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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Best Practice: Protecting Personally Identifiable Data in a ASP.NET / SQL Server 2008 Environment

    - by William
    Thanks to a SQL injection vulnerability found last week, some of my recommendations are being investigated at work. We recently re-did an application which stores personally identifiable information whose disclosure could lead to identity theft. While we read some of the data on a regular basis, the restricted data we only need a couple of times a year and then only two employees need it. I've read up on SQL Server 2008's encryption function, but I'm not convinced that's the route I want to go. My problem ultimately boils down to the fact that we're either using symmetric keys or assymetric keys encrypted by a symmetric key. Thus it seems like a SQL injection attack could lead to a data leak. I realize permissions should prevent that, permissions should also prevent the leaking in the first place. It seems to me the better method would be to asymmetrically encrypt the data in the web application. Then store the private key offline and have a fat client that they can run the few times a year they need to access the restricted data so the data could be decrypted on the client. This way, if the server get compromised, we don't leak old data although depending on what they do we may leak future data. I think the big disadvantage is this would require re-writing the web application and creating a new fat application (to pull the restricted data). Due to the recent problem, I can probably get the time allocated, so now would be the proper time to make the recommendation. Do you have a better suggestion? Which method would you recommend? More importantly why?

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  • In M-V-VM where does my code go?

    - by Nate Bross
    So, this is a pretty basic question I hope. I have a web service that I've added through Add Service Reference. It has some methods to get list and get detail of a perticular table in my database. What I'm trying to do is setup a UI as follows: App Load Load service proxy Call the GetList(); method display the results in a ListBox control User Double Clicks item in ListBox, display a modal dialog with a "detail" view I'm extremely new to using MVVM, so any help would be greatly appreciated. Additional information: // Service Interface (simplification): interface IService { IEnumerable<MyObject> GetList(); MyObject GetDetail(int id); } // Data object (simplification) class MyObject { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I'm thinking I should have something like this: MainWindow MyObjectViewUserControl Displays list Opens modal window on double click Specific Questions: What would my ViewModel class look like? Where does the code to handle the double click go? Inside the UserControl? Sorry for the long details, but I'm very new to the whole thing and I'm not educated enough to ask the right questions. I checked out the MVVM Sample from wpf.codeplex.com and something isn't quite clicking for me yet, because it seems very confusing.

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  • MapView EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) and KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS

    - by user768113
    I'm having some 'issues' with my application... well, it crashes in an UIViewController that is presented modally, there the user enters information through UITextFields and his location is tracked by a MapView. Lets call this view controller "MapViewController" When the user submits the form, I call a different ViewController - modally again - that processes this info and a third one answers accordingly, then go back to a MenuVC using unwinding segues, which then calls MapViewController and so on. This sequence is repeated many times, but it always crashes in MapViewController. Looking at the crash log, I think that the MapView can be the problem of this or some element in the UI (because of the UIKit framework). I tried to use NSZombie in order to track a memory issue but it doesn't give me a clue about whats happening. Here is the crash log Hardware Model: iPad3,4 Process: MyApp [2253] OS Version: iOS 6.1.3 (10B329) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000044 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9be0 0x328ac000 + 56288 1 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9b8e 0x328ac000 + 56206deallocated instance 2 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328bc2f2 0x328ac000 + 66290 3 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328baf44 0x328ac000 + 61252 4 libGPUSupportMercury.dylib 0x370f86be 0x370f6000 + 9918 5 GLEngine 0x34ce8bd2 0x34c4f000 + 629714 6 GLEngine 0x34cea30e 0x34c4f000 + 635662 7 GLEngine 0x34c8498e 0x34c4f000 + 219534 8 GLEngine 0x34c81394 0x34c4f000 + 205716 9 VectorKit 0x3957f4de 0x394c7000 + 754910 10 VectorKit 0x3955552e 0x394c7000 + 582958 11 VectorKit 0x394d056e 0x394c7000 + 38254 12 VectorKit 0x394d0416 0x394c7000 + 37910 13 VectorKit 0x394cb7ca 0x394c7000 + 18378 14 VectorKit 0x394c9804 0x394c7000 + 10244 15 VectorKit 0x394c86a2 0x394c7000 + 5794 16 QuartzCore 0x354a07a4 0x35466000 + 239524 17 QuartzCore 0x354a06fc 0x35466000 + 239356 18 IOMobileFramebuffer 0x376f8fd4 0x376f4000 + 20436 19 IOKit 0x344935aa 0x34490000 + 13738 20 CoreFoundation 0x33875888 0x337e9000 + 575624 21 CoreFoundation 0x338803e4 0x337e9000 + 619492 22 CoreFoundation 0x33880386 0x337e9000 + 619398 23 CoreFoundation 0x3387f20a 0x337e9000 + 614922 24 CoreFoundation 0x337f2238 0x337e9000 + 37432 25 CoreFoundation 0x337f20c4 0x337e9000 + 37060 26 GraphicsServices 0x373ad336 0x373a8000 + 21302 27 UIKit 0x3570e2b4 0x356b7000 + 357044 28 MyApp 0x000ea12e 0xe9000 + 4398 29 MyApp 0x000ea0e4 0xe9000 + 4324 I think thats all, additionally, I would like to ask you: if you are using unwind segues then you are releasing view controllers from the memory heap, right? Meanwhile, performing segues let you instantiate those controllers. Technically, MenuVC should be the only VC alive in the heap during the app life cycle if you understand me.

