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  • Need additional help with binding multiple CommandParameters using MultiBinding

    - by Dave
    I need to have a command handler for a ToggleButton that can take multiple parameters, namely the IsChecked property of said ToggleButton, along with a constant value, which could be a string, byte, int... doesn't matter. I found this great question on SO and followed the answer's link and read up on MultiBinding and IMultiValueConverter. It went really smoothly until I had to write the MultiBinding, when I realized that I also need to pass a constant value and couldn't do something like <Binding Value="1" /> I then came across another similar question that Kent Boogaart answered, and then I started to think about ways that I could get around this. One possible way is to not use MVVM and simply add the Tag property to my ToggleButton, in which case my MultiBinding would look like this: <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource MyConverter}"> <MultiBinding.Bindings> <Binding Path="IsChecked" /> <Binding Path="Tag" /> </MultiBinding.Bindings> </MultiBinding> Kent had made a comment along the lines of, "if you're using MVVM you should be able to get around this issue". However, I'm not sure that's an option for me, even though I have adopted MVVM as my WPF pattern of necessity choice. The reason why I say this is that I have wayyyy more than one ToggleButton in the UserControl, and each of the ToggleButtons' Commands need to call the same function. But since they are ToggleButtons, I can't use the property bound to IsChecked in the ViewModel, because I don't know which one was last clicked. I suppose I could add another private property to keep track of this, but it seems a little silly. As far as the constant goes, I could probably get rid of this if I did the tracking idea, but not sure of any other way to get around it. Does anyone have good suggestions for me here? :) EDIT -- ok, so I need to update my bindings, which still don't work quite right: <ToggleButton Tag="1" Command="{Binding MyCommand}" Style="{StaticResource PassFailToggleButtonStyle}" HorizontalContentAlignment="Center" Background="Transparent" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> <ToggleButton.CommandParameter> <MultiBinding Converter="{StaticResource MyConverter}"> <MultiBinding.Bindings> <Binding Path="IsChecked" RelativeSource="{RelativeSource Mode=Self}" /> <Binding Path="Tag" RelativeSource="{RelativeSource Mode=Self}" /> </MultiBinding.Bindings> </MultiBinding> </ToggleButton.CommandParameter> </ToggleButton> IsChecked was working, but not Tag. I just realized that Tag is a string... duh. It's working now! The key was to use a RelativeSource of Self.

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  • Integrating POP3 client functionality into a C# application?

    - by flesh
    I have a web application that requires a server based component to periodically access POP3 email boxes and retrieve emails. The service then needs to process the emails which will involve: Validating the email against some business rules (does it contain a valid reference in the subject line, which user sent the mail, etc.) Analysing and saving any attachments to disk Take the email body and attachment details and create a new item in the database Or update an existing item where the reference matches the incoming email subject line What is the best way to approach this? I really don't want to have to write a POP3 client from scratch, but I need to be able to customize the processing of emails. Ideally I would be able to plug in some component that does the access and retrieval for me, returning arrays of attachments, body text, subject line, etc. ready for my processing... [ UPDATE: Reviews ] OK, so I have spent a fair amount of time looking into (mainly free) .NET POP3 libraries so I thought I'd provide a short review of some of those mentioned below and a few others: Pop3.net - free - works OK, very basic in terms of functionality provided. This is pretty much just the POP3 commands and some base64 encoding, but it's very straight forward - probably a good introduction Pop3 Wizard - commercial / some open source code - couldn't get this to build, missing DLLs, I wouldn't bother with this C#Mail - free - works well, comes with Mime parser and SMTP client, however the comments are in Japanese (not a big deal) and it didn't work with SSL 'out of the box' - I had to change the SslStream constructor after which it worked no problem OpenPOP - free - hasn't been updated for about 5 years so it's current state is .NET 1.0, doesn't support SSL but that was no problem to resolve - I just replaced the existing stream with an SslStream and it worked. Comes with Mime parser. Of the free libraries, I'd go for C#Mail or OpenPOP. I looked at a few commercial libraries: Chillkat, Rebex, RemObjects, JMail.net. Based on features, price and impression of the company I would probably go for Rebex and may in the future if my requirements change or I run into production issues with either of C#Mail or OpenPOP. In case anyone's needs it, this is the replacement SslStream constructor that I used to enable SSL with C#Mail and OpenPOP: SslStream stream = new SslStream(clientSocket.GetStream(), false, delegate(object sender, X509Certificate cert, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors errors) { return true; });

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  • CSS3 Gradients to reproduce an 'inner glow' effect from Illustrator with border-radius applied

    - by iamfriendly
    Hello all! First post on here so please be kind :) I am in the process of trying to get my head properly around CSS3 Gradients (specifically radial ones) and in doing so I think I've set myself a relatively tough challenge. In Adobe Illustrator I have created a 'button' style which can be seen here: http://bit.ly/aePPtV (jpg image). To create this image I created a rectangle with a background colour of rgb(63,64,63) or #3F403F, then 'stylized' it to have a 15px border radius. I then applied an 'inner glow' to it with a 25% opacity, 8px blur, white from the center. Finally, I applied a 3pt white stroke on it. (I'm telling you all of this in case you wished to reproduce it, if the image above isn't sufficient.) So, my question is thus: is it possible to recreate this 'button' using CSS without the need for an image? I am aware of the 'limitations' of Internet Explorer (and for the sake of this experiment, I couldn't give a monkeys). I am also aware of the small 'bug' in webkit which incorrectly renders an element with a background colour, border-radius and a border (with a different color to the background-color) - it lets the background color bleed through on the curved corners. My best attempt so far is fairly pathetic, but for reference here is the code: section#featured footer p a { color: rgb(255,255,255); text-shadow: 1px 1px 1px rgba(0,0,0,0.6); text-decoration: none; padding: 5px 10px; border-radius: 15px; -moz-border-radius: 15px; -webkit-border-radius: 15px; border: 3px solid rgb(255,255,255); background: rgb(98,99,100); background: -moz-radial-gradient( 50% 50%, farthest-side, #626364, #545454 ); background: -webkit-gradient( radial, 50% 50%, 1px, 50% 50%, 5px, from(rgb(98,99,100)), to(rgb(84,84,84)) ); } Basically, terrible. Any hints or tips gratefully accepted and thank you very much in advance for them!

