Search Results

Search found 24931 results on 998 pages for 'information visualization'.

Page 842/998 | < Previous Page | 838 839 840 841 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849  | Next Page >

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

  • error while reading Excel sheet

    - by Lalit
    Hi, I have code to read Excel from c3 language : DataTable dtChildrenData = new DataTable(); OdbcConnection oConn = null; try { if (File.Exists(strSheetPath)) { oConn = new OdbcConnection(); oConn.ConnectionString = @"DSN=Excel Files;DBQ=" + strSheetPath + @";DriverId=1046;FIL=excel 12.0;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;"; OdbcCommand oComm = new OdbcCommand(); oComm.Connection = oConn; oComm.CommandText = "Select * From [Sheet1$]"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); OdbcDataAdapter oAdapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(oComm); oConn.Open(); oAdapter.Fill(ds); dtChildrenData = ds.Tables[0]; } } finally { oConn.Close(); } return dtChildrenData; But getting this error when i deploy the web application on IIS. Wherere as it is running fine locally. ERROR [IM002] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified How to solve this. Please let me know if any information required to answer this question (about configuration)

    Read the article

  • SQL server 2005 agent not working

    - by flaggers
    Sql server 2005 service pack 2 version: 9.00.3042.00 All maintenance plans fail with the same error. The details of the error are:- Execute Maintenance Plan Execute maintenance plan. test7 (Error) Messages Execution failed. See the maintenance plan and SQL Server Agent job history logs for details. The advanced information section shows the following; Job 'test7.Subplan_1' failed. (SqlManagerUI) Program Location: at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.SqlManagerUI.MaintenancePlanMenu_Run.PerformActions() At this point the following appear in the windows event log: Event Type: Error Event Source: SQLISPackage Event Category: None Event ID: 12291 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:08 User: 'DOMAINNAME\username' Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: Package "test7" failed. and also this: Event Type: Warning Event Source: SQLSERVERAGENT Event Category: Job Engine Event ID: 208 Date: 28/05/2009 Time: 16:09:10 User: N/A Computer: SQLSERVER4 Description: SQL Server Scheduled Job 'test7.Subplan_1' (0x96AE7493BFF39F4FBBAE034AB6DA1C1F) - Status: Failed - Invoked on: 2009-05-28 16:09:02 - Message: The job failed. The Job was invoked by User 'DOMAINNAME\username'. The last step to run was step 1 (Subplan_1). There are no entries in the SQl Agent log at all.

    Read the article

  • adding a div with data()

    - by Dizzy Bryan High
    Hi people am generating a list of flash swfs, the information comes from an ajax call which returns a json object which i loop through to create the rows of data using my makeAppRow function. makeAppRow = function(myData){ var myStr = '<div class="fileEntry">' myStr = myStr +'<div class="appDate">'+dateFormat(myData.date_swf, "dS mmmm, yyyy, h:MM TT")+'</div>' myStr = myStr +'<div class="appName">'+myData.name_swf+'</div>' myStr = myStr +'<div class="appOptions" data>' myStr = myStr +'<div class="gotoAppBtn" data-options="'+myData+'">Open App</div>' myStr = myStr +'</div>' myStr = myStr +'</div>' $('#appData').append(myStr); } I need the json data to be attached to the gotoAppBtn so that when its clicked i can read in the data from the attached json object and use it in my click function, as you can see ive been trying to embed the data using the html5 data but i cant get it to work. <div class="gotoAppBtn" data-options="'+myData+'">Open App</div> i have a function so that when the button is clicked it loads in an swf. $('.gotoAppBtn').live('click', function(){ //alert('button clicked') var myData = $(this).data("options") alert('../userfiles/'+myData.id_ugp+'/'+myData.id_swf+'/'+myData.launchfile_swf+'') console.log(myData); var flashvars = {}; var params = {}; params.menu = "false"; params.quality = "best"; params.scale = "noscale"; var attributes = {}; attributes.id = "flashAppDisplay"; attributes.name = "flashAppDisplay"; swfobject.embedSWF( '../userfiles/'+myData.id_ugp+'/'+myData.id_swf+'/'+myData.launchfile_swf+'', 'flashAppDisplay', myData.width_swf, myData.height_swf, myData.version_swf ,"../FAVideo/expressInstall.swf", flashvars, params, attributes) }); but the data does not seem to be there, any pointers on where i am going wrong, or a better way to achive this???