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  • Finding a list of indices from master array using secondary array with non-unique entries

    - by fideli
    I have a master array of length n of id numbers that apply to other analogous arrays with corresponding data for elements in my simulation that belong to those id numbers (e.g. data[id]). Were I to generate a list of id numbers of length m separately and need the information in the data array for those ids, what is the best method of getting a list of indices idx of the original array of ids in order to extract data[idx]? That is, given: a=numpy.array([1,3,4,5,6]) # master array b=numpy.array([3,4,3,6,4,1,5]) # secondary array I would like to generate idx=numpy.array([1,2,1,4,2,0,3]) The array a is typically in sequential order but it's not a requirement. Also, array b will most definitely have repeats and will not be in any order. My current method of doing this is: idx=numpy.array([numpy.where(a==bi)[0][0] for bi in b]) I timed it using the following test: a=(numpy.random.uniform(100,size=100)).astype('int') b=numpy.repeat(a,100) timeit method1(a,b) 10 loops, best of 3: 53.1 ms per loop Is there a better way of doing this?

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  • How can I create global context variables in JBOSS?

    - by NobodyMan
    This is a follow-up to a question I posted a while back: "Can I use a single WAR in multiple environments?". I was able to create a single-war solution in Tomcat, but now we are migrating our app to JBoss 4.2 and I can't figure out how to set up global environment variables. In Tomcat 6 this was pretty straightforward: I simply put the following snippet in tomcat/conf/Catalina/myappname.xml: <Context ...> <Environment name="TARGET_ENV" value="DEV" type="java.lang.String" override="false"/> </Context> Then in my app I was able to resolve the environment name with the following: Context context = (Context) InitialContext().lookup("java:comp/env"); String targetEnvironment = (String) context.lookup("TARGET_ENV"); The problem is that I can't find out where/how to place global variables in JBoss. I've tried putting the <Environment> tag in the following files to no avail: server/all/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml server/default/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml I know that I can put environment variables in my app's web.xml but that defeats the purpose of having a unified war - I'd still need custom .war's for dev, qa and prod. I'm a JBoss newbie so if there's any additional information that would help just let me know and I'll append to this question. Many thanks! --N

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  • Running code/script as a result of a form submission in ASP.NET

    - by firmbeliever
    An outside vendor did some html work for us, and I'm filling in the actual functionality. I have an issue that I need help with. He created a simple html page that is opened as a modal pop-up. It contains a form with a few input fields and a submit button. On submitting, an email should be sent using info from the input fields. I turned his simple html page into a simple aspx page, added runat=server to the form, and added the c# code inside script tags to create and send the email. It technically works but has a big issue. After the information is submitted and the email is sent, the page (which is supposed to just be a modal pop-up type thing) gets reloaded, but it is now no longer a pop-up. It's reloaded as a standalone page. So I'm trying to find out if there is a way to get the form to just execute those few lines of c# code on submission without reloading the form. I'm somewhat aware of cgi scripts, but from what I've read, that can be buggy with IIS and all. Plus I'd like to think I could get these few lines of code to run without creating a separate executable. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Data structure to build and lookup set of integer ranges

