Search Results

Search found 23233 results on 930 pages for 'feature request'.

Page 85/930 | < Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >

  • How can I force the server socket to re-accept a request from a client?

    - by Roman
    For those who does not want to read a long question here is a short version: A server has an opened socket for a client. The server gets a request to open a socket from the same client-IP and client-port. I want to fore the server not to refuse such a request but to close the old socket and open a new one. How can I do ti? And here is a long (original) question: I have the following situation. There is an established connection between a server and client. Then an external software (Bonjour) says to my client the it does not see the server in the local network. Well, client does nothing about that because of the following reasons: If Bonjour does not see the server it does not necessarily means that client cannot see the server. Even if the client trusts the Bonjour and close the socket it does not improve the situation ("to have no open socket" is worser that "to have a potentially bad socket"). So, client do nothing if server becomes invisible to Bonjour. But than the server re-appears in the Bonjour and Bonjour notify the client about that. In this situation the following situations are possible: The server reappears on a new IP address. So, the client needs to open a new socket to be able to communicate with the server. The server reappears on the old IP address. In this case we have two subcases: 2.1. The server was restarted (switched off and then switched on). So, it does not remember the old socket (which is still used by the client). So, client needs to close the old socket and open a new one (on the same server-IP address and the same server-port). 2.2. We had a temporal network problem and the server was running the whole time. So, the old socket is still available for the use. In this case the client does not really need to close the old socket and reopen a new one. But to simplify my life I decide to close and reopen the socket on the client side in any case (in spite on the fact that it is not really needed in the last described situation). But I can have problems with that solution. If I close the socket on the client side and than try to reopen a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, server will not accept the call for a new socket. The server will think that such a socket already exists. Can I write the server in such a way, that it does not refuse such calls. For example, if it (the server) sees that a client send a request for a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, it (server) close the available socket, associated with this client-IP and client-port and than it reopens a new socket.

    Read the article

  • How to get the action argument of a wp-login.php request?

    - by Bruno De Barros
    I am trying to integrate my custom user system with Wordpress, and I have recently asked a question on how to redirect requests to wp-login.php to my own login/registration page, but as I was working on the pluggable functions, I realized that requests to wp-login.php can either be for login, registration, or log out. This is set in the action argument that's made in the request. What I am trying to figure out is how to get this action argument, so I can redirect the request to my custom pages. Is there any way of doing this? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to add parameters to a HTTP GET request in Android?

    - by groomsy
    I have a HTTP GET request that I am attempting to send. I tried adding the parameters to this request by first creating a BasicHttpParams object and adding the parameters to that object, then calling setParams( basicHttpParms ) on my HttpGet object. This method fails. But if I manually add my parameters to my URL (i.e. append '?param1=value1&param2=value2') it succeeds. I know I'm missing something here and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, groomsy

    Read the article

  • What is the sense of "Feature Oriented Programming" (FOP) in C++, and would it make sense in Java an

    - by ivan_ivanovich_ivanoff
    Hello! Sadly, I can't remember where I read it, but... ...in C++ you can derive a class from a template parameter. Im pretty sure it was called Feature Oriented Programming (FOP) and meant to be somehow useful. It was something like: template <class T> class my_class : T { // some very useful stuff goes here ;) } My questions about this: What is the sense of such pattern? Since this it not possible in Java / C#, how this pattern is achieved in these languages? Can it be expected to be implemented in Java / C# one day? (Well, first Java would need to get rid of type erasure) EDIT: I'm really not talking about generics in Java / C# (where you can't derive a class from a generic type parameter)

    Read the article

  • How can I create a single HTTP Get request for iPhone?

    - by Mph2
    Hi guys! First of all, sorry for my posibly bad english... I got a surely big stupid question... In my enterprise have an automatic door system, that is opened with a HTTP GET request to a file. Example: http://ipaddress/rc.cgi?o=1,50 Where the o=number indicates the amount of seconds that the automatic door will run. The is no need for authentification or nothing (that is made by LAN Radius). So, the question is... How can I make a single button (for example in the springboard) that when you touch it, runs the GET request? You thing that it should be possible with NSURLConection ? Thanks for all

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to get the current request that is being served by node.js?