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 loading partial view using jQuery - no client side validation

    - by brainnovative
    I am using jQuery.load() to render a partial view. This part looks like this: $('#sizeAddHolder').load( '/MyController/MyAction', function () { ... }); The code for actions in my controller is the following: public ActionResult MyAction(byte id) { var model = new MyModel { ObjectProp1 = "Some text" }; return View(model); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult MyAction(byte id, FormCollection form) { // TODO: DB insert logic goes here var result = ...; return Json(result); } I am returning a partial view that looks something like this: <% using (Html.BeginForm("MyAction", "MyController")) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <h3>Create my object</h3> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.ObjectProp1) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Size.ObjectProp1) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ObjectProp1) %> </div> div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.ObjectProp2) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ObjectProp2) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ObjectProp2) %> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Client side validation does not work in this case. What is more the script that contains validation messages also isn't included in the view that's returned. Both properties in my model class have Required and StringLength attributes. Is there any way to trigger client side validation in a view which has been loaded like this?

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  • Rx Reactive extensions: Unit testing with FromAsyncPattern

    - by Andrew Anderson
    The Reactive Extensions have a sexy little hook to simplify calling async methods: var func = Observable.FromAsyncPattern<InType, OutType>( myWcfService.BeginDoStuff, myWcfService.EndDoStuff); func(inData).ObserveOnDispatcher().Subscribe(x => Foo(x)); I am using this in an WPF project, and it works great at runtime. Unfortunately, when trying to unit test methods that use this technique I am experiencing random failures. ~3 out of every five executions of a test that contain this code fails. Here is a sample test (implemented using a Rhino/unity auto-mocking container): [TestMethod()] public void SomeTest() { // arrange var container = GetAutoMockingContainer(); container.Resolve<IMyWcfServiceClient>() .Expect(x => x.BeginDoStuff(null, null, null)) .IgnoreArguments() .Do( new Func<Specification, AsyncCallback, object, IAsyncResult>((inData, asyncCallback, state) => { return new CompletedAsyncResult(asyncCallback, state); })); container.Resolve<IRepositoryServiceClient>() .Expect(x => x.EndRetrieveAttributeDefinitionsForSorting(null)) .IgnoreArguments() .Do( new Func<IAsyncResult, OutData>((ar) => { return someMockData; })); // act var target = CreateTestSubject(container); target.DoMethodThatInvokesService(); // Run the dispatcher for everything over background priority Dispatcher.CurrentDispatcher.Invoke(DispatcherPriority.Background, new Action(() => { })); // assert Assert.IsTrue(my operation ran as expected); } The problem that I see is that the code that I specified to run when the async action completed (in this case, Foo(x)), is never called. I can verify this by setting breakpoints in Foo and observing that they are never reached. Further, I can force a long delay after calling DoMethodThatInvokesService (which kicks off the async call), and the code is still never run. I do know that the lines of code invoking the Rx framework were called. Other things I've tried: I have attempted to modify the second last line according to the suggestions here: Reactive Extensions Rx - unit testing something with ObserveOnDispatcher No love. I have added .Take(1) to the Rx code as follows: func(inData).ObserveOnDispatcher().Take(1).Subscribe(x = Foo(x)); This improved my failure rate to something like 1 in 5, but they still occurred. I have rewritten the Rx code to use the plain jane Async pattern. This works, however my developer ego really would love to use Rx instead of boring old begin/end. In the end I do have a work around in hand (i.e. don't use Rx), however I feel that it is not ideal. If anyone has ran into this problem in the past and found a solution, I'd dearly love to hear it.

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  • C# - Alternative to System.Timers.Timer, to call a function at a specific time.

    - by Fábio Antunes
    Hello everybody. I want to call a specific function on my C# application at a specific time. At first i thought about using a Timer (System.Time.Timer), but that soon became impossible to use. Why? Simple. The Timer Class requires a Interval in milliseconds, but considering that i might want the function to be executed, lets says in a week that would mean: 7 Days = 168 hours; 168 Hours = 10,080 minutes; 10,080 Minutes = 6,048,000 seconds; 6,048,000 Seconds = 6,048,000,000 milliseconds; So the Interval would be 6,048,000,000; Now lets remember that the Interval accepted data type is int, and as we know int range goes from -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647. That makes Timer useless in this case once we cannot set a Interval bigger that 2,147,483,647 milliseconds. So i need a solution where i could specify when the function should be called. Something like this: solution.ExecuteAt = "30-04-2010 15:10:00"; solution.Function = "functionName"; solution.Start(); So when the System Time would reach "30-04-2010 15:10:00" the function would be executed in the application. How can this problem be solved? Thanks just by taking the time to read my question. But if you could provide me with some help i would be most grateful. Additional Info: What these functions will do? Getting climate information and based on that info: Starting / Shutting down other Applications (most of them Console Based); Sending custom Commands to those Console Applications; Power down, Rebooting, Sleep, Hibernate the computer; And if possible schedule the BIOS to Power Up the Computer; EDIT: It would seem that the Interval accepted data type is double, however if you set a value bigger that an int to the Interval, and call Start() it throws a exception [0, Int32.MaxValue]. EDIT 2: Jørn Schou-Rode suggested using Ncron to handle the scheduling tasks, and at first look this seems a good solution, but i would like to hear about some who as worked with it.