    - by actual
    I have a set of uint32 integers, there may be millions of items in the set. 50-70% of them are consecutive, but in input stream they appear in unpredictable order. I need to: Compress this set into ranges to achieve space efficient representation. Already implemented this using trivial algorithm, since ranges computed only once speed is not important here. After this transformation number of resulting ranges is typically within 5 000-10 000, many of them are single-item, of course. Test membership of some integer, information about specific range in the set is not required. This one must be very fast -- O(1). Was thinking about minimal perfect hash functions, but they do not play well with ranges. Bitsets are very space inefficient. Other structures, like binary trees, has complexity of O(log n), worst thing with them that implementation make many conditional jumps and processor can not predict them well giving poor performance. Is there any data structure or algorithm specialized in integer ranges to solve this task?

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  • WPF CollectionViewSource Grouping

    - by Miles
    I'm using a Collection View Source to group my data. In my data, I have Property1 and Property2 that I'm needing to group on. The only stipulation is that I don't want sub-groups of another group. So, when I group by these two properties, I don't want to have it so that Property2 because a subgroup of Property1's group. The reason why I'm wanting this is because I'm wanting to have a header that shows the following information: Header: <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="Property1: {0}, Property2: {1}"> <Binding Path="Property1"/> <Binding Path="Property2"/> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> I've tried this with my CollectionViewSource but was not able to "combine" the group and subgroup together: <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myKey" Source="{Binding myDataSource}"> <CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property1" /> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property2" /> </CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> Is it possible to group two properties together? Something like below? <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myKey" Source="{Binding myDataSource}"> <CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property1,Property2" /> </CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource>

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  • Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

    - by DBase486
    Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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  • How the reading from and writing to sockets are synchronized?

    - by Roman
    We create a socket. On one side of the socket we have a "server" and on another side there is a "client". Both, the server and client, can write to and read from the socket. It is what i understand. I do not understand the following things: If a server reads from the socket, does it see in the socket only those stuff which was written to the socket by the client? I mean if server writes something to the socket and than reads from the socket, will it (server) see in the socket the stuff it (server) wrote there? I hope not. Let's consider the following situation. A client write something to the socket and then it writes something new to the socket and then server reads from the socket. What will the server see there? Only the "new" stuff written by the client or both "new" and "old" one? If a client (or server) writes to the socket, can it see if the written information was received by other side? For example out.println("Hello, Server!") will return true it server received this message.

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  • Groovy htmlunit getFirstByXPath returning null

    - by StartingGroovy
    I have had a few issues with HtmlUnit returning nulls lately and am looking for guidance. each of my results for grabbing the first row of a website have returned null. I am wondering if someone can A) explain why they might be returning null B) explain better ways (if there are some) to go about getting the information Here is my current code (URL is in the source): client = new WebClient(BrowserVersion.FIREFOX_3) client.javaScriptEnabled = false def url = "http://www.hidemyass.com/proxy-list/" page = client.getPage(url) IpAddress = page.getFirstByXPath("//html/body/div/div/form/table/tbody/tr/td[2]").getValue() println "IP Address is: $data" //returns null //Port_Number is an Image Country = page.getFirstByXPath("//html/body/div/div/form/table/tbody/tr/td[4][@class='country']/@rel").getValue() println "Country abbreviation is: $Country" //differentiate speed and connection by name of gif? Type = page.getFirstByXPath("//html/body/div/div/form/table/tbody/tr/td[7]").getValue() println "Proxy type is: $Type" Anonymity = page.getFirstByXPath("//html/body/div/div/form/table/tbody/tr/td[8]").getValue() println "Anonymity Level is: $Anonymity" client.closeAllWindows() Right now all of my XPaths return null and .getValue() obviously doesn't work on null. I also have questions as to what I should do about the PORT since it is an image? Is there a better alternative than downloading it and attempting to solve it by OCR? Side Note There is no significance in this site, I was just looking for a site that I could practice scraping on (the last one I ran into issues of fragment identities and couldn't get an answer to: HtmlUnit getByXpath returns null and HtmlUnit and Fragment Identities )

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  • How to check if new version of Chrome is available?

