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  • jQuery Animation and Classes

    - by ehdv
    Assume you have a list item, <li id="foo"> which you want to fade from one color to another when moused over, and that you are using jQuery. This is fairly easy: $('li#foo').bind('mouseenter' , function(e) { $(this).animate({backgroundColor: '#F00'} , 300); }); However, what if you wanted to get the resulting color or other style rules from a class defined in CSS without also declaring them in JavaScript? It seems there's no way to learn style information from CSS rules without having an example of the rule already in the document, which would require you to animate the <li> to the target appearance, then in the animation-finished callback, set the class which leads to redundant style declarations and can foul up your CSS at "runtime". Sorry if this question's unclear: It doesn't occur in the context of any specific project, I'm just curious how you'd go about this. Also, I know CSS3 hypothetically includes support for such transitions but using CSS for dynamic behavior like this seems such an ugly hack.

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  • c++ constructors

    - by aharont
    i wrote this code: class A { public: A(){d=2.2;cout<<d;} A(double d):d(d){cout<<d;} double getD(){return d;} private: double d; }; class Bing { public: Bing(){a=A(5.3);} void f(){cout<<a.getD();} private: A a; }; int main() { Bing b; b.f(); } i get the output: 2.2 5.3 5.3 instead of 5.3 5.3. it's something in the constructor.... wahy am i getting this? how can i fix it?

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  • C++: Could Polymorphic Copy Constructors work?

    - by 0xC0DEFACE
    Consider: class A { public: A( int val ) : m_ValA( val ) {} A( const A& rhs ) {} int m_ValA; }; class B : public A { public: B( int val4A, int val4B ) : A( val4A ), m_ValB( val4B ) {} B( const B& rhs ) : A( rhs ), m_ValB( rhs.m_ValB ) {} int m_ValB; }; int main() { A* b1 = new B( 1, 2 ); A* b2 = new A( *b1 ); // ERROR...but what if it could work? return 0; } Would C++ be broken if "new A( b1 )" was able to resolve to creating a new B copy and returning an A? Would this even be useful?

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  • jquery Hover and while loop

    - by DragoN
    i have a table of php with while loop to show the records i added a jquery hover to do that : if hovered it show a message in same row but the problem is : if hover it show a message in all rows here is css: <style> .tansa{ position: absolute; margin-right: -60px; margin-top:-25px; background: #CBDFF3; border: 1px solid #4081C3; font-size: 0.88em; padding: 2px 7px; display: inline-block; border-radius: 8px; -moz-border-radius: 8px; -webkit-border-radius: 8px; line-height: 1.2em; text-shadow: 0 0 0em #FFF; overflow: hidden; text-align: center; color:black; display:none; } .arrow{ position: relative; width: 0; height: 0; top: -25px; border-top: 5px solid #000000; border-right: 5px solid transparent; border-left: 5px solid transparent; display:none; } </style> here is my php : <table><tr>row</tr> <?php $results = mysql_query("select * from MyTable"); while{$r = mysql_fetch_array($results)){ echo "<tr><td>Row : <img src='img/tans.png' width='24' height='24' class='tansef' /><span class='tansa' >the message</span><div class='arrow'></div></td></tr>"; } ?> </table> here is jquery $(document).ready(function(){ $('.tansef').hover(function(){ var sh = $('.tansa'); var sharrow = $('.arrow'); sh.show(); sharrow.show(); },function(){ var shs = $('.tansa'); var sharrows = $('.arrow'); shs.hide(); sharrows.hide(); }); }); any solution to show the message in each row only

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  • Threading in java vs C#

    - by ffayyaz
    I need a little confirmation over something i am confused at . I know how threads work in java. new DialList(string a , string b).start(); // where DialList is a class public class DialList extends Thread { public DialList(String a, string b) { FilePath = a; ThreadLogFile = b"; } public void run() { // some code to run in different thread } } Now i want to run same code in C# , Shall i put the code which is in run() into a method and do something like Thread t = new Thread (runcsharp); // Kick off a new thread t.Start(); static void runcsharp() { // code } or is there some other way to do it ?

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  • How to simulate Func<T1, T2, TResult> in C++?

    - by Zach
    Hello all, In C#, I use Func to replace Factories. For example: class SqlDataFetcher { public Func<IConnection> CreateConnectionFunc; public void DoRead() { IConnection conn = CreateConnectionFunc(); // call the Func to retrieve a connection } } class Program { public void CreateConnection() { return new SqlConnection(); } public void Main() { SqlDataFetcher f = new SqlDataFetcher(); f.CreateConnectionFunc = this.CreateConnection; ... } } How can I simulate the code above in C++?