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  • Qt static build with static mysql plugin confusion

    - by bdiloreto
    I have built a Qt application which uses the MySQL library, but I am confused by the documentation on static versus shared builds. From the Qt documentation at http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.7/deployment-windows.html it says: To deploy plugin-based applications we should use the shared library approach. And on http://doc.qt.nokia.com/4.7/deployment.html, it says: Static linking results in a stand-alone executable. The advantage is that you will only have a few files to deploy. The disadvantages are that the executables are large and with no flexibility and that you cannot deploy plugins. To deploy plugin-based applications, you can use the shared library approach. But on http://doc.qt.nokia.com/latest/plugins-howto.html, it seems to say the opposite, giving directions on how to use static plugins: Plugins can be linked statically against your application. If you build the static version of Qt, this is the only option for including Qt's predefined plugins. Using static plugins makes the deployment less error-prone, but has the disadvantage that no functionality from plugins can be added without a complete rebuild and redistribution of the application. ... To link statically against those plugins, you need to use the Q_IMPORT_PLUGIN() macro in your application and you need to add the required plugins to your build using QTPLUGIN. I want to build the Qt libraries statically (for easy deployment) and then use the static MySQL plugin. To do this, I did NOT use the binary distrubtion for Windows. Instead, I've started with the source qt-everywhere-opensource-src-4.7.4 Is the following the correct way to do a static build so that i can use the static MySql plugin? configure -static -debug-and-release -opensource -platform win32-msvc2010 -no-qt3support -no-webkit -no-script -plugin-sql-mysql -I C:\MySQL\include -L C:\MySQL\lib This should build the Qt libraries statically AND the static plugin to be linked at run-time, correct? I would NOT need to build the Mysql Plugin from source separately, correct? If I was to subtitute "-qt-sql-mysql" for "-plugin-sql-mysql" in above, it would include the MySQL driver directly in the QT static libraries, in which case I would NOT need to use the plugin at all, correct? Thanks for making me unconfused!

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  • Force SSRS 2008 to use SSRS 2005 CSV rendering

    - by Kash
    We are upgrading our report server from SSRS 2005 to SSRS 2008 R2. I have an issue with CSV export rendering for SSRS 2008 where the SUM of columns are appearing on the right side of the detail values in 2008 instead of the left side like in 2005 as shown in the below blocks. 117 and 131 are the sums of Column2 and Column3 respectively. SSRS 2005 CSV Output Column2_1,Column3_1,Column2,Column3 117,131,1,2 117,131,1,2 117,131,60,23 117,131,30,15 117,131,25,89 SSRS 2008 CSV Output Column2,Column3,Column2_1,Column3_1 1,2,117,131 1,2,117,131 60,23,117,131 30,15,117,131 25,89,117,131 I understand that the CSV renderer has gone through major changes in SSRS 2008 R2 with the support for charts and gauges and more importantly it provides 2 modes: the default Excel mode and Compliant mode. But neither mode helps fix this issue. The Compliant mode was supposed to be closest to that of 2005 but apparently it is not close enough for my case. My Question: Is there a way to force SSRS 2008 fall back a report to a backward compatibility mode so that it exports into a 2005 CSV format? Solution tried: a) Using 2005-based CRIs Based on this article on ExecutionLog2, if SSRS 2008 R2 encounters a report whose auto-upgrade is not possible (e.g. reports that were built with 2005-based CustomReportItem controls), those particular reports will be processed with the old Yukon engine in a "transparent backwards-compatibility mode". It seems like it falls back to its previous version mode (2005) and attempts to render it. So I tried using a 2005-based barcode CustomReportItem and deployed to a SSRS 2008 R2 report server, but it shows the same result as before though it suppressed the barcode. This would be because SSRS 2008 R2 finds a way to suppress part of the report output and displays the rest. It would be great to find a 2005-based CRI that makes SSRS 2008 R2 process it with its old Yukon engine. Please note that quite possibly, even if it uses the "old Yukon processing engine", it might still use the new CSV renderer hence it shows the same output. If that is true, then this option is moot. b) Using XML renderer We can use a custom XML renderer and then use XSLT to convert the xml to appropriate CSV but this would mean that we need to convert all our 200 reports. Hence this is not feasible. Please note that we do not have the option of having SSRS 2005 and SSRS 2008 R2 deployed side by side.

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  • Asp.net MVC2 Custom jquery validation: client -side

    - by Lullaby
    Hi. I want to create a validation rule for 2 date-pickers (startDate less then endDate). I create a validation attribute: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class DateCompareAttribute : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "'{0}' is less then '{1}'."; public DateCompareAttribute(string startDateProperty, string endDateProperty) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { StartDateProperty = startDateProperty; EndDateProperty = endDateProperty; } public string StartDateProperty { get; private set; } public string EndDateProperty { get; private set; } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, StartDateProperty, EndDateProperty); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object startValue = properties.Find(StartDateProperty, true).GetValue(value); object endValue = properties.Find(EndDateProperty, true).GetValue(value); if (startValue.GetType() == typeof(DateTime?) && endValue.GetType() == typeof(DateTime?)) { var start = ((DateTime?)startValue); var end = ((DateTime?)endValue); return (start.Value < end.Value); } return false; } } and added ti to my Dto: [DateCompare("StartDate", "EndDate")] public class QualificationInput{...} I created a validator: public class DateCompareValidator : DataAnnotationsModelValidator { string startField; private string endField; string _message; public DateCompareValidator(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context , DateCompareAttribute attribute) : base(metadata, context, attribute) { startField = attribute.StartDateProperty; endField = attribute.EndDateProperty; _message = attribute.ErrorMessage; } public override IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules() { var rule = new ModelClientValidationRule { ErrorMessage = _message, ValidationType = "dateCompare" }; rule.ValidationParameters.Add("startField", startField); rule.ValidationParameters.Add("endField", endField); return new[] { rule }; } } And registered it in Global.asax.cs in Application_Start(): DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider .RegisterAdapter(typeof(DateCompareAttribute), typeof(DateCompareValidator)); In MicrosoftMvcJQueryValidation.js I have made this changes: switch (thisRule.ValidationType) { ..... case "dateCompare": __MVC_ApplyValidator_DateCompare(rulesObj, thisRule.ValidationParameters["startField"], thisRule.ValidationParameters["endField"]); break; ..... } .... function __MVC_ApplyValidator_DateCompare(object, startField, endField) { object["startField"] = startField; object["endField"] = endField; } jQuery.validator.addMethod("dateCompare", function(value, element, params) { if ($('#' + params["startField"]).val() < $('#' + params["endField"]).val()) { return true; } return false; }, jQuery.format("Error")); But it doesn't work :( no client side validation on this type of rule (the others type like required works fine) What I'm doing wrong?