    - by user420504
    I am using express.js. I have a need to be able to log certain request data whenever someone tries to log a message. For this I would like to create a helper method like so function log_message(level, message){ winston.log(level, req.path + "" + message); } I would then use the method like so. exports.index = function(req, res){ log_message("info", "I'm here"); } Note that I am not passing the req object to the log_message function. I want that to be transparently done so that the log_message API user does not need to be aware of the common data that is being logged. Is there a way to achieve this with express.js/node.js. Is the request object available from a global variable of some sort?

    Read the article

  • How many SQL queries per HTTP request is optimal?

    - by Chris Kooken
    I know the answer to this question for the most part is "It Depends", however I wanted to see if anyone had some pointers. We execute queries each request in ASP.NET MVC. Each request we need to get user rights information, and Various data for the Views that we are displaying. How many is too much, I know I should be conscious to the number of queries i am executing. I would assume if they are small queries and optimized out, half-a-dozen should be okay? Am I right? What do you think?

    Read the article

  • How to get full query string parameters not UrlDecoded

    - by developerit
    Introduction While developing Developer IT’s website, we came across a problem when the user search keywords containing special character like the plus ‘+’ char. We found it while looking for C++ in our search engine. The request parameter output in ASP.NET was “c “. I found it strange that it removed the ‘++’ and replaced it with a space… Analysis After a bit of Googling and Reflection, it turns out that ASP.NET calls UrlDecode on each parameters retreived by the Request(“item”) method. The Request.Params property is affected by this two since it mashes all QueryString, Forms and other collections into a single one. Workaround Finally, I solve the puzzle usign the Request.RawUrl property and parsing it with the same RegEx I use in my url re-writter. The RawUrl not affected by anything. As its name say it, it’s raw. Published on http://www.developerit.com/

    Read the article

  • pread() read only xxxx of yyyy

    - by Alix Axel
    Occasionally, nginx doesn't send any data back to the browser (ERR_EMPTY_RESPONSE in Chrome). Upon checking the server error.log, I find these weird messages: 2013/10/20 23:57:40 [alert] 29146#0: *35 pread() read only 4653 of 4656 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/20 23:57:45 [alert] 29146#0: *36 pread() read only 4653 of 4656 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/20 23:58:18 [alert] 29146#0: *38 pread() read only 4650 of 4653 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/20 23:58:18 [alert] 29146#0: *39 pread() read only 4650 of 4653 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/20 23:58:19 [alert] 29146#0: *40 pread() read only 4650 of 4653 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/21 00:02:21 [alert] 29146#0: *41 pread() read only 4629 of 4641 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/21 00:02:21 [alert] 29146#0: *42 pread() read only 4629 of 4641 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/21 00:02:23 [alert] 29146#0: *43 pread() read only 4629 of 4641 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/21 00:02:31 [alert] 29146#0: *44 pread() read only 4629 of 4641 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" 2013/10/21 00:02:46 [alert] 29146#0: *45 pread() read only 4629 of 4641 from "~/htdocs/index.html" while sending response to client, client: 127.0.0.1, server: localhost, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", host: "localhost" Does anyone have any idea why this happens? After a while everything is served correctly again.

    Read the article

  • How do I get a Mac to request a new IP address from another DHCP server running in parallel while Ne