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  • CString a = "Hello " + "World!"; Is it possible?

    - by Sanctus2099
    I'm making my own string class and I was wondering if there's any way to replace the compiler behaviour around " characters. As I said in the title I'd like to make it so that CString a = "Hello " + "World!"; would actually work and not give a compiler error telling that it can't add 2 pointers. My string class automatically converts to char* when needed and thus writing printf(a) would not break the code. I'm sure this is a rather weird question but if it's possible I'd really like to know how to do it. Thank you very much

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  • Typecasting doesn't work. How to convert an object?

    - by Nastase Ion
    Hi everyone! I need to convert a custom object to a different object. How can I do that? I know that typecasting doesn't work (the only thing is does is "shuts the compiler warnings off", but nothing more). Here is a sample code: MyType* obj1; MyOtherType* obj2; obj1 = [MyType initWithData: 1]; obj2 = (MyOtherType*) obj1; if ([obj2 isMemberOfClass: [MyOtherType class]]) { NSLog(@"OK"); } else if ([obj2 isMemberOfClass: [MyType class]]) { NSLog(@"Nope"); } The result is: Nope What can I do??

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  • MEF Why is ComposePart an extension method?

    - by ILovePaperTowels
    CompositionContainer.ComposePart is an extension method. why is that? Looking into the System.Componentmodel.Composition assembly, it looks like it's because it is ONLY meant to work with the attributed programming model while the .Compose() method is able to take in exports as long as it is a composablepart. ComposePart is even hosted in the 'AttributedModelServices' class which makes me think I'm correct. Am I correct on this? If not, why is it an extension method and not a method in the container class?

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  • Usage of image in sIFR

    Hi there, I want to use sIFR in my blog posts also. But there's a major problem that I couldn't fix. Let's say the blog post is between these divs: <div class="post">BLOG POST IS HERE</div> So, my selector is .post. When I insert an image tag inside this div, the image isn't being showed by the browser. Just like this: <div class="post"><img src="myimage.jpg" align="left" />BLOG POST IS HERE</div> Is there a way to use sIFR with images?

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  • question regarding "this" pointer in c++

    - by sil3nt
    hello there, i have been given class with int variables x and y in private, and an operator overload function, class Bag{ private: int x; int y; public: Bag(); ~Bag(); //....... //.....etc }; Bag operator+ (Bag new) const{ Bag result(*this); //what does this mean? result.x += new.x; result.y += new.y; } What is the effect of having "Bag result(*this);" there?.

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  • WPF binding: Doing a temperature converter app

    - by Bob
    Hi there, I'm doing a little app that basically has 2 text boxes. You'll enter Fahrenheit into TextBoxA and Celsius into TextBoxB. As the text changes in TextBoxA I want the equivalent Celsius value to be displayed in TextBoxB and vice versa. I can come up with a solution pretty easy for this but i'm trying to be a little clever. Is there a way to do it all in Xaml except for a Convert class that does the maths? So basically I want the TextChanged event of one textBox to pass in it's value into a Converter class that is evaluated and sent to the other TextBox and visa versa. Anyone know how I can achieve this ... and if it's possible at all?

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  • Prevent "jQuery( html )" from triggering the browser to request images and other referenced content

    - by Chris Dutrow
    Using jQuery to create new DOM elements from text. Example: jQuery('<div><img src="/some_image.gif"></img></div>'); When this statement is executed, it causes the browser to request the file 'some_img.gif' from the server. Is there a way to execute this statement so that the resulting jQuery object can be used from DOM traversal, but not actually cause the browser to hit the server with requests for images and other referenced content? Example: var jquery_elememnts = jQuery('<div><img class="a_class" src="/some_image.gif"></img></div>'); var img_class = jquery_elememnts.find('img').attr('class'); The only idea I have now is to use regex to remove all of the 'src' tags from image elements and other things that will trigger the browser requests before using jQuery to evaluate the HTML. How can jQuery be used to evaluate HTML without triggering the browser to make requests to the server for referenced content inside the evaluated HTML? Thanks!