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  • GZip compression with WCF hosted on IIS7

    - by joniba
    So I'm going to add my query to the small ocean of questions on the subject. I'm trying to enable GZip compression on large soap responses from a WCF service. So far, I've followed instructions here and in a variety of other places to enable dynamic compression on IIS. Here's my dynamicTypes section from the applicationHost.config: <dynamicTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/atom+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xaml+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xop+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/soap+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </dynamicTypes> And also: <urlCompression doDynamicCompression="true" dynamicCompressionBeforeCache="true" /> Though I'm not so clear on why that's needed. Threw some extra mime-types in there just in case. I've implemented IClientMessageInspector to add Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate to my client's HttpRequests. Here's an example of a request-header taken from fiddler: POST http://[omitted]/TestMtomService/TextService.svc HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: application/soap+xml; charset=utf-8 Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: [omitted] Content-Length: 542 Expect: 100-continue Now, this doesn't work. There's simply no compression happening, no matter what the size of the message (tried up to 1.5Mb). I've looked at this post, but have not run into an exception as he describes, so I haven't tried the CodeProject implementation that he proposes. Also I've seen a lot of other implementations that are supposed to get this to work, but cannot make sense of them (e.g., msdn's GZip encoder). Why would I need to implement the encoder, or the code-project solution? Shouldn't IIS take care of the compression? So what else do I need to do to get this to work? Joni

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  • Objective-C Out of scope problem

    - by davbryn
    Hi, I'm having a few problems with some Objective-C and would appreciate some pointers. So I have a class MapFileGroup which has the following simple interface (There are other member variables but they aren't important): @interface MapFileGroup : NSObject { NSMutableArray *mapArray; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *mapArray; mapArray is @synthesize'd in the .m file. It has an init method: -(MapFileGroup*) init { self = [super init]; if (self) { mapArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity: 10]; } return self; } It also has a method for adding a custom object to the array: -(BOOL) addMapFile:(MapFile*) mapfile { if (mapfile == nil) return NO; mapArray addObject:mapfile]; return YES; } The problem I get comes when I want to use this class - obviously due to a misunderstanding of memory management on my part. In my view controller I declare as follows: (in the @interface): MapFileGroup *fullGroupOfMaps; With @property @property (nonatomic, retain) MapFileGroup *fullGroupOfMaps; Then in the .m file I have a function called loadMapData that does the following: MapFileGroup *mapContainer = [[MapFileGroup alloc] init]; // create a predicate that we can use to filter an array // for all strings ending in .png (case insensitive) NSPredicate *caseInsensitivePNGFiles = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"SELF endswith[c] '.png'"]; mapNames = [unfilteredArray filteredArrayUsingPredicate:caseInsensitivePNGFiles]; [mapNames retain]; NSEnumerator * enumerator = [mapNames objectEnumerator]; NSString * currentFileName; NSString *nameOfMap; MapFile *mapfile; while(currentFileName = [enumerator nextObject]) { nameOfMap = [currentFileName substringToIndex:[currentFileName length]-4]; //strip the extension mapfile = [[MapFile alloc] initWithName:nameOfMap]; [mapfile retain]; // add to array [fullGroupOfMaps addMapFile:mapfile]; } This seems to work ok (Though I can tell I've not got the memory management working properly, I'm still learning Objective-C); however, I have an (IBAction) that interacts with the fullGroupOfMaps later. It calls a method within fullGroupOfMaps, but if I step into the class from that line while debugging, all fullGroupOfMaps's objects are now out of scope and I get a crash. So apologies for the long question and big amount of code, but I guess my main question it: How should I handle a class with an NSMutableArray as an instance variable? What is the proper way of creating objects to be added to the class so that they don't get freed before I'm done with them? Many thanks

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  • Populating a combobox on selectedindex change of another combobox

    - by Riju K K
    Hi, I have created a custom dialog UI, which contains two combobox with SQL server instance & on selection of one of SQLServer instance, another combobox has to be filled with name of Databases on that server instance. I am able to find filling combo with SQL server Instances I had written a similar CustomAction to fill the combobox with database names [CustomAction] public static ActionResult FillDatabases(Session xiSession) { xiSession.Log("Begin CustomAction"); xiSession.Log("Opening view"); View lView = xiSession.Database.OpenView("DELETE FROM ComboBox WHERE ComboBox.Property='DBNAME'"); lView.Execute(); lView = xiSession.Database.OpenView("SELECT * FROM ComboBox"); lView.Execute(); int Index = 1; //bool flag = false; try { Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server svr = new Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server(xiSession["DBSRVR"]); foreach (Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Database db in svr.Databases ) { String dbName = db.Name; Record lRecord = xiSession.Database.CreateRecord(3); xiSession.Log("Setting record details"); lRecord.SetString(1, "DBNAME"); lRecord.SetInteger(2, Index); lRecord.SetString(3, db.Name); xiSession.Log("Adding record"); lView.Modify(ViewModifyMode.InsertTemporary, lRecord); ++Index; } } catch (Exception ex) { //logException(xiSession, ex); xiSession.Log(ex.Message ); } lView.Close(); xiSession.Log("Closing view"); lView.Close(); return ActionResult.Success; } I want to call these custom actions somewhat like shown below, <Binary Id="CustomActions.CA.dll" SourceFile="CustomActions.CA.dll" /> <CustomAction Id="FillServerInstances" BinaryKey="CustomActions.CA.dll" DllEntry="FillServerInstances" Execute="immediate" Return="check" /> <CustomAction Id="FillDatabases" BinaryKey="CustomActions.CA.dll" DllEntry="FillDatabases" Execute="immediate" Return="check" /> <InstallUISequence> <Custom Action="FillServerInstances" After="CostFinalize" /> <Custom Action="FillDatabases" After="FillServerInstances" /> </InstallUISequence> I need to show this Sqlserver selection custom dialog from another custom UI, in case user clicked on a pushbutton. Am I doing the right thing in the WiX code? Is there a better way in which combobox custom action fire only when user click on a pushbutton? "FillDatabases" custom action have to be fire whenever user select a new SQLServer instance. How do i do that? Thanks

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  • How can you add a UIGestureRecognizer to a UIBarButtonItem as in the common undo/redo UIPopoverContr