    Read the article

  • Query to look up comment in one table, username in another table

    - by John
    Hello, I am using a MySQL table called "login" with the following structure: loginid, username, password, email, actcode, disabled, activated, created, points I am using another MySQL table called "comment" with the following structure: commentid, loginid, submissionid, comment, datecommented For a given "submisssionid", I would like to print out the following information from the table "comment": -The fields "comment" and "datecommented". At the same time, I would like to print out the following from the table "login": -The "username" that corresponds to the "loginid" for each row being row being selected from the table "comment". How can I do this? I tried the code below but it did not work. Thanks in advance, John $submission = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submission']); $submissionid = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submissionid']); $sqlStr = "SELECT c.loginid ,c.submissionid ,c.comment ,c.datecommented ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM comment c WHERE c.submissionid = $submissionid INNER JOIN login l ON c.loginid = l.loginid GROUP BY c.submissionid ORDER BY c.datecommented DESC LIMIT 100"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1">'.$row["comment"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a>'.$row["datecommented"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

    Read the article

  • How to Treat Race Condition of Session in Web Application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I was in a ASP.NET application has heavy traffic of AJAX requests. Once a user login our web application, a session is created to store information of this user's state. Currently, our solution to keep session data consistent is quite simple and brutal: each request needs to acquire a exclusive lock before being processed. This works fine for tradition web application. But, when the web application turns to support AJAX, it turns to not efficient. It is quite possible that multiple AJAX requests are sent to server at the same time without reloading the web page. If all AJAX requests are serialized by the exclusive lock, the response is not so quick. Anyway, many AJAX requests that doesn't access same session variables are blocked as well. If we don't have a exclusive lock for each requests, then we need to treat all race condition carefully to avoid dead lock. I'm afraid that would make the code complex and buggy. So, is there any best practice to keep session data consistent and keep code simple and clean?

    Read the article

  • Where should an application's default folder live?

    - by HotOil
    Hi: I'm creating a little app that configures a connected device and then saves the config information in a file. The filename cannot be chosen by the user, but its location can be chosen. Where is the best place for the app's default save-to folder? I have seen examples out there where it is the "MyDocuments" location (eg Visual Studio does this). I have seen a folder created right at the top of the C:\ drive. I find that to be a little obnoxious, personally. It could be in the Program Files[Manufacturer] or Program Files[Product Name], or wherever the app was installed. I have used this location in the past; I dislike it because Windows Explorer does not allow a user to browse to there very easily ('browsability'). Going with this last notion that 'browsability' is a factor, I suppose MyDocuments is the best choice. Is this the most common, most widely accepted practice? I think historically we have chosen the install folder because that co-locates the data with the device management utilities. But I would really like to get away from that. I don't want the user to have to go pawing through system files to find his/her data, esp if that person is not too Windows-savvy. Also, I am using the .NET WinForms FolderBrowserDialog, and the "Environment.SpecialFolders" enum isn't helpful in setting up the dialog to point into the Program Files folder. Thanks for your input! Suz.

    Read the article

  • Why do I get a security warning in visual studio 2008 when creating a project?

    - by MikeG
    This is the error, it's basically a security warning (And here's the text grabbed off the dialog box) Security Warning for WindowsApplication4 __________________________I The WindowsApplication4 project file has been customized and could present a security risk by executing custom build steps when opened in Microsoft Visual Studio. If this project came from an untrustwoithy source, it could cause damage to your computer or compromise your private information. More Details Project load options 0 Load project for browsing Opens the project in Microsoft Visual Studio with increased security. This option allows you to browse the contents of the project, but some functionality, such as IntelliSense, is restricted, When a project is loaded for browsing, actions such as building, cleaning, publishing, or opening designers could still remain unsafe. Load project normally Opens the project normally in Microsoft Visual Studio. Use this option if you trust the source and understand the potential risks involved. Microsoft Visual Studio does not restrict any project functionality and will not prompt you again for this project. Ask me for every project in this solution OK L Cancel When click the more details button get this: Microsoft Visual Studio __ An item referring to the file was found in the project file “C:\Users\mgriffiths\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\ProjectATemp\Win dowsApplication4\WindowsApplicdtion4\W in dowsApplication4.vbproj”. Since this file is located within a system directory, root directory, or network share, it could be harmful to write to this file. OK