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  • Hibernate: delete many-to-many association

    - by Bar
    I have two tables with the many-to-many association. — DB fragment: loads Id Name sessions Id Date sessionsloads LoadId SessionId — Hibernate mapping fragments: /* loads.hbm.xml */ <set name="sessions" table="sessionsloads" inverse="true"> <key column="LoadId" /> <many-to-many column="SessionId" class="Session" /> </set> … /* sessions.hbm.xml */ <set name="loads" table="sessionsloads"> <key column="SessionId" /> <many-to-many column="LoadId" class="Load" /> </set> In order to remove one entry from the association table sessionsloads, I execute this code: Session session = sessionDao.getObject(sessionId); Load load = loadDao.getObject(loadId); load.getSessions().remove(session); loadDao.saveObject(load); But, after launching, this code change nothing. What's the right way to remove an association?

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  • Highlight curret page in jquery

    - by 3gwebtrain
    Hi, I have the 12 html pages. and all this pages are loads when the left navigation bar link clicked. in this, i need to add a class to the current link, which is clicked and loaded the page. i tried with this: $(function(){ $('#container li a').click(function(){ $('#container li a').removeClass('current'); var pathname = (window.location.pathname.match(/[^\/]+$/)[0]); var currentPage = $(this).attr('href'); if(currentPage==pathname){ $(this).addClass('current'); } else{ alert('wrong'); } // alert(pathname+' currentPage: '+currentPage); }) }) it works, but on page load, the class is removed, i don't know why it's happening.. any help?

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  • Include only the latest/newest associated record with active record?

    - by railsnewbie
    is it possible to load only the latest associated record of an associated table? an example: class author attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :birthday has_many :books end class book attr_accessible :pages, :date of publication, :title belongs_to :author end Is there a way to generate a scope to load only the newest released book the author wrote? Or the book with the most pages? I know, that I could include or join all books. But I don't know if its possible to load only a specific book for each author. So that I could do a query like this: Author.authors_and_their_newest_book So that I could get these results first_name_author_1, last_name_author_1, birthday_author_1, pages_book_3, date of publication_book_3, title_book_3 first_name_author_2, last_name_author_2, birthday_author_2, pages_book_5, date of publication_book_5, title_book_5 first_name_author_3, last_name_author_3, birthday_author_3, pages_book_9, date of publication_book_9, title_book_9 ...

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  • Is possible use 'div id' as name of array?

    - by rflfn
    Please view this jsfiddle jsfiddle.net/rflfn/uS4jd/ This is other try jsfiddle.net/rflfn/T3ZT6/ I'm using SMOF to developper Wordpress theme, I need make one function to change some values when link is clicked, but when I make array with name of div, the array returns null value... <a class="button" id="settext1">Some Link</a> <br /> <a class="button" id="settext2">Another Link</a> <br /> <a class="button" id="settext3">Link 3</a> <br /> JQ: $(document).ready(function(){ // var col_settext1 = new Array(); // <-- I need make this array with name of DIV cliked col_settext1['field_id1']='#FF0000'; col_settext1['field_id2']='#00FFFF'; // var txt_settext1 = new Array(); // <-- I need make this array with name of DIV cliked txt_settext1['field_id3']='Some Text Here'; txt_settext1['field_id4']='Another Text Here'; // var txt_settext2 = new Array(); // <-- I need make this array with name of DIV cliked txt_settext2['field_id5']='Some Text Here'; // var col_settext2 = new Array(); // <-- I need make this array with name of DIV cliked col_settext2['field_id6']='Another Text Here'; // var chk_settext2 = new Array(); // <-- I need make this array with name of DIV cliked chk_settext2['field_id7']="checked"; }); $('.button').click(function(){ $myclass = this.id; $col = 'col_' + $myclass; $txt = 'txt_' + $myclass; $chk = 'chk_' + $myclass; // Based I clicked on the link 'settext1', Here I have this: // col_settext1 // txt_settext1 // chk_settext1 // THE PROBLEM ARE HERE! $col = new Array(); // <--- Here I use name of DIV as Array, but the value is lost... $txt = new Array(); $chk = new Array(); // Test... alert($col); // <--- Here no have any value :( alert($col[1]); // <--- Here no have any value :( for (id in $col) { // 'id' is value of array --> col_settext1['field_id1']='#FF0000'; // do function based on array values... // just example: alert(id); } for (id in $txt) { // 'id' is value of array --> txt_settext1['field_id1']='#FF0000'; // do function based on array values... } for (id in $chk) { // 'id' is value of array --> chk_settext1['field_id1']='#FF0000'; // do function based on array values... } }); Is possible use name of the div as array name? Any suggestion or any other method to solve this problem is welcome.

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  • Why does var evaluate to System.Object in "foreach (var row in table.Rows)"?

    - by DanM
    When I enter this foreach statement... foreach (var row in table.Rows) ...the tooltip for var says class System.Object I'm confused why it's not class System.Data.DataRow. (In case you're wondering, yes, I have using System.Data at the top of my code file.) If I declare the type explicitly, as in... foreach (DataRow row in table.Rows) ...it works fine with no errors. Also if I do... var numbers = new int[] { 1, 2, 3 }; foreach (var number in numbers) ...var evaluates to struct System.Int32. So, the problem is not that var doesn't work in a foreach clause. So, there's something strange about DataRowCollection where the items don't automatically evaluate to DataRow. But I can't figure out what it is. Does anyone have an explanation?

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  • Force type of C++ template

    - by gregseth
    Hi, I've a basic template class, but I'd like to restrain the type of the specialisation to a set of classes or types. e.g.: template <typename T> class MyClass { .../... private: T* _p; }; MyClass<std::string> a; // OK MYCLass<short> b; // OK MyClass<double> c; // not OK Those are just examples, the allowed types may vary. Is that even possible? If it is, how to do so? Thanks.

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  • I want to make a wrapped acces type for certain internals of one of classes and I have some performa

    - by Alex
    I am writing an abstract matrix class (and some concrete subclasses) for use on very differing hardwares/architectures, etc. and I want to write a row and column type that provides a transparent reference to the rows and columns of the matrix. However, I want to tune for performance, so I'd like this class to be essentially a compiler construct. In other words, I'm willing to sacrifice some dev time to making the overhead of these classes as small as possible. I assume all (small) methods would want to be virtual? Keep the structure small? Any other suggestions?

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  • Spring @Transactional - Can I Override rollbackFor

    - by user475039
    Hi all, I am calling a service which has the following annotation: @Transactional(rollbackFor=ExceptionA.class) public void myMethodA(....) throws ExceptionA { . . } I am calling this method from an other method in another Spring Bean. @Transactional(rollbackFor=ExceptionB.class) public void mainEntryPointMethod(....) throws ExceptionB { . try { myMethodA() } catch (ExceptionA exp) { . } . } My problem is that if myMethodA throws an exception, my transaction (which is passed from mainEntryPointMethod - myMethodA by default propagation) will be marked for rollback. Is there a way in which the 'rollbackFor' for the inner method can be overriden? Thanks in advance Chris

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  • Need advice about pointers and time elapsed program. How to fix invalid operands and cannot convert errors?

    - by user1781382
    I am trying to write a program that tells the difference between the two times the user inputs. I am not sure how to go about this. I get the errors : Line 27|error: invalid operands of types 'int' and 'const MyTime*' to binary 'operator-'| Line |39|error: cannot convert 'MyTime' to 'const MyTime*' for argument '1' to 'int DetermineElapsedTime(const MyTime*, const MyTime*)'| I also need a lot of help in this problem. I don't have a good curriculum, and my class textbook is like cliffnotes for programming. This will be my last class at this university. The C++ teztbook I use(my own not for class) is Sam's C++ One hour a day. #include <iostream> #include<cstdlib> #include<cstring> using namespace std; struct MyTime { int hours, minutes, seconds; }; int DetermineElapsedTime(const MyTime *t1, const MyTime *t2); long t1, t2; int DetermineElapsedTime(const MyTime *t1, const MyTime *t2) { return((int)t2-t1); } int main(void) { char delim1, delim2; MyTime tm, tm2; cout << "Input two formats for the time. Separate each with a space. Ex: hr:min:sec\n"; cin >> tm.hours >> delim1 >> tm.minutes >> delim2 >> tm.seconds; cin >> tm2.hours >> delim1 >> tm2.minutes >> delim2 >> tm2.seconds; DetermineElapsedTime(tm, tm2); return 0; } I have to fix the errors first. Anyone have any ideas??

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  • How to overwrite virtual fnc in good style? [C++]

    - by atch
    Hi, guys I know this question is very basic but I've met in few publications (websites, books) different style of overwriting virtual function. What I mean is: if I have base class: class Base { public: virtual void f() = 0; }; in some publications I saw that to overwrite this some authors would just say: void f(); and some would still repeat the virtual keyword before void. Which form of overwriting is in good style? Thank you for your answers.

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