    - by SG
    Problem In my iPad app, I cannot attach a popover to a button bar item only after press-and-hold events. But this seems to be standard for undo/redo. How do other apps do this? Background I have an undo button (UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo) in the toolbar of my UIKit (iPad) app. When I press the undo button, it fires it's action which is undo:, and that executes correctly. However, the "standard UE convention" for undo/redo on iPad is that pressing undo executes an undo but pressing and holding the button reveals a popover controller where the user selected either "undo" or "redo" until the controller is dismissed. The normal way to attach a popover controller is with presentPopoverFromBarButtonItem:, and I can configure this easily enough. To get this to show only after press-and-hold we have to set a view to respond to "long press" gesture events as in this snippet: UILongPressGestureRecognizer *longPressOnUndoGesture = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleLongPressOnUndoGesture:)]; //Broken because there is no customView in a UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo item [self.undoButtonItem.customView addGestureRecognizer:longPressOnUndoGesture]; [longPressOnUndoGesture release]; With this, after a press-and-hold on the view the method handleLongPressOnUndoGesture: will get called, and within this method I will configure and display the popover for undo/redo. So far, so good. The problem with this is that there is no view to attach to. self.undoButtonItem is a UIButtonBarItem, not a view. Possible solutions 1) [The ideal] Attach the gesture recognizer to the button bar item. It is possible to attach a gesture recognizer to a view, but UIButtonBarItem is not a view. It does have a property for .customView, but that property is nil when the buttonbaritem is a standard system type (in this case it is). 2) Use another view. I could use the UIToolbar but that would require some weird hit-testing and be an all around hack, if even possible in the first place. There is no other alternative view to use that I can think of. 3) Use the customView property. Standard types like UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo have no customView (it is nil). Setting the customView will erase the standard contents which it needs to have. This would amount to re-implementing all the look and function of UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo, again if even possible to do. Question How can I attach a gesture recognizer to this "button"? More specifically, how can I implement the standard press-and-hold-to-show-redo-popover in an iPad app? Ideas? Thank you very much, especially if someone actually has this working in their app (I'm thinking of you, omni) and wants to share...

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  • Attaching .swf assets to Flex3 by calling getDefinitionByName()

    - by Alexander Farber
    Hello! Does anybody please know, how could you attach symbols from an .swf file in the Actionscript part of your Flex3 file? I've prepared a simple test case demonstrating my problem. Everything works (there are icons at the 4 buttons, there is a red circle) - except the getDefinitionByName() part. My target is to attach a symbol from library "dynamically" - i.e. depending at the value of the suit variable at the runtime. Thank you, Alex Symbols.as: package { public class Symbols { [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='spades')] public static const SPADES:Class; [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='clubs')] public static const CLUBS:Class; [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='diamonds')] public static const DIAMONDS:Class; [Embed('../assets/symbols.swf', symbol='hearts')] public static const HEARTS:Class; } } TestCase.mxml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" creationComplete="onCreationComplete();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function onCreationComplete():void { var sprite:Sprite = new Sprite(); var g:Graphics = sprite.graphics; g.lineStyle(1, 0xFF0000); g.beginFill(0xFF0000); g.drawCircle(100, 100, 20); g.endFill(); spriteHolder.addChild(sprite); // XXX stuff below not working, can it be fixed? var suit:String = "SPADES"; var mc:MovieClip = new (getDefinitionByName("Symbols.SPADES") as Class); spriteHolder.addChild(mc); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:VBox width="100%"> <mx:Button label="1" icon="{Symbols.SPADES}" /> <mx:Button label="2" icon="{Symbols.CLUBS}" /> <mx:Button label="3" icon="{Symbols.DIAMONDS}" /> <mx:Button label="4" icon="{Symbols.HEARTS}" /> <mx:UIComponent id="spriteHolder" width="200" height="200"/> </mx:VBox> </mx:Application>

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  • Update a list from another list

    - by Langali
    I have a list of users in local store that I need to update from a remote list of users every once in a while. Basically: If a remote user already exists locally, update its fields. If a remote user doesn't already exist locally, add the user. If a local user doesn't appear in the remote list, deactivate or delete. If a local user also appears in the remote list, update its fields. Just a simple case of syncing the local list. Is there a better way to do this in pure Java than the following? I feel gross looking at my own code. public class User { Integer id; String email; boolean active; //Getters and Setters....... public User(Integer id, String email, boolean active) { this.id = id; this.email = email; this.active = active; } @Override public boolean equals(Object other) { boolean result = false; if (other instanceof User) { User that = (User) other; result = (this.getId() == that.getId()); } return result; } } public static void main(String[] args) { //From 3rd party List<User> remoteUsers = getRemoteUsers(); //From Local store List<User> localUsers =getLocalUsers(); for (User remoteUser : remoteUsers) { boolean found = false; for (User localUser : localUsers) { if (remoteUser.equals(localUser)) { found = true; localUser.setActive(remoteUser.isActive()); localUser.setEmail(remoteUser.getEmail()); //update } break; } if (!found) { User user = new User(remoteUser.getId(), remoteUser.getEmail(), remoteUser.isActive()); //Save } } for(User localUser : localUsers ) { boolean found = false; for(User remoteUser : remoteUsers) { if(localUser.equals(remoteUser)) { found = true; localUser.setActive(remoteUser.isActive()); localUser.setEmail(remoteUser.getEmail()); //Update } break; } if(!found) { localUser.setActive(false); // Deactivate } } }

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  • Cross-table linq query with EF4/POCO