    Read the article

  • creating new instance fails PHP

    - by as3isolib
    I am relatively new to PHP and having some decent success however I am running into this issue: If I try to create a new instance of the class GenericEntryVO, I get a 500 error with little to no helpful error information. However, if I use a generic object as the result, I get no errors. I'd like to be able to cast this object as a GenericEntryVO as I am using AMFPHP to communicate serialize data with a Flex client. I've read a few different ways to create constructors in PHP but the typical 'public function Foo()' for a class Foo was recommended for PHP 5.4.4 //in my EntryService.php class public function getEntryByID($id) { $link = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "root", "BabyTrackingAppDB"); if (mysqli_connect_errno()) { printf("Connect failed: %s\n", mysqli_connect_error()); exit(); } $query = "SELECT * FROM Entries WHERE id = '$id' LIMIT 1"; if ($result = mysqli_query($link, $query)) { // $entry = new GenericEntryVO(); this is where the problem lies! while ($row = mysqli_fetch_row($result)) { $entry->id = $row[0]; $entry->entryType = $row[1]; $entry->title = $row[2]; $entry->description = $row[3]; $entry->value = $row[4]; $entry->created = $row[5]; $entry->updated = $row[6]; } } mysqli_free_result($result); mysqli_close($link); return $entry; } //my GenericEntryVO.php class <?php class GenericEntryVO { public function __construct() { } public $id; public $title; public $entryType; public $description; public $value; public $created; public $updated; // public $properties; } ?>

    Read the article

  • How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I have an application, currently written in C#, which can take a Base64-encoded string and turn it into an Image (a TIFF image in this case), and vice versa. In C# this is actually pretty simple. private byte[] ImageToByteArray(Image img) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); img.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Tiff); return ms.ToArray(); } private Image byteArrayToImage(byte[] byteArrayIn) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(byteArrayIn); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(ms); bw.Write(byteArrayIn); Image returnImage = Image.FromStream(ms, true, false); return returnImage; } // Convert Image into string byte[] imagebytes = ImageToByteArray(anImage); string Base64EncodedStringImage = Convert.ToBase64String(imagebytes); // Convert string into Image byte[] imagebytes = Convert.FromBase64String(Base64EncodedStringImage); Image anImage = byteArrayToImage(imagebytes); (and, now that I'm looking at it, could be simplified even further) I now have a business need to do this in C++. I'm using GDI+ to draw the graphics (Windows only so far) and I already have code to decode the string in C++ (to another string). What I'm stumbling on, however, is getting the information into an Image object in GDI+. At this point I figure I need either a) A way of converting that Base64-decoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function b) A way to convert the Base64-encoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function (so, different code than I'm currently using) c) Some completely different way I'm not thinking of here. My C++ skills are very rusty and I'm also spoiled by the managed .NET platform, so if I'm attacking this all wrong I'm open to suggestions.

    Read the article

  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

    Read the article

  • Passing a WHERE clause for a Linq-to-Sql query as a parameter

    - by Mantorok
    Hi all This is probably pushing the boundaries of Linq-to-Sql a bit but given how versatile it has been so far I thought I'd ask. I have 3 queries that are selecting identical information and only differ in the where clause, now I know I can pass a delegate in but this only allows me to filter the results already returned, but I want to build up the query via parameter to ensure efficiency. Here is the query: from row in DataContext.PublishedEvents join link in DataContext.PublishedEvent_EventDateTimes on row.guid equals link.container join time in DataContext.EventDateTimes on link.item equals time.guid where row.ApprovalStatus == "Approved" && row.EventType == "Event" && time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) orderby time.StartDate select new EventDetails { Title = row.EventName, Description = TrimDescription(row.Description) }; The code I want to apply via a parameter would be: time.StartDate <= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1) && (!time.EndDate.HasValue || time.EndDate.Value >= DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(1)) Is this possible? I don't think it is but thought I'd check out first. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Calculating a consecutive streak in data