    - by huyqt
    Hello, I have an interesting situation. I'm trying to us a Linux based machine to allow Mac's to Netboot (similiar to PXE boot) by running a DHCP service in parallel with the "global" DHCP server. The local DHCP server hands out IPs in a private subnet, e.g., 10.168.0.10-10.168.254-254, while the "global" DHCP server hands out IPs from the IP range 10.0.0.1 - 10.0.1.254. The local DHCP range is only supposed to be used in Preboot Execution Environment and Netboot. The local DHCP server is something I have control over, but I do not have access to the global DHCP server. I have a filter to only allow members with the vendor strings "AAPLBSDPC/i386" and "PXEClient". PXE works fine, but Netboot has a quirk. The Apple systems that haven't been connected to the network yet can Netboot fine. But once it grabs a "real" IP address from the global DHCP server, it will "save" it and request it the next time we want it to netboot (which the local dhcp server won't give it). This is what I want: Mar 30 10:52:28 dev01 dhcpd: DHCPDISCOVER from 34:15:xx:xx:xx:xx via eth1 Mar 30 10:52:29 dev01 dhcpd: DHCPOFFER on 10.168.222.46 to 34:15:xx:xx:xx:xx via eth1 Mar 30 10:52:31 dev01 dhcpd: DHCPREQUEST for 10.168.222.46 (10.168.0.1) from 34:15:xx:xx:xx:xx via eth1 Mar 30 10:52:31 dev01 dhcpd: DHCPACK on 10.168.222.46 to 34:15:xx:xx:xx:xx via eth1 Mar 30 10:52:32 dev01 in.tftpd[5890]: tftp: client does not accept options Mar 30 10:52:53 dev01 in.tftpd[5891]: tftp: client does not accept options Mar 30 10:52:53 dev01 in.tftpd[5893]: tftp: client does not accept options Mar 30 10:52:54 dev01 in.tftpd[5895]: tftp: client does not accept options This is what I get when it already has a "stored" IP: Mar 30 10:51:29 dev01 dhcpd: DHCPDISCOVER from 00:25:xx:xx:xx:xx via eth1 Mar 30 10:51:30 dev01 dhcpd: DHCPOFFER on 10.168.222.45 to 00:25:xx:xx:xx:xx via eth1 Mar 30 10:51:31 dev01 dhcpd: DHCPREQUEST for 10.0.0.61 (10.0.0.1) from 00:25:xx:xx:xx:xx via eth1: ignored (not authoritative). Do you have any suggestions? It would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to make Excel's "Auto Fit Row Height" feature actually auto fit the row height?

    - by DanM
    For every generation of Excel I can remember (including 2010, which I'm using now), Excel's "Auto Size Row" features sometimes fails to actually auto size a row when the cell contains wrapped text. When it works properly, all the text is revealed and there is no additional space below the last line of text. When it fails, it adds extra space below the text. To make matters worse, what you see is not always what you get, i.e., text that appeared okay on screen gets cut off when it's printed. You also get different sizing depending on whether you are zoomed in/out or at actual size. Simple test case: Why is there a one-line gap after the text in cell A1 but in A2? (I double-checked that I applied Auto Fit Row Height to both rows. Zoom level is 100%.) Is there any known remedy for this without resorting to manually adjusting the row heights (which is not practical for more than a handful of rows)?

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite "Request exceeded the limit of 10 internal redirects due to probable configuration error."

    - by Shoaibi
    What i want: Force www [works] Restrict access to .inc.php [works] Force redirection of abc.php to /abc/ Removal of extension from url Add a trailing slash if needed old .htaccess : Options +FollowSymLinks <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / ### Force www RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^example\.net$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www\.example\.net/$1 [L,R=301] ### Restrict access RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/(.*)\.inc\.php$ [NC] RewriteRule .* - [F,L] #### Remove extension: RewriteRule ^(.*)/$ /$1.php [L,R=301] ######### Trailing slash: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !(.*)/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.example.net/$1/ [R=301,L] </IfModule> New .htaccess: Options +FollowSymLinks <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / ### Force www RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^example\.net$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www\.example\.net/$1 [L,R=301] ### Restrict access RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/(.*)\.inc\.php$ [NC] RewriteRule .* - [F,L] #### Remove extension: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} \.php$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f RewriteRule (.*)\.php$ /$1/ [L,R=301] #### Map pseudo-directory to PHP file RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule (.*) /$1.php [L] ######### Trailing slash: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule (.*) $1/ [L,R=301] </IfModule> errorlog: Request exceeded the limit of 10 internal redirects due to probable configuration error. Use 'LimitInternalRecursion' to increase the limit if necessary. Use 'LogLevel debug' to get a backtrace., referer: http://www.example.net/ Rewrite.log: http://pastebin.com/x5PKeJHB

    Read the article

  • Is the view history in Firefox 3.6.3 broken or is there an "undocumented feature"?