    - by Basiclife
    Hi All, I'm new to EF(any version) and POCO. I'm trying to use POCO entities with a generic repository in a "code-first" mode(?) I've got some POCO Entities (no proxies, no lazy loading, nothing). I have a repository(of T as Entity) which provides me with basic get/getsingle/getfirst functionality which takes a lambda as a parameter (specifically a System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) Now as I'm returning the simplest possible POCO object, none of the relationship parameters work once they've been retrieved from the database (as I would expect). However, I had assumed (wrongly) that my lambda query passed to the repository would be able to use the links between entities as it would be executed against the DB before the simple POCO entities are generated. The flow is: GUI calls: Public Function GetAllTypesForCategory(ByVal CategoryID As Guid) As IEnumerable(Of ItemType) Return ItemTypeRepository.Get(Function(x) x.Category.ID = CategoryID) End Function Get is defined in Repository(of T as Entity): Public Function [Get](ByVal Query As System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) As IEnumerable(Of T) Implements Interfaces.IRepository(Of T).Get Return ObjectSet.Where(Query).ToList() End Function The code doesn't error when this method is called but does when I try to use the result set. (This seems to be a lazy loading behaviour so I tried adding the .ToList() to force eager loading - no difference) I'm using unity/IOC to wire it all up but I believe that's irrelevant to the issue I'm having NB: Relationships between entities are being configured properly and if I turn on proxies/lazy loading/etc... this all just works. I'm intentionally leaving all that turned off as some calls to the BL will be from a website but some will be via WCF - So I want the simplest possible objects. Also, I don't want a change in an object passed to the UI to be committed to the DB if another BL method calls Commit() Can someone please either point out how to make this work or explain why it's not possible? All I want to do is make sure the lambda I pass in is performed against the DB before the results are returned Many thanks. In case it matters, the container is being populated with everything as shown below: Container.AddNewExtension(Of EFRepositoryExtension)() Container.Configure(Of IEFRepositoryExtension)(). WithConnection(ConnectionString). WithContextLifetime(New HttpContextLifetimeManager(Of IObjectContext)()). ConfigureEntity(New CategoryConfig(), "Categories"). ConfigureEntity(New ItemConfig()). ... )

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  • Using JAXB to unmarshal/marshal a List<String> - Inheritance

    - by gerry
    I've build the following case. An interface for all JAXBLists: public interface JaxbList<T> { public abstract List<T> getList(); } And an base implementation: @XmlRootElement(name="list") public class JaxbBaseList<T> implements JaxbList<T>{ protected List<T> list; public JaxbBaseList(){} public JaxbBaseList(List<T> list){ this.list=list; } @XmlElement(name="item" ) public List<T> getList(){ return list; } } As well as an implementation for a list of URIs: @XmlRootElement(name="uris") public class JaxbUriList2 extends JaxbBaseList<String> { public JaxbUriList2() { super(); } public JaxbUriList2(List<String> list){ super(list); } @Override @XmlElement(name="uri") public List<String> getList() { return list; } } And I'm using the List in the following way: public JaxbList<String> init(@QueryParam("amount") int amount){ List<String> entityList = new Vector<String>(); ... enityList.add("http://uri"); ... return new JaxbUriList2(entityList); } I thought the output should be: <uris> <uri> http://uri </uri> ... </uris> But it is something like this: <uris> <item xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xsi:type="xs:string"> http://uri </item> ... <uri> http://uri </uri> ... </uris> I think it has something to do with the inheritance, but I don't get it... What's the problem? - How can I fix it? Thanks in advance!

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  • Detecting 'stealth' web-crawlers

    - by Jacco
    What options are there to detect web-crawlers that do not want to be detected? (I know that listing detection techniques will allow the smart stealth-crawler programmer to make a better spider, but I do not think that we will ever be able to block smart stealth-crawlers anyway, only the ones that make mistakes.) I'm not talking about the nice crawlers such as googlebot and Yahoo! Slurp. I consider a bot nice if it: identifies itself as a bot in the user agent string reads robots.txt (and obeys it) I'm talking about the bad crawlers, hiding behind common user agents, using my bandwidth and never giving me anything in return. There are some trapdoors that can be constructed updated list (thanks Chris, gs): Adding a directory only listed (marked as disallow) in the robots.txt, Adding invisible links (possibly marked as rel="nofollow"?), style="display: none;" on link or parent container placed underneath another element with higher z-index detect who doesn't understand CaPiTaLiSaTioN, detect who tries to post replies but always fail the Captcha. detect GET requests to POST-only resources detect interval between requests detect order of pages requested detect who (consistently) requests https resources over http detect who does not request image file (this in combination with a list of user-agents of known image capable browsers works surprisingly nice) Some traps would be triggered by both 'good' and 'bad' bots. you could combine those with a whitelist: It trigger a trap It request robots.txt? It doest not trigger another trap because it obeyed robots.txt One other important thing here is: Please consider blind people using a screen readers: give people a way to contact you, or solve a (non-image) Captcha to continue browsing. What methods are there to automatically detect the web crawlers trying to mask themselves as normal human visitors. Update The question is not: How do I catch every crawler. The question is: How can I maximize the chance of detecting a crawler. Some spiders are really good, and actually parse and understand html, xhtml, css javascript, VB script etc... I have no illusions: I won't be able to beat them. You would however be surprised how stupid some crawlers are. With the best example of stupidity (in my opinion) being: cast all URLs to lower case before requesting them. And then there is a whole bunch of crawlers that are just 'not good enough' to avoid the various trapdoors.

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  • need help with jquery selectors

    - by photographer
    I've got code like that: <ul class="gallery_demo_unstyled"> <li class="active"><img src='001.jpg' /></li> <li><img src='002.jpg' /></li> <li><img src='003.jpg' /></li> <li><img src='004.jpg' /></li> <li><img src='005.jpg' /></li> <li><img src='006.jpg' /></li> </ul> <div class="Paginator"> <a href="../2/" class="Prev">&lt;&lt;</a> <a href="../1/">1</a> <a href="../2/">2</a> <span class="this-page">3</span> <a href="../4/">4</a> <a href="../5/">5</a> <a href="../4/" class="Next">&gt;&gt;</a> </div> <div class="Albums"><div class="AlbumsMenu"> <p><b>ALBUMS</b></p> <p><a href="../../blackandwhite/1/" >blackandwhite</a></p> <p><a href="../../color/1/" class='this-page'>>>color</a></p> <p><a href="../../film/1/" >film</a></p> <p><a href="../../digital/1/" >digital</a></p> <p><a href="../../portraits/1/" >portraits</a></p> </div></div> ...and some JavaScript/jQuery allowing to cycle through the images (the very top li elements) going back to the first image after the last one: $$.nextSelector = function(selector) { return $(selector).is(':last-child') ? $(selector).siblings(':first-child') : $(selector).next(); }; Current page is always 'this-page' class (span or p in my case, but I could change that if necessary). The question: what should I change in my code to make it go after the last image to the next page instead of cycling through the page over and over again, and after the last page to the next album? And to the first image on the first page of the first album after the last-last-last (or just stop there — don't really care)?

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  • SQLite file locking and DropBox

    - by Alex Jenter
    I'm developing an app in Visual C++ that uses an SQLite3 DB for storing data. Usually it sits in the tray most of the time. I also would like to enable putting my app in a DropBox folder to share it across several PCs. It worked really well up until DropBox has recently updated itself. And now it says that it "can't sync the file in use". The SQLite file is open in my app, but the lock is shared. There are some prepared statements, but all are reset immediately after using step. Is there any way to enable synchronizing of an open SQLite database file? Thanks! Here is the simple wrapper that I use just for testing (no error handling), in case this helps: class Statement { private: Statement(sqlite3* db, const std::wstring& sql) : db(db) { sqlite3_prepare16_v2(db, sql.c_str(), sql.length() * sizeof(wchar_t), &stmt, NULL); } public: ~Statement() { sqlite3_finalize(stmt); } public: void reset() { sqlite3_reset(stmt); } int step() { return sqlite3_step(stmt); } int getInt(int i) const { return sqlite3_column_int(stmt, i); } tstring getText(int i) const { const wchar_t* v = (const wchar_t*)sqlite3_column_text16(stmt, i); int sz = sqlite3_column_bytes16(stmt, i) / sizeof(wchar_t); return std::wstring(v, v + sz); } private: friend class Database; sqlite3* db; sqlite3_stmt* stmt; }; class Database { public: Database(const std::wstring& filename = L"")) : db(NULL) { sqlite3_open16(filename.c_str(), &db); } ~Database() { sqlite3_close(db); } void exec(const std::wstring& sql) { auto_ptr<Statement> st(prepare(sql)); st->step(); } auto_ptr<Statement> prepare(const tstring& sql) const { return auto_ptr<Statement>(new Statement(db, sql)); } private: sqlite3* db; };

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  • Some help needed with setting up the PERFECT workflow for web development with 2-3 guys using subver

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys! I run a small web development company along side with my brother and friend. After doing extensive research I have decided on using subversion for version control. Here is how I currently plan on running typical development. Keep in mind there are 3 of us each in a separate location. I set up an account with springloops (springloops.com) subversion hosting. Each time I work on a new project, I create a repository for it. So lets say in this case I am working on site1. I want to have 3 versions of the site on the internet: Web Development - This is the server me and the other developers publish to. (site1.dev.bythepixel.com) Client Preview - This is the server that we update every few days with a good revision for the client to see. (site1.bythepixel.com) Live Site - The site I publish to when going live (site1.com) Each web development machine (at each location) will have a local copy of xamp running virtual host to allow multiple websites to be worked on. The root of the local copy is set up to be the same as the local copy of the subversion repository. This is set up so we can make small tweaks and preview them immediately. When some work has been done, a commit is made to the repository for the site. I will have the dev site automatically be pushed (its an option in springloops). Then, whenever I feel ready to push to the client site I will do so. Now, I have a few concerns with those work flow: I am using codeigniter currently, and in the config file I generally set the root of the site. Ex. http://www.site1.com. So, it looks like each time I publish to one of the internet servers, I will have to modify the config file? Is there any way to make it so certain files are set for each server? So when I hit publish to client preview it just uploads the config file for the client preview server. I don't want the live site , the client preview site and the dev site to share the same mysql server for a variety of reasons. So does this once again mean that I have to adjust the db server info each time I push to a different site? Does this workflow make sense? If you have any suggestion please let me know. I plan for this to be the work flow I use for the next few year. I just need to put a system in place that allows for future expansion! Thanks a bunch!!

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  • WCF ReliableSession and Timeouts

    - by user80108
    I have a WCF service used mainly for managing documents in a repository. I used the chunking channel sample from MS so that I could upload/download huge files. Now I implemented reliable session with the service and I am seeing some strange behaviors. Here are the timeout values I am using. this.SendTimeout = new TimeSpan(0,10,0); this.OpenTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0); this.CloseTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0); this.ReceiveTimeout = new TimeSpan(0,10, 0); reliableBe.InactivityTimeout = new TimeSpan(0,2,0); I have the following issues. 1. If the Service is not up & running, the clients are not get disconnected after OpenTimeout. I tried it with my test client. Scenario 1: Without Reliable Session: I get the following exception: Could not connect to net.tcp://localhost:8788/MediaManagementService/ep1. The connection attempt lasted for a time span of 00:00:00.9848790. TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8788 This is the correct behavior as I have given the OpenTimeout as 1 sec. Scenario 2: With ReliableSession: I get the same exception: Could not connect to net.tcp://localhost:8788/MediaManagementService/ep1. The connection attempt lasted for a time span of 00:00:00.9692460. TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:8788. But this message comes after around 10 mintes . (I believe after SendTimeout) So here I just have enabled the reliable session and now it looks like the OpenTimeout = SendTimeout for the client. Is this desired behavior? 2: Issue while uploading huge files with ReliableSession: The general rule is that you have to set a huge value for the maxReceivedMessageSize, SendTimeout and ReceiveTimeout. But in the case of Chunking channel, the max received message size doesn't matter as the data is sent in chunks. So I set a huge value for Send and ReceiveTimeout : say 10 hours. Now the upload is going fine, but it has a side effect that, even if the Service is not up, it takes 10 hours to timeout the client connection due to the behavior mentioned in (1). Please let me know your thoughts on this behavior.

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  • WPF Converter and NotifyOnTargetUpdated exclusive in a binding ?