    - by serg
    I am trying to build an extension that would notify a user when new version of Chrome is available. I tried to inspect network traffic when Chrome is checking for an update and it is sending a request to http://74.125.95.113/service/update2?w=3:{long_encoded_string} page that returns XML with information I need: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <gupdate xmlns="http://www.google.com/update2/response" protocol="2.0" server="prod"> <daystart elapsed_seconds="31272"/> <app appid="{8A69D345-D564-463C-AFF1-A69D9E530F96}" status="ok"> <updatecheck status="noupdate"/> <ping status="ok"/> </app> </gupdate> Besides sending {long_encoded_string} as URL parameter it is also sending some encoded cookie. Maybe someone familiar with Chrome build process can shed some light on those encoded strings and how to build them? Maybe there is another easier way (I have a feeling that string encoding is a dead end for me)?

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  • How to format individual DropDownlist Items (color, etc.) during onDataBinding event

    - by LesterDove
    Hi, I have a basic DropDownList bound to a ObjectDataSource: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" DataSourceID="objDataSource1" DataTextField="FieldName" DataValueField="FieldID" /> The DataTable from which it receives the DataTextField and DataValueField values also returns some other interesting information about the records. Say Active = Y/N for simplicity's sake. What I'd like to do is to set the background-color property of the DropDownList Item based on that Active field in the DataSource results. Further, I'd like to do this "in the same pass" as when the DropDownList is bound to the data. So my guess is that it has to happen during OnDataBinding. Things I already know/tried: I could go back and loop through the DropDownList items later. But it would involve embedding loops and re-visiting the DataTable rows and it just seems inefficient int row; for (row = 0; row < DropDownList1.Items.Count - 1; row++) { [[if this row = that data row]] DropDownList1.Items[row].[[DoStuffHere, etc.]] } We already do stuff like this with the GridView OnRowDataBound event, by accessing the GridViewRowEventArgs e. What I seem to be missing is an "OnDropDownListItemBound" event, so to speak. Hope I've been clear and concise. Seems as though it should be easy...

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  • Blackberry app development - Drawing graphics on top of rendered text/buttons etc

    - by paullb
    Based off the one of the demos I have the following code. Currently what displays in the simulator is just hte contents of the paint function, however the ObjectChoiceField is still selectable if one happens to click in the right location. I would like both the text contents and the paint function contents to appear. Is this possible? public CityInfoScreen() { //invoke the MainScreen constructor super(); //add a screen title LabelField title = new LabelField("City Information Kiosk", LabelField.ELLIPSIS | LabelField.USE_ALL_WIDTH); setTitle(title); //add a text label add(new RichTextField("Major U.S. Cities")); //add a drop-down list with three choices: //Los Angeles, Chicago, or New York //... String choices[] = {"Los Angeles","Chicago","New York"}; choiceField = new ObjectChoiceField("select a city", choices); add(choiceField); Manager man = this.getMainManager(); } ... public void paint(Graphics g){ super.paint(g); // g.drawRect(0,left,500,500+left); g.setGlobalAlpha(0); g.drawRect(100-left,100-top,200,200); String text = new Integer(left).toString(); String text2 = new Integer(top).toString(); g.drawText(text + " " + text2,120-left,120-top); }

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  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

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  • How do I send data between two computers over the internet

    - by Johan
    I have been struggling with this for the entire day now, I hope somebody can help me with this. My problem is fairly simple: I wish to transfer data (mostly simple commands) from one PC to another over the internet. I have been able to achieve this using sockets in Java when both computers are connected to my home router. I then connected both computers to the internet using two different mobile phones and attempted to transmit the data again. I used the mobile phones as this provides a direct route to the internet and if I use my router I have to set up port forwarding, at least, that is how I understand it. I think the problem lies in the method that I set up the client socket. I used: Socket kkSocket = new Socket(ipAddress, 3333); where ipAddress is the IP address of the computer running the server. I got the IP address by right-clicking on the connection, status, support. Is that the correct IP address to use or where can I obtain the address of the server? Also, is it possible to get a fixed name for my computer that I can use instead of entering the IP address, as this changes every time I connect to the internet using my mobile phone? Alternatively, are there better methods to solving my problem such as using http, and if so, where can I find more information about this? Thanks!

