. I notice that in most FAQ and all the books I have purchased on F# one is show how to create a new Workbook/Worksheet but is never shown how to either open or Save it. Being a newbie to F# I would very much appreciate it if anyone could kindly provide me with either an answer or perhaps a few pointers? Update As for why F# and not C# or VB? I am pleased to say that inspite of being a newbie (with the exception of Forth, VBA & Excel 2003, 2007 & 2010 and Visual Basic) I can do this in both VB, VBA & C# and since I've been retired on medical grounds, with plenty of time unfortunately on my hands, I like to continually set myself challenges to keep my little grey cells active and being a sucker for trying new languages....well! F# is now an intergral part of Visual Studio 2010 so I thought - why not. Consider this - if we are not willing to use or at least try a new languages - I would always be wonder if I might have prefer it to VBA, VB, C# ..... and if you look at it from another point of view, if no one is going to use it - why create it in the first place? I suppose you can say if cave men hadn't experimented and made fire by rubbing two sticks together - where would we be now and would matches have been invented? Although an complete answer would be good, I prefer a few pointers, to keep my challenge going. And lastly but not least - thank you for taking the trouble to respond!

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  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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  • In M-V-VM where does my code go?

    - by Nate Bross
    So, this is a pretty basic question I hope. I have a web service that I've added through Add Service Reference. It has some methods to get list and get detail of a perticular table in my database. What I'm trying to do is setup a UI as follows: App Load Load service proxy Call the GetList(); method display the results in a ListBox control User Double Clicks item in ListBox, display a modal dialog with a "detail" view I'm extremely new to using MVVM, so any help would be greatly appreciated. Additional information: // Service Interface (simplification): interface IService { IEnumerable<MyObject> GetList(); MyObject GetDetail(int id); } // Data object (simplification) class MyObject { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I'm thinking I should have something like this: MainWindow MyObjectViewUserControl Displays list Opens modal window on double click Specific Questions: What would my ViewModel class look like? Where does the code to handle the double click go? Inside the UserControl? Sorry for the long details, but I'm very new to the whole thing and I'm not educated enough to ask the right questions. I checked out the MVVM Sample from wpf.codeplex.com and something isn't quite clicking for me yet, because it seems very confusing.

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  • Shuffle Two NSMutableArray independently

    - by Superman
    I'm creating two NSMutableArray in my viewDidLoad, I add it in a NSMutableDictionary. When I tried shuffling it with one array, It is okay. But the problem is when Im shuffling two arrays independently its not working,somehow the indexes got mixed up. Here is my code for my array (I have two of these): self.items1 = [NSMutableArray new]; for(int i = 0; i <= 100; i++) { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *savedImagePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"[Images%d.png", i]]; if([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:savedImagePath]){ self.container = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [container setObject:[UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:savedImagePath] forKey:@"items1"]; [container setObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:i] forKey:@"index1"]; [items1 addObject:container]; } } NSLog(@"Count : %d", [items1 count]); [items1 enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id object, NSUInteger index, BOOL *stop) { NSLog(@"%@ images at index %d", object, index); }]; then my shuffle code(Which I tried duplicating for the other array,but not working also): srandom(time(NULL)); NSUInteger count = [items1 count]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < count; ++i) { int nElements = count - i; int n = (random() % nElements) + i; [items1 exchangeObjectAtIndex:i withObjectAtIndex:n]; } How am I going to shuffle it using above code (or if you have other suggestions) with two arrays? Thanks My other problem is when I tries subclassing the class for the shuffle method or either use the above code, their index mixed. For example: Object: apple, ball, carrots, dog Indexes: 1 2 3 4 but in my View when shuffled: Object: carrots, apple, dog, balle Indexes: 2 4 1 3

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  • Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

    - by Gidogeek
    Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

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