    - by Lirik
    Firefox View History Before Firefox 3.6.3 when I clicked Ctrl+H it would display my browsing history and I would be able to search it, sort it by Most Visited, Last Visited, etc. Since 3.6.3 I have been having issues: Firefox does not display any entries when filtering by Most Visited or Last Visited. Searching does not work regardless of what keyword I use (i.e. if I type stackoverflow it won't even find it, although it's one of the most visited web sites in my history). Is anybody experiencing similar problems? Are there any known issues that might be causing the problems that I'm seeing?

    Read the article

  • Advice Needed: Developers blocked by waiting on code to merge from another branch using GitFlow

    - by fogwolf
    Our team just made the switch from FogBugz & Kiln/Mercurial to Jira & Stash/Git. We are using the Git Flow model for branching, adding subtask branches off of feature branches (relating to Jira subtasks of Jira features). We are using Stash to assign a reviewer when we create a pull request to merge back into the parent branch (usually develop but for subtasks back into the feature branch). The problem we're finding is that even with the best planning and breakdown of feature cases, when multiple developers are working together on the same feature, say on the front-end and back-end, if they are working on interdependent code that is in separate branches one developer ends up blocking the other. We've tried pulling between each others' branches as we develop. We've also tried creating local integration branches each developer can pull from multiple branches to test the integration as they develop. Finally, and this seems to work possibly the best for us so far, though with a bit more overhead, we have tried creating an integration branch off of the feature branch right off the bat. When a subtask branch (off of the feature branch) is ready for a pull request and code review, we also manually merge those change sets into this feature integration branch. Then all interested developers are able to pull from that integration branch into other dependent subtask branches. This prevents anyone from waiting for any branch they are dependent upon to pass code review. I know this isn't necessarily a Git issue - it has to do with working on interdependent code in multiple branches, mixed with our own work process and culture. If we didn't have the strict code-review policy for develop (true integration branch) then developer 1 could merge to develop for developer 2 to pull from. Another complication is that we are also required to do some preliminary testing as part of the code review process before handing the feature off to QA.This means that even if front-end developer 1 is pulling directly from back-end developer 2's branch as they go, if back-end developer 2 finishes and his/her pull request is sitting in code review for a week, then front-end developer 2 technically can't create his pull request/code review because his/her code reviewer can't test because back-end developer 2's code hasn't been merged into develop yet. Bottom line is we're finding ourselves in a much more serial rather than parallel approach in these instance, depending on which route we go, and would like to find a process to use to avoid this. Last thing I'll mention is we realize by sharing code across branches that haven't been code reviewed and finalized yet we are in essence using the beta code of others. To a certain extent I don't think we can avoid that and are willing to accept that to a degree. Anyway, any ideas, input, etc... greatly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Enabling printing feature within the Terminal Server environment that is published to the internet?

    - by Albert Widjaja
    I got the home and remote office users connect to the Terminal Server on my Windows Server 2003 that I published securely through Juniper SSL VPN client applet, they use normal internet connection to access the link which pop up the Terminal Server Remote Desktop application, so my question is, how can they print out the document from within their terminal server session ? if it is going through the internal office LAN mapping the printer through Remote Desktop connection is the solution but not for this one. Any kind of help and suggestion would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I fix the broken Windows 7 Search feature?

    - by jasonh
    I'm trying to search my Windows Home Server for .DS_Store files that my Mac littered the server with. Windows 7 reports there are no *.DS_Store files in a folder, even though I can see it with the Show hidden files and folders option turned on. What can I do to track all these files down on my server and wipe them out?

    Read the article

  • How do I handle a request for "index.php/somepath" in Nginx config?