    - by Mathieu Garstecki
    Hi, I have a problem with a databinding in WPF. When I try to use a value converter and set the NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True property to True, I get an XamlParseException with the following message: 'System.Windows.Data.BindingExpression' value cannot be assigned to property 'Contenu' of object 'View.UserControls.ShadowedText'. Value cannot be null. Parameter name: textToFormat Error at object 'System.Windows.Data.Binding' in markup file 'View.UserControls;component/saletotal.xaml' Line 363 Position 95. The binding is pretty standard: <my:ShadowedText Contenu="{Binding Path=Total, Converter={StaticResource CurrencyToStringConverter}, NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True}" TargetUpdated="MontantTotal_TargetUpdated"> </my:ShadowedText> (Styling properties removed for conciseness) The converter exists in the resources and works correctly when NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True is removed. Similarly, the TargetUpdated event is called and implemented correctly, and works when the converter is removed. Note: This binding is defined in a ControlTemplate, though I don't think that is relevant to the problem. Can anybody explain me what is happening ? Am I defining the binding wrong ? Are those features mutually exclusive (and in this case, can you explain why it is so) ? Thanks in advance. More info: Here is the content of the TargetUpdated handler: private void MontantTotal_TargetUpdated(object sender, DataTransferEventArgs e) { ShadowedText textBlock = (ShadowedText)e.TargetObject; double textSize = textBlock.Taille; double delta = 5; double defaultTaille = 56; double maxWidth = textBlock.MaxWidth; while (true) { FormattedText newFormat = new FormattedText(textBlock.Contenu, CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, FlowDirection.LeftToRight, new Typeface("Calibri"), textSize, (SolidColorBrush) Resources["RougeVif"]); if (newFormat.Width < textBlock.MaxWidth && textSize <= defaultTaille) { if ((Math.Round(newFormat.Width) + delta) >= maxWidth || textSize == defaultTaille) { break; } textSize++; } else { if ((Math.Round(newFormat.Width) - delta) <= maxWidth && textSize <= defaultTaille) { break; } textSize--; } } textBlock.Taille = textSize; } The role of the handler is to resize the control based on the length of the content. It is quite ugly but I want to have the functional part working before refactoring.

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  • Delphi TBytesField - How to see the text properly - Source is HIT OLEDB AS400

    - by myitanalyst
    We are connecting to a multi-member AS400 iSeries table via HIT OLEDB and HIT ODBC. You connect to this table via an alias to access a specific multi-member. We create the alias on the AS400 this way: CREATE ALIAS aliasname FOR table(membername) We can then query each member of the table this way: SELECT * FROM aliasname We are testing this in Delphi6 first, but will move it to D2010 later We are using HIT OLEDB for the AS400. We are pulling down records from a table and the field is being seen as a tBytesField. I have also tried ODBC driver and it sees as tBytesField as well. Directly on the AS400 I can query the data and see readable text. I can use the iSeries Navigation tool and see readable text as well. However when I bring it down to the Delphi client via the HIT OLEDB or HIT ODBC and try to view via asString then I just see unreadable text.. something like this: ñðð@ðõñððððñ÷@õôððõñòøóóöøñðÂÁÕÒ@ÖÆ@ÁÔÅÙÉÃÁ@@@@@@@@ÂÈÙÉâãæÁðòñè@ÔK@k@ÉÕÃK@@@@@@@@@ç I jumbled up the text above, but that is the character types that show up. When I did a test in D2010 the text looks like japanse or chinese characters, but if I display as AnsiString then it looks like what it does in Delphi 6. I am thinking this may have something to do with code pages or character sets, but I have no experience in this are so it is new to me if it is related. When I look at the Coded Character Set on the AS400 it is set to 65535. What do I need to do to make this text readable? We do have a third party component (Delphi400) that makes things behave in a more native AS400 manner. When I use its AS400 connection and AS400 query components it shows the field as a tStringField and displays just fine. BUT we are phasing out this product (for a number of reasons) and would really like the OLEDB with the ADO components work. Just for clarification the HIT OLEDB with tADOQuery do have some fields showing as tStringFields for many of the other tables we use... not sure why it is showing as a tBytesField in this case. I am not an AS400 expert, but looking at the field definititions on the AS400 the ones showing up as tBytesField look the same as the ones showing up as tStringFields... but there must be a difference. Maybe due to being a multi-member? So... does anyone have any guidance on how to get the correct string data that is readable? If you need more info please ask. Greg

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  • Java ReentrantReadWriteLocks - how to safely acquire write lock?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I am using in my code at the moment a ReentrantReadWriteLock to synchronize access over a tree-like structure. This structure is large, and read by many threads at once with occasional modifications to small parts of it - so it seems to fit the read-write idiom well. I understand that with this particular class, one cannot elevate a read lock to a write lock, so as per the Javadocs one must release the read lock before obtaining the write lock. I've used this pattern successfully in non-reentrant contexts before. What I'm finding however is that I cannot reliably acquire the write lock without blocking forever. Since the read lock is reentrant and I am actually using it as such, the simple code lock.getReadLock().unlock(); lock.getWriteLock().lock() can block if I have acquired the readlock reentrantly. Each call to unlock just reduces the hold count, and the lock is only actually released when the hold count hits zero. EDIT to clarify this, as I don't think I explained it too well initially - I am aware that there is no built-in lock escalation in this class, and that I have to simply release the read lock and obtain the write lock. My problem is/was that regardless of what other threads are doing, calling getReadLock().unlock() may not actually release this thread's hold on the lock if it acquired it reentrantly, in which case the call to getWriteLock().lock() will block forever as this thread still has a hold on the read lock and thus blocks itself. For example, this code snippet will never reach the println statement, even when run singlethreaded with no other threads accessing the lock: final ReadWriteLock lock = new ReentrantReadWriteLock(); lock.getReadLock().lock(); // In real code we would go call other methods that end up calling back and // thus locking again lock.getReadLock().lock(); // Now we do some stuff and realise we need to write so try to escalate the // lock as per the Javadocs and the above description lock.getReadLock().unlock(); // Does not actually release the lock lock.getWriteLock().lock(); // Blocks as some thread (this one!) holds read lock System.out.println("Will never get here"); So I ask, is there a nice idiom to handle this situation? Specifically, when a thread that holds a read lock (possibly reentrantly) discovers that it needs to do some writing, and thus wants to "suspend" its own read lock in order to pick up the write lock (blocking as required on other threads to release their holds on the read lock), and then "pick up" its hold on the read lock in the same state afterwards? Since this ReadWriteLock implementation was specifically designed to be reentrant, surely there is some sensible way to elevate a read lock to a write lock when the locks may be acquired reentrantly? This is the critical part that means the naive approach does not work.

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