    - by Jura25
    I’m trying to calculate the maximum winning and losing streak in a dataset (i.e. the highest number of consecutive positive or negative values). I’ve found a somewhat related question here on StackOverflow and even though that gave me some good suggestions, the angle of that question is different, and I’m not (yet) experienced enough to translate and apply that information to this problem. So I was hoping you could help me out, even an suggestion would be great. My data set look like this: > subRes Instrument TradeResult.Currency. 1 JPM -3 2 JPM 264 3 JPM 284 4 JPM 69 5 JPM 283 6 JPM -219 7 JPM -91 8 JPM 165 9 JPM -35 10 JPM -294 11 KFT -8 12 KFT -48 13 KFT 125 14 KFT -150 15 KFT -206 16 KFT 107 17 KFT 107 18 KFT 56 19 KFT -26 20 KFT 189 > split(subRes[,2],subRes[,1]) $JPM [1] -3 264 284 69 283 -219 -91 165 -35 -294 $KFT [1] -8 -48 125 -150 -206 107 107 56 -26 189 In this case, the maximum (winning) streak for JPM is four (namely the 264, 284, 69 and 283 consecutive positive results) and for KFT this value is 3 (107, 107, 56). My goal is to create a function which gives the maximum winning streaks per instrument (i.e. JPM: 4, KFT: 3). To achieve that: R needs to compare the current result with the previous result, and if it is higher then there is a streak of at least 2 consecutive positive results. Then R needs to look at the next value, and if this is also higher: add 1 to the already found value of 2. If this value isn’t higher, R needs to move on to the next value, while remembering 2 as the intermediate maximum. I’ve tried cumsum and cummax in accordance with conditional summing (like cumsum(c(TRUE, diff(subRes[,2]) > 0))), which didn’t work out. Also rle in accordance with lapply (like lapply(rle(subRes$TradeResult.Currency.), function(x) diff(x) > 0)) didn’t work. How can I make this work?

    Read the article

  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

    Read the article

  • opengl + glew in Eclipse (for windows)

    - by echo
    I'm trying to get glew to work under eclipse (mingw) in windows. Seems as if it is extremely unusual not to use Visual Studio in this context. The install instructions for glew is simply "use the project file in build/vc6/"... The glew readme also writes: "If you wish to build GLEW from scratch (update the extension data from the net or add your own extension information), you need a Unix environment (including wget, perl, and GNU make). The extension data is regenerated from the top level source directory with: make extensions" In order to get glew to work in eclipse and windows I have to compile it in a unix environment? Is there no other way? Sure, it would probably be a learning experience to pull that off (if I were to succeed) but I feel that my time is best spent actually working on my project. And even if I did manage to crosscompile everything, would it work in anything but Visual Studio? Is the whole thing unfeasible and the best solution is to install Visual Studio? Google haven't been of much help, I feel like I am the only one that has ever attempted to do this (is there a good reason this?).

    Read the article

  • Partial slideDown with jQuery

    - by Jon
    I have some buttons that have drawer menus and what I'd like to do is add a state so that when the user hovers over the button, the drawer bumps out slightly (maybe with a little wiggle/rubber-banding) so that they know that there's a drawer with more information. I have the sliding working and a hover function set up, but I don't know how to implement a partial slideDown. Any ideas? FIDDLE. Code: <div class="clause"> <div class="icon"><img src="http://i.imgur.com/rTu40.png"/></div> <div class="label">Location</div> <div class="info">Midwest > Indiana, Kentucky; Southwest > Texas, Nevada, Utah; Pacific > California, Hawaii</div> </div> <div class="drawer">Info 1<br/><br/></div> <div class="drawerBottom"></div> $(".clause").click(function() { var tmp = $(this).next("div.drawer"); if(tmp.is(":hidden")) tmp.slideDown('3s'); else tmp.slideUp('3s'); }); $(".clause").hover(function() { });

    Read the article

  • Database structure for ecommerce site

    - by imanc
    Hey Guys, I have been tasked with designing an ecommerce solution. The aspect that is causing me the most problems is the database. Currently the site consists of 10+ country based shops each with their own database (all residing on the same mysql instance). For the new site I'd rather all these shop databases be merged into one database so that all tables (products, orders, customers etc.) have a shop_id field. From a programming perspective this seems to make the most sense as we won't have to manage data across multiple databases. Currently the entire site generates about 120k orders a year, but is experiencing fairly heavy growth and we need to design a solution that will scale. In 5 years there may be more than a million orders per year and a database that contains 5 years order history (archiving maybe a solution here). The question is - do we use a single database, or do we keep the database-per-shop structure? I am currently trying to find supporting evidence for either avenue. The company I am designing the solution for prefer the per-shop database structure because they believe it will allow the sites to scale. But my argument is that the shop's database probably won't get that busy over the next few years that they exceed the capacity of a mysql database and a "no expenses spared" hardware set-up. I am wondering if anyone has any advice either way? Does anyone have experience with websites / ecommerce sites that have tables containing millions of records? I know there is probably not a clear answer here, but at what stage do we have too many records or too large table files to have a fast loading site? Also, if anyone has any advice on sources of information - books, websites, etc. where I can do further research, it would be highly appreciated! Cheers, imanc

    Read the article

  • Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

    - by Tyler McHenry
    I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

    Read the article

  • pyPDF - Retrieve page numbers from document

    - by SquidneyPoitier
    At the moment I'm looking into doing some PDF merging with pyPdf, but sometimes the inputs are not in the right order, so I'm looking into scraping each page for its page number to determine the order it should go in (e.g. if someone split up a book into 20 10-page PDFs and I want to put them back together). I have two questions - 1.) I know that sometimes the page number is stored in the document data somewhere, as I've seen PDFs that render on Adobe as something like [1243] (10 of 150), but I've read documents of this sort into pyPDF and I can't find any information indicating the page number - where is this stored? 2.) If avenue #1 isn't available, I think I could iterate through the objects on a given page to try to find a page number - likely it would be its own object that has a single number in it. However, I can't seem to find any clear way to determine the contents of objects. If I run: pdf.getPage(0).getContents() This usually either returns: {'/Filter': '/FlateDecode'} or it returns a list of IndirectObject(num, num) objects. I don't really know what to do with either of these and there's no real documentation on it as far as I can tell. Is anyone familiar with this kind of thing that could point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Java: Help constructing a fillTextFields() method

    - by Holly
    I have a Java project where I am to connect to a database and create buttons (next, new, save, delete, previous) to navigate through the database content where there are appropriate text fields and labels for the specific information. I'll use the code below as an example (each button is set up very similar)... I have it as follows: JButton jbtnNext = new JButton("Next ->"); jbtnNext.addActionListener(this); if (e.getSource() == jbtnNext) jbtnNext_Click(); private void jbtnNext_Click() { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, "Next" ,"Button Pressed", JOptionPane.INFORMATION_MESSAGE); try { if (rset.next()) { fillTextFields(true); }else{ //Display result in a dialog box JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, "Not found"); } } catch (SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } The professor gave the following outline of logic to construct the fillTextFields() method: Construct the method to provide reusable code that would fill the JTextFields on the GUI with appropriate values from current record from the database (when "Previous or "Next" buttons are pressed) or blank values (when the new Button is pressed). To determine when the current record was to provide values (next and previous) or the value would be blank (new button) pass a boolean argument into the method. If data from the current record was to be used as fill values, pass true for both previous and next button code after moving the record pointer. If the new button was pressed and want to fill with blank values, pass false to the method. Inside the method, use a conditional expression to evaluate the boolean variable. If true, The appropriate get----() resultset method is used to fill the JTextFields. If false, fill them with "". The .setText() method of the JTextField is used to fill each JTextField. Make sure the fillTextFields method throws the appropriate exception. I understand and have the previous and next button methods passing true, while the new button method is passing false, but I don't quite understand how to set up the fillTextFields() method correctly or how to "throw the appropriate exception"... Any help would really be appreciated, thank you!

    Read the article

  • Nesting arbitrary objects in Java

    - by user1502381
    I am having trouble solving a particular problem in Java (which I did not find by search). I do not know how to create a nested lists of objects - with a different type of object/primitive type at the end. For example: *Note: only an example. I am actually doing this below with something other than Employee, but it serves as simple example. I have an array of an object Employee. It contains information on the Employee. public class Employee { int age int salary int yearsWorking public Employee () { // constructor... } // Accessors } What I need to do is organize the Employees by quantiles/percentiles. I have done so by the following: import org.apache.commons.math.stat.descriptive.rank.Percentile; public class EmployeeSort { public void main(String args[]) { Percentile p = new Percentile(); Employee[] employeeArray = new Employee(100); // filled employeeArray double[] ageArray new double[100]; // filled ageArray with ages from employeeArray int q = 25; // Percentile cutoff for (int i = 1; i*q < 100; i++) { // assign percentile cutoff to some array to contain the values } } } Now, the problem I have is that I need to organize the Employees first by the percentiles of age, then percentiles of yearsWorking, and finally by percentiles of salary. My Java knowledge is inadequate right now to solve this problem, but the project I was handed was in Java. I am primarily a python guy, so this problem would have been a lot easier in that language. No such luck.

    Read the article

  • Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

    - by goldierox
    I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

    Read the article

  • OO model for nsxmlparser when delegate is not self

    - by richard
    Hi, I am struggling with the correct design for the delegates of nsxmlparser. In order to build my table of Foos, I need to make two types of webservice calls; one for the whole table and one for each row. It's essentially a master-query then detail-query, except the master-query-result-xml doesn't return enough information so i then need to query the detail for each row. I'm not dealing with enormous amounts of data. Anyway - previously I've just used NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; [parser setDelegate:self]; [parser parse]; and implemented all the appropriate delegate methods in whatever class i'm in. In attempt at cleanliness, I've now created two separate delegate classes and done something like: NSXMLParser *xp = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; MyMasterXMLParserDelegate *masterParserDelegate = [[MyMasterXMLParser]alloc]init]; [xp setDelegate:masterParserDelegate]; [xp parse]; In addition to being cleaner (in my opinion, at least), it also means each of the -parser:didStartElement implementations don't spend most of the time trying to figure out which xml they're parsing. So now the real crux of the problem. Before i split out the delegates, i had in the main class that was also implementing the delegate methods, a class-level NSMutableArray that I would just put my objects-created-from-xml in when -parser:didEndElement found the 'end' of each record. Now the delegates are in separate classes, I can't figure out how to have the -parser:didEndElement in the 'detail' delegate class "return" the created object to the calling class. At least, not in a clean OO way. I'm sure i could do it with all sorts of nasty class methods. Does the question make sense? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Testing a method used from an abstract class

    - by Bas
    I have to Unit Test a method (runMethod()) that uses a method from an inhereted abstract class to create a boolean. The method in the abstract class uses XmlDocuments and nodes to retrieve information. The code looks somewhat like this (and this is extremely simplified, but it states my problem) namespace AbstractTestExample { public abstract class AbstractExample { public string propertyValues; protected XmlNode propertyValuesXML; protected string getProperty(string propertyName) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(new System.IO.StringReader(propertyValues)); propertyValuesXML= doc.FirstChild; XmlNode node = propertyValuesXML.SelectSingleNode(String.Format("property[name='{0}']/value", propertyName)); return node.InnerText; } } public class AbstractInheret : AbstractExample { public void runMethod() { bool addIfContains = (getProperty("AddIfContains") == null || getProperty("AddIfContains") == "True"); //Do something with boolean } } } So, the code wants to get a property from a created XmlDocument and uses it to form the result to a boolean. Now my question is, what is the best solution to make sure I have control over the booleans result behaviour. I'm using Moq for possible mocking. I know this code example is probably a bit fuzzy, but it's the best I could show. Hope you guys can help.

    Read the article

  • How to access child div elements under a given condition with javascript?

    - by hlovdal
    My main question is to calculate the last alert message, but any other information is also welcome. I am trying to learn javascript (to use with greasemonkey later), but I am struggling a bit to grasp the DOM and how to process it. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function my_test() { var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("div"); // prints "found [object HTMLCollection] with length 8" alert("found " + elements + " with length " + elements.length); // prints "0:[object HTMLDivElement]" alert("0:" + elements[0]); // how to calculate the following? alert("for intereting one is AAAA and three is CCCC"); } </script> </head> <body> <div class="interesing"> <div class="one">AAAA</div> <div class="two">BBBB</div> <div class="three">CCCC</div> </div> <div class="boring"> <div class="one">1111</div> <div class="two">2222</div> <div class="three">3333</div> </div> <input type="button" onclick="my_test()" value="my test" </body> </html> So elements is now an array of elements and I can access each of them individually. But where can I find what methods/properties these elements have?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 838 839 840 841 842 843 844 845 846 847 848 849  | Next Page >