    - by Arne
    I'm currently attempting to serve Icinga from nginx. The new Icinga-Web ui attempts to load a file from URL http://SERVER/icinga-web/index.php/appkit/squishloader/javascript (leading to a 404). How do I setup a location for this scenario? How do I get nginx to serve index.php and pass the full request path in a way Icinga understands? This is my current nginx config for icinga (adapted from the default apache config): server { server_name SERVER; root /opt/icinga/icinga-1.2.1; location /icinga-web/js/ext3 { alias /opt/icinga/icinga-1.2.1/lib/ext3; } location /icinga-web { alias /opt/icinga/icinga-1.2.1/pub; } location /icinga/cgi-bin { alias /opt/icinga/icinga-1.2.1/sbin; } location /icinga { alias /opt/icinga/icinga-1.2.1/share; } location ~ \.php([\?/].*)?$ { include fastcgi_params; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:61000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $document_root$fastcgi_script_name; } } Any thoughts? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Retrieve the full ASP.NET Form Buffer as a String

    - by Rick Strahl
    Did it again today: For logging purposes I needed to capture the full Request.Form data as a string and while it’s pretty easy to retrieve the buffer it always takes me a few minutes to remember how to do it. So I finally wrote a small helper function to accomplish this since this comes up rather frequently especially in debugging scenarios or in the immediate window. Here’s the quick function to get the form buffer as string: /// <summary> /// Returns the content of the POST buffer as string /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public static string FormBufferToString() { HttpRequest Request = HttpContext.Current.Request; if (Request.TotalBytes > 0) return Encoding.Default.GetString(Request.BinaryRead(Request.TotalBytes)); return string.Empty; } Clearly a simple task, but handy to have in your library for reuse. You probably don’t want to call this if you have a massive inbound form buffer, or if the data you’re retrieving is binary. It’s probably a good idea to check the inbound content type before calling this function with something like this: var formBuffer = string.Empty; if (Request.ContentType.StartsWith("text/") || Request.ContentType == "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") ) { formBuffer = FormBufferToString(); } to ensure you’re working only on content types you can actually view as text. Now if I can only remember the name of this function in my library – it’s part of the static WebUtils class in the West Wind Web Toolkit if you want to check out a number of other useful Web helper functions.© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2011Posted in ASP.NET  

    Read the article

  • Why won't dhclient use the static IP I'm telling it to request?

    - by mike
    Here's my /etc/dhcp3/dhclient.conf: request subnet-mask, broadcast-address, time-offset, routers, domain-name, domain-name-servers, domain-search, host-name, netbios-name-servers, netbios-scope, interface-mtu; timeout 60; reject 192.168.1.27; alias { interface "eth0"; fixed-address 192.168.1.222; } lease { interface "eth0"; fixed-address 192.168.1.222; option subnet-mask 255.255.255.0; option broadcast-address 255.255.255.255; option routers 192.168.1.254; option domain-name-servers 192.168.1.254; } When I run "dhclient eth0", I get this: There is already a pid file /var/run/dhclient.pid with pid 6511 killed old client process, removed PID file Internet Systems Consortium DHCP Client V3.1.1 Copyright 2004-2008 Internet Systems Consortium. All rights reserved. For info, please visit http://www.isc.org/sw/dhcp/ wmaster0: unknown hardware address type 801 wmaster0: unknown hardware address type 801 Listening on LPF/eth0/00:1c:25:97:82:20 Sending on LPF/eth0/00:1c:25:97:82:20 Sending on Socket/fallback DHCPREQUEST of 192.168.1.27 on eth0 to 255.255.255.255 port 67 DHCPACK of 192.168.1.27 from 192.168.1.254 bound to 192.168.1.27 -- renewal in 1468 seconds. I used strace to make sure that dhclient really is reading that conf file. Why isn't it paying attention to my "reject 192.168.1.27" and "fixed-address 192.168.1.222" lines?

    Read the article

  • Mailbox move issue from Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2010