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  • pythonpath issue? "python2.5: can't open file 'dev_appserver.py': [Errno 2] No such file or director

    - by Linc
    I added this line to my .bashrc (Ubuntu 9.10): export PYTHONPATH=/opt/google_appengine/ And then I ran the dev_appserver through python2.5 on Ubuntu like this: $ python2.5 dev_appserver.py guestbook/ python2.5: can't open file 'dev_appserver.py': [Errno 2] No such file or directory As you can see, it can't find dev_appserver.py even though it's in my /opt/google_appengine/ directory. Just to make sure it's not a permissions issue I did this: sudo chmod a+rwx dev_appserver.py To check whether it's been added to the system path for python2.5 I did this: $ python2.5 Python 2.5.5 (r255:77872, Apr 29 2010, 23:59:20) [GCC 4.4.1] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import sys >>> for line in sys.path: print line ... /usr/local/lib/python2.5/site-packages/setuptools-0.6c9-py2.5.egg /opt/google_appengine/demos /opt/google_appengine /usr/local/lib/python25.zip ... The directory shows up in this list so I don't understand why it can't be found when I type: $ python2.5 dev_appserver.py guestbook/ I'm new to Python so I would appreciate any help. Thanks.

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  • Managing project configurations in VS 2010

    - by Toby
    I'm working on a solution with multiple projects (class libraries, interop, web application, etc) in VS2010. For the web application, I would like to take advantage of the config transformations in VS2010, so at one point I added configurations for each of our environments: Development, Test, Production, and so on. Some time later, after having rearranged the project layout, I noticed that some projects show all of the configurations in the properties page dropdown. Some projects (added since I did that setup) show only the standard Debug & Release configurations. Once I realized that this was going to make build configurations worse, not better, I decided to remove all of the extra configurations I had added. I've removed all of the various configuration options from the solution, but the projects that had the alternate configuration options still have them, and I can't figure out how to get rid of them in individual projects. Also, now that I see that not all projects have to have the same configurations, I would like to create my environmental configurations at the solution level, and in the web application project (for the config transforms), but leave all of the class libraries with the basic Debug/Release configurations. I've been unable to find any tool in the UI, or any information on the 'Net, concerning how to set up such a thing. So, in short, what's the best/easiest way to manage configurations at the project level in VS2010?

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • Fastest XML parser for small, simple documents in Java

    - by Varkhan
    I have to objectify very simple and small XML documents (less than 1k, and it's almost SGML: no namespaces, plain UTF-8, you name it...), read from a stream, in Java. I am using JAXP to process the data from my stream into a Document object. I have tried Xerces, it's way too big and slow... I am using Dom4j, but I am still spending way too much time in org.dom4j.io.SAXReader. Does anybody out there have any suggestion on a faster, more efficient implementation, keeping in mind I have very tough CPU and memory constraints? [Edit 1] Keep in mind that my documents are very small, so the overhead of staring the parser can be important. For instance I am spending as much time in org.xml.sax.helpers.XMLReaderFactory.createXMLReader as in org.dom4j.io.SAXReader.read [Edit 2] The result has to be in Dom format, as I pass the document to decision tools that do arbitrary processing on it, like switching code based on the value of arbitrary XPaths, but also extracting lists of values packed as children of a predefined node. [Edit 3] In any case I eventually need to load/parse the complete document, since all the information it contains is going to be used at some point. (This question is related to, but different from, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/373833/best-xml-parser-for-java )

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  • How to programmatically create a node in Drupal 8?

    - by chapka
    I'm designing a new module in Drupal 8. It's a long-term project that won't be going public for a few months at least, so I'm using it as a way to figure out what's new. In this module, I want to be able to programmatically create nodes. In Drupal 7, I would do this by creating the object, then calling "node_submit" and "node_save". These functions no longer exist in Drupal 8. Instead, according to the documentation, "Modules and scripts may programmatically submit nodes using the usual form API pattern." I'm at a loss. What does this mean? I've used Form API to create forms in Drupal 7, but I don't get what the docs are saying here. What I'm looking to do is programmatically create at least one and possibly multiple new nodes, based on information not taken directly from a user-presented form. I need to be able to: 1) Specify the content type 2) Specify the URL path 3) Set any other necessary variables that would previously have been handled by the now-obsolete node_object_prepare() 4) Commit the new node object I would prefer to be able to do this in an independent, highly abstracted function not tied to a specific block or form. So what am I missing?

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  • How to get address the object of an related entity with CoreData ?

    - by eemceebee
    Hi Ok, after I ran into a dead end modifieing an existing Apple example for CoreData, I started completely new creating my own project and that worked fine,..... until I tried to access a related entity. So here is what I did. I created 2 entities, where one is just the detail information of the other one, so there is a one-2-one relationship. Entity #1, Stocks: name value details -- relationship to Entity #2 Entity #2, StockDetails: bank published stock -- relationship to Entity #1 Now, I created the "Managed Object Class" for both of the Entities. Then I created a few lines to put some data into it NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self managedObjectContext]; Stocks *stockinfo= [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Stocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; stockinfo.name = @"Apple"; stockinfo.value = [NSNumber numberWithInt:200]; StockDetails *thestockdetails = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"StockDetails" inManagedObjectContext:context]; thestockdetails.bank = @"Bank of America"; thestockdetails.published = [NSDate date]; thestockdetails.stock = stocks_; stockinfo.details = thestockdetails ; NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { NSLog(@"A Problem occured, couldn't save: %@", [error localizedDescription]); } Just want to mention here, that I do not get an error with this. Next I put everything into a UITableViewController for a preview and another for a detail view. The preview just shows infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) and when selected it shows the detail view. Now here I also display the infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) but I want to show the Entity #2 (StockDetails) aswell. This is how I try to access the data : StockDetails *details_ = [stockinfo details]; And this gives me a EXC_BAD_ACCESS. So any idea what I am doing wrong here ? Thanks

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  • Some questions about special operators i've never seen in C++ code.

    - by toto
    I have downloaded the Phoenix SDK June 2008 (Tools for compilers) and when I'm reading the code of the Hello sample, I really feel lost. public ref class Hello { //-------------------------------------------------------------------------- // // Description: // // Class Variables. // // Remarks: // // A normal compiler would have more flexible means for holding // on to all this information, but in our case it's simplest (if // somewhat inelegant) if we just keep references to all the // structures we'll need to access as classstatic variables. // //-------------------------------------------------------------------------- static Phx::ModuleUnit ^ module; static Phx::Targets::Runtimes::Runtime ^ runtime; static Phx::Targets::Architectures::Architecture ^ architecture; static Phx::Lifetime ^ lifetime; static Phx::Types::Table ^ typeTable; static Phx::Symbols::Table ^ symbolTable; static Phx::Phases::PhaseConfiguration ^ phaseConfiguration; 2 Questions : What's that ref keyword? What is that sign ^ ? What is it doing protected: virtual void Execute ( Phx::Unit ^ unit ) override; }; override is a C++ keyword too? It's colored as such in my Visual Studio. I really want to play with this framework, but this advanced C++ is really an obstacle right now. Thank you.

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  • SSL + Jquery + Ajax

    - by chobo2
    Hi I starting too look at a bit of security into my site. My site I would consider a very low security risk as it has really no personal information from the user other than email. However the security risk will go up a bit as I am partnering with a company and the initial password for this companies users will be the same password they use essentially to get onto the network and every piece of software. So I have up my security( what is fine by me...I wanted to get around to this anyways). So one of my security concerns is this. A user logs in. form submit(non ajax is done). Password is hashed & Salted and compared to one in the database. Reject or let them proceed. So this uses no jquery or ajax but is just asp.net mvc and C#. Still if my understanding is right the password is sent in clear text. So if a use SSL and I would not need to worry about that is this correct? If that is true is that all I need? Second the user can change their password at anytime. This is done through ajax. So when the password is sent it is sent in clear text( and I can verify this by looking at firebug). So if I have SSL enabled on this page is that all I need or do I need to do more? So I am just kinda confused of what I need to make the password being sent to the server(both ajax and full post ways secure). I am not sure if I need to do more then SSL or if that is enough and if it is not enough what is the next layer of security?

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