    - by Ryan Roussel
    Today while moving mailboxes between Exchange 2003 and Exchange 2010, I hit an issue with a couple of mailboxes.  These mailboxes all popped access denied errors or more exactly: Insufficient Access Rights to perform the operation.   The cause was similar to the mail flow issue in that inheritable permissions were not turned on for the user object in Active Directory.  This also presented it’s own unique problem in that since the initial move request failed because of permissions, it had to be cleared before a new move request could be created. On top of that, the request did not show up in the EMC.  I used the following process to clear the request, assign permission, then create a new request:   1. First you need to know the ExchangeGUID of the mailbox for the remove-moverequest command.  To quickly get the GUID for a mailbox simply run:         2. Next we need to clear out the move request using PowerShell by running: [PS] c:\>Remove-moverequest -moverequestqueue "mailbox database 1030639620" -mailboxguid 8525686f-d4d3-42b7-92f1-46d77ea841a3   3. Then to re-establish inheritable permissions. This can be done by using AD Users and Computers, switching to View Advanced Features, then under the Security tab of the object.  Click Advanced, then check “allow inheritable permissions of parent to propagate to this object”   4. Once the Inheritable permissions are restored, we need to create a new move request: NOTE:  The EMC can also be used to initiate the Move Request once the permissions are corrected. [PS] c:\>New-moverequest –identity jyoung  -baditemlimit 100 -targetdatabase "mailbox database 1030639620"   And that’s it.  The mailbox should move over smoothly with no access denied error.

    Read the article

  • How to get rid of messages addressed to not existing subdomains?

    - by user71061
    Hi! I have small problem with my sendmail server and need your little help :-) My situation is as follow: User mailboxes are placed on MS exchanege server and all mail to and from outside world are relayed trough my sendmail box. Exchange server ----- sendmail server ------ Internet My servers accept messages for one main domain (say, my.domain.com) and for few other domains (let we narrow it too just one, say my_other.domain.com). After configuring sendmail with showed bellow abbreviated sendmail.mc file, essentially everything works ok, but there is small problem. I want to reject messages addressed to not existing recipients as soon as possible (to avoid sending non delivery reports), so my sendmail server make LDAP queries to exchange server, validating every recipient address. This works well both domains but not for subdomains. Such subdomains do not exist, but someone (I'm mean those heated spamers :-) could try addresses like this: user@any_host.my.domain.com or user@any_host.my_other.domain.com and for those addresses results are as follows: Messages to user@sendmail_hostname.my.domain.com are rejected with error "Unknown user" (due to additional LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN line in my sendmail.mc file, and this is expected behaviour) Messages to user@any_other_hostname.my.domain.com are rejected with error "Relaying denied". Little strange to me, why this time the error is different, but still ok. After all message was rejected and I don't care very much what error code will be returned to sender (spamer). Messages to user@sendmail_hostname.my_other.domain.com and user@any_other_hostname.my_other.domain.com are rejected with error "Unknown user" but only when, there is no user@my_other.domain.com mailbox (on exchange server). If such mailbox exist, then all three addresses (i.e. user@my_other.domain.com, user@sendmail_hostname.my_other.domain.com and user@any_other_hostname.my_other.domain.com) will be accepted. (adding additional line LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(my_sendmail_host.my_other.domain.com) to my sendmail.mc file don't change anything) My abbreviated sendmail.mc file is as follows (sendmail 8.14.3-5). Both domains are listed in /etc/mail/local-host-names file (FEATURE(use_cw_file) ): define(`_USE_ETC_MAIL_')dnl include(`/usr/share/sendmail/cf/m4/cf.m4')dnl OSTYPE(`debian')dnl DOMAIN(`debian-mta')dnl undefine(`confHOST_STATUS_DIRECTORY')dnl define(`confRUN_AS_USER',`smmta:smmsp')dnl FEATURE(`no_default_msa')dnl define(`confPRIVACY_FLAGS',`needmailhelo,needexpnhelo,needvrfyhelo,restrictqrun,restrictexpand,nobodyreturn,authwarnings')dnl FEATURE(`use_cw_file')dnl FEATURE(`access_db', , `skip')dnl FEATURE(`always_add_domain')dnl MASQUERADE_AS(`my.domain.com')dnl FEATURE(`allmasquerade')dnl FEATURE(`masquerade_envelope')dnl dnl define(`confLDAP_DEFAULT_SPEC',`-p 389 -h my_exchange_server.my.domain.com -b dc=my,dc=domain,dc=com')dnl dnl define(`ALIAS_FILE',`/etc/aliases,ldap:-k (&(|(objectclass=user)(objectclass=group))(proxyAddresses=smtp:%0)) -v mail')dnl FEATURE(`ldap_routing',, `ldap -1 -T<TMPF> -v mail -k proxyAddresses=SMTP:%0', `bounce')dnl LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(`my.domain.com')dnl LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(`my_other.domain.com ')dnl LDAPROUTE_DOMAIN(`my_sendmail_host.my.domain.com')dnl define(`confLDAP_DEFAULT_SPEC', `-p 389 -h "my_exchange_server.my.domain.com" -d "CN=sendmail,CN=Users,DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com" -M simple -P /etc/mail/ldap-secret -b "DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com"')dnl FEATURE(`nouucp',`reject')dnl undefine(`UUCP_RELAY')dnl undefine(`BITNET_RELAY')dnl define(`confTRY_NULL_MX_LIST',true)dnl define(`confDONT_PROBE_INTERFACES',true)dnl define(`MAIL_HUB',` my_exchange_server.my.domain.com.')dnl FEATURE(`stickyhost')dnl MAILER_DEFINITIONS MAILER(smtp)dnl Could someone more experienced with sendmail advice my how to reject messages to those unwanted subdomains? P.S. Mailboxes @my_other.domain.com are used only for receiving messages and never for sending.

    Read the article

  • Mercurial internal Setup on Windows 7 - Exception happened during processing of request from ...

    - by Sad0w1nL1ght
    Hy, i have 1 central repository and many locals. On my machine i have local and a central repository too. I can make clone/commit/update/push/pull very easy between the local and central repository on my local machine. but when i want to make a clone from another machine it gets an error. listening at http://MyLocalMachine:8000/ (bound to *:8000) ---------------------------------------- Exception happened during processing of request from ('192.168.0.194', 49319) Traceback (most recent call last): File "SocketServer.pyc", line 558, in process_request_thread File "SocketServer.pyc", line 320, in finish_request File "mercurial\hgweb\server.pyc", line 47, in __init__ File "SocketServer.pyc", line 615, in __init__ File "BaseHTTPServer.pyc", line 329, in handle File "BaseHTTPServer.pyc", line 323, in handle_one_request File "mercurial\hgweb\server.pyc", line 79, in do_GET File "mercurial\hgweb\server.pyc", line 70, in do_POST File "mercurial\hgweb\server.pyc", line 63, in do_write File "mercurial\hgweb\server.pyc", line 127, in do_hgweb File "mercurial\hgweb\hgweb_mod.pyc", line 86, in __call__ File "mercurial\hgweb\hgweb_mod.pyc", line 118, in run_wsgi ErrorResponse ---------------------------------------- The command line wich started the central repo: hg serve -R TT -n TTZoli The command from remote machine for cloning: hg clone --pull http://MyLocalMachine:8000/TT Config for the central repo: [ui] username = MyLocalUserName username = test <[email protected]> with this user i'm trying to acces the central repo [web] push_ssl = false Config for the remote repo: [ui] username = test <[email protected]> [web] push_ssl = false I'm not sure if it's relevant,my firewall is turned off on both machines, and the files in /hg folder are not versioned on the server, except hgignore. Could you please suggest some ideas? What could be the problem? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Simple Linux program that takes any HTTP/HTTPS request and returns a single page?

    - by ultrasawblade
    I have a Linux box operating as router. There's a NIC that's connected to the internet (WAN), a NIC connected to an 8-port GbE switch (LAN), and a NIC connected to a Linksys wireless N-router (WLAN). Routing between everything is working perfectly. I have security completely disabled on the wireless router, but the WLAN NIC is firewalled such that it will only accept DNS queries and PPTP VPN connections. Currently HTTP/HTTPS traffic and everything else is blocked. I would like to run something that listens on port 80/443 of the WLAN NIC, and, for non VPN'ed connections, given any HTTP/HTTPS request it will return a single webpage saying "Unauthenticated" and explain how to sign into the VPN. A transparent proxy seems to be what I need, but my searches all seem to direct me to Squid, which is already running on my server and seems overkill for this simple task. Is there a simpler, lightweight program out there that does just this or should I just suck it up and run two instances of Squid (or figure out how to configure it)? Or, is this entire VPN thing I'm doing complete nonsense and I should just enable encryption on the wireless router?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >