Search Results

Search found 49574 results on 1983 pages for 'key value observing'.

Page 85/1983 | < Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >

  • Powershell Registry value to be used as variable

    - by CWL
    I am looking on how to return one value from the registry. I only want the AGENTGUID value from this command. $reg=reg query "\\$computer\HKLM\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\Network Associates\ePolicy Orchestrator\Agent" /v Agentguid $reg will return this as one line. I only need {F789B761-81BE-4357-830B-368B5B3CF5E5} HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\Network Associates\ePolicy Orchestrator\Agent Aentguid REG_SZ {F789B761-81BE-4357-830B-368B5B3CF5E5}

    Read the article

  • "Undefined index" when quoting array key

    - by Satish
    I have a form in index.php <?php echo '<form action="update_act.php" method="POST">'; echo '<input type="submit" name="'.$row['act_name'].'" value="edit"> echo </form> ?> Here $row['act_name'] is a value fetched from database. My update_act.php file is <?php echo "Old Activity Name : ".$_POST['$row[\'act_name\']']; ?> But I am getting an error Undefined index: $row['act_name'] in C:\wamp\www\ps\activity\update_act.php. I want to have different names for different submits but I am not able to get its value in another page. Is there any way for it?

    Read the article

  • Anova test in the loop and outputing the p-value in separate column

    - by Juanhijuan
    Once again I'm trying to get an answer. I am already stuck for like 5h with that so that's why I keep trying to get an answer. That's my data: id Sequence variable value 75 AAAAGAAAVANQGKK BiotinControl1_2 3893050.50 192 AAAAGAAAVANQGKK BiotinControl1_2 900604.61 3770 AAFTKLDQVWGSE BiotinControl1_2 90008.14 The code which I am trying to use to calculate the p-value: My Code: tbl_anv <- tbl_all_onlyK[,c("id", "BiotinControl1_2", "BiotinControl2", "BiotinControl3", "BiotinTreatment1_2", "BiotinTreatment2", "BiotinTreatment3", "Sequence")] tbl_reo <- melt(tbl_anv, measure.vars=2:7) set.seed(1) vars <- c("id", "BiotinControl1_2", "BiotinControl2", "BiotinControl3", "BiotinTreatment1_2", "BiotinTreatment2", "BiotinTreatment3", "Sequence") tbl_reo <- as.data.frame(tbl_reo) by(tbl_reo,tbl_reo$Sequence,function(x){ anova(lm(value ~ variable, data = x))$"Pr(>F)"[1] }) An error ocurs: There were 50 or more warnings (use warnings() to see the first 50) Anyway, how can I do that and export the p-value in the separate column. That's what I tried to do on my own: aov_test <- by(tbl_reo,tbl_reo$Sequence,function(x){ anova(lm(value ~ variable, data = x))$"Pr(>F)"[1] }) tbl_reo[,5] <- aov.test[[1]]$'Pr(>F)'[1]

    Read the article

  • Where to set timeout value for website?

    - by gdavjenk
    I have a website that has its own application pool and uses ASP.net. The application interfaces with a SQL database. I changed the IIS timeout value from 20 minutes to 30 minutes but it still tinmes out at 20 minutes. If I set the IIS, ASP, and apppool timeouts all to 30 minutes it works correctly. Is there a single place I can set the timeout value or do I need to set the timeout in all three locations?

    Read the article

  • INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE - but NOT using the duplicate key to compare.

    - by calumbrodie
    I am trying to solve a problem I have inherited with poor treatment of different data sources. I have a user table that contains BOTH good and evil users. create table `users`( `user_id` int(13) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `email` varchar(255) , `name` varchar(255) , PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`) ); In this table the primary key is currently set to be user_id. I have another table ('users_evil') which contains ONLY the evil users (all the users from this table are included in the first table) - the user_id's on this table do NOT correspond to those in the first table. I want to have all my users in one table, and simply flag which are good and which are evil. What I want to do is alter the user table and add a column ('evil') which defaults to 0. I then want to dump the data from my 'users_evil') table and then run an INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE with this data into the first table (setting 'evil'=1 where the emails match) The problem is that the 'PK' is set to the user_id and not the 'email'. Any suggestions, or even another strategy to successfully achive this. Can I run this statement but treat another column as PK only for the duration of the statement.

    Read the article

  • assign characters to key combinations in XP or Visual Studio .Net

    - by cpj
    I'm running Mac OSX on a MacBookPro (UK keyboard). I run windows XP under parallels in a VM. I run Visual Studio .Net 2003 and 2008 in XP in the VM when i need to. I have English United Kingdom and English United states keyboards setup in XP. (they switch sometimes for no apparent reason) There is no hash "#" key on my mac's keyboard. However, in OSX I can get a hash with an alt+3 key combination. But In Windows XP... I can not make a "#" character. I can go to the character map in windows and copy a hash.. switch into OSX and copy a hash.. search in code and copy a hash.. but I can not make a hash in XP using my keyboard without typing U+0023: ... which you can imagine is annoying. coding anything with hash symbols is becoming a choir. Anyone got any advice or key mapping tricks I can use to get hash characters working in XP using my mac UK keyboard?

    Read the article

  • Handling primary key duplicates in a data warehouse load

    - by Meff
    I'm currently building an ETL system to load a data warehouse from a transactional system. The grain of my fact table is the transaction level. In order to ensure I don't load duplicate rows I've put a primary key on the fact table, which is the transaction ID. I've encountered a problem with transactions being reversed - In the transactional database this is done via a status, which I pick up and I can work out if the transaction is being done, or rolled back so I can load a reversal row in the warehouse. However, the reversal row will have the same transaction ID and so I get a primary key violation. I've solved this for now by negating the primary key, so transaction ID 1 would be a payment, and transaction ID -1 (In the warehouse only) would be the reversal. I have considered an alternative of generating a BIT column, where 0 is normal and 1 is reversal, then making the PK the transaction ID and the BIT column. My question is, is this a good practice, and has anyone else encountered anything like this? For reference, this is a payment processing system, so values will not be modified, so there will only ever be transactions and reversals.

    Read the article

  • Check if key exists in $_SESSION by building index string

    - by Kim
    I need to check if a key exists and return its value if it does. Key can be an array with subkeys or endkey with a value. $_SESSION['mainKey']['testkey'] = 'value'; var_dump(doesKeyExist('testkey')); function doesKeyExist($where) { $parts = explode('/',$where); $str = ''; for($i = 0,$len = count($parts);$i<$len;$i++) { $str .= '[\''. $parts[$i] .'\']'; } $keycheck = '$_SESSION[\'mainKey\']' . $str; if (isset(${$keycheck})) { return ${$keycheck}; } // isset($keycheck) = true, as its non-empty. actual content is not checked // isset(${$keycheck}) = false, but should be true. ${$var} forces a evaluate content // isset($_SESSION['mainKey']['testkey']) = true } What am I doing wrong ? Using PHP 5.3.3.

    Read the article

  • Updating a composite primary key

    - by VBCSharp
    I am struggling with the philosophical discussions about whether or not to use composite primary keys on my SQL Server database. I have always used the surrogate keys in the past and I am challenging myself by leaving my comfort zone to try something different. I have read many discussion but can't come to any kind of solution yet. The struggle I am having is when I have to update a record with the composite PK. For example, the record in questions is like this: ContactID, RoleID, EffectiveDate, TerminationDT. The PK in this case is the ContactID, RoleID, and EffectiveDate. TerminationDT can be null. If in my UI, the user changes the RoleID and then I need to update the record. Using the surrogate key I can do an Update Table Set RoleID = 1 WHERE surrogateID = Z. However, using the Composite Key way, once one of the fields in the composite key changes I have no way to reference the old record to update it without now maintaining somewhere in the UI a reference to the old values. I do not bind datasources in my UI. I open a connection, get the data and store it in a bucket, then close the connection. What are everyone's opinions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Excel formula to compare single value in one cell with multiple values in other cell

    - by Raw
    I have a value in Column A, which I want to compare with multiple values of corresponding cell in column B, and depending on that value, put the answer in column C. For example, using the table below, it searching in column B for values which are less than or equal to 12 and put the answer in same order in column C. Column A Column B Column C 12 0,12,13,14 Yes, Yes, No, No 101 101,102,103,104 Yes, No, No, No How can I do this in Excel?

    Read the article

  • Problem with DataGrid_CellFormatting event to set default value

    - by Royson
    Hi, I have created an applicationto display list of files. it also provide user interface for adding new column to a gridview. DataGridViewTextBoxColumn txtBoxColumn = new DataGridViewTextBoxColumn(); txtBoxColumn.Name = columnName; txtBoxColumn.HeaderText = columnName; g_dataGridView.Columns.Add(txtBoxColumn); User will create some custom type column therefore i am adding column directly to grid. I am also able to set its default value before adding for this i am using DataGrid_CellFormatting(object sender, DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs e) { if (colIndexWithDefaultValue.Count > 0) { if (colIndexWithDefaultValue.Contains(e.ColumnIndex)) { g_dataGridView.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[e.ColumnIndex].Value = colIndexWithDefaultValue[e.ColumnIndex]; } } } where colIndexWithDefaultValue is list of columns with its default value. It is able to show newly created column with default value. But values are getting set for currently visible rows. To set value for all rows i have to do scrolling. So, how do i overcome this problem...

    Read the article

  • Get name and value from the input tag

    - by DroidIn.net
    Before you say "oh no, not again" here I'm stating my case. I'm parsing part of HTML output and the only thing I'm interested in is name and value attributes of each <input/ tag. HTML is actually HTML fragment, may not be well-formed. I don't have DOM or HTML parser and I don't try to parse nested elements anyway. The problem is that I don't know the order or number of attributes so it could be <input name="foo" value="boo"/> or <input type="hidden" name=foo> or <input id=blah value='boo' src="image.png" name="foo" type="img"/>. Is there a single regular expression that would get me values of name and value attribute in predictable order? I wouldn't have asked the question if I could assume that name attribute always precedes value but unfortunately this is not the case

    Read the article

  • VBA code to hide or unhide rows based on a cell value

    - by I AM L
    Heres my code, but its not really doing anything, I dont see anything wrong with it: Private Sub PG1(ByVal Target As Range) If .Range("E50").Value = "Passed" Then Rows("51").EntireRow.Hidden = True End If ElseIf Range("E50").Value = "Failed" Then Rows("51").EntireRow.Hidden = True End If End Sub My intention is that when that specific cell in the previous row is set to "Passed" from the dropdown, then the below row would appear, if its a 'Failed" then it'll be hidden instead.

    Read the article

  • knockout.js with optionsValue and value

    - by Mike Flynn
    Is there a way to keep the value binding to the object, but have the optionsValue be a property on the object. As of now if I specify both, the optionsValue property that is selected will populate the value binding. Id like to keep the object intact in the observable, but specify what value to be set in the select list value. This way a form submit will send the optionsValue I chose. @Html.DropDownListFor(q => q.DivisionId, new SelectList(Enumerable.Empty<string>()), new { data_bind="options: divisions, optionsText: 'Name', optionsValue: 'Id', value: division, optionsCaption: ' - '" }) function AddCrossPoolGameDialog() { var self = this; self.divisions = ko.observableArray([]); self.division = ko.observable(); self.awayDivisionTeams = ko.computed(function () { var division = ko.utils.arrayFirst(self.divisions(), function(item) { return self.division.Name() == item.Name; }); if (division) { return division.DivisionTeamPools; } return []; }); }

    Read the article

  • update value of a variable outside a class in VB.NET

    - by dpp
    I have a class derived from a Form, it has textbox for username and password and an OK button. I want it to behave like an InputBox so I can use it like this: Dim Username As String = "" Dim Password As String = "" Dim authorization As New Authorization(Username, Password) authorization.ShowDialog() 'The user will click OK and I will expect the Username and Password to change based on the user input MsgBox(Username & " " & Password) The Authorization class: Public Class Authorization Dim RefUsername As String Dim RefPassword As String Public Sub New(ByRef Username As String, ByRef Password As String) InitializeComponent() RefUsername = Username 'I'm trying to pass reference instead of value RefPassword = Password 'I'm trying to pass reference instead of value End Sub Private Sub OKButton_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles AuthorizeButton.Click RefUsername = Username.Text 'I'm trying to change value of variable outside the class RefPassword = Password.Text 'I'm trying to change value of variable outside the class Me.Close() End Sub End Class In short, I want to change the value of variables outside the class when the user clicks the OK, how am I going to accomplish that?

    Read the article

  • Set cookie value before view loaded in MVC?

    - by James123
    I need to set a cookie value before my view called. otherwise I have to refresh the page to get cookie value in the view. The problem here is the value of cookie will get in controller. [HttpGet] [Route("Abstract/{meetingCode}")] [AllowAnonymous] public ActionResult Index(string meetingCode) { var meetingAbstract = new MeetingAbstract(); meetingAbstract.Meeting = _abstractContext.GetMeetingWithMeetingCode(meetingCode); if (meetingAbstract.Meeting != null) { var cookie = new HttpCookie("_culture"); cookie.Value = meetingAbstract.Meeting.language.language_locale_code;//"en-US"; cookie.Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(365); cookie.Path = "/"; this.ControllerContext.HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); ... Any other way without refresh the page again to set cookie value?

    Read the article

  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

    Read the article

  • Getting a drop down box value with javascript?

    - by ritch
    I'm trying to get the value currently selected and I simply want to alert it. I current have this: <script type="text/javascript"> alert(forms.elements('sets').value); </script> HTML: <form> <select name="sets"> <option value="1">1 Set</option> <option value="2">2 Sets</option> <option value="F">3 Sets</option> </select> </form>

    Read the article

  • NHibernate with string primary key and relationships

    - by John_
    I've have just been stumped with this problem for an hour and I annoyingly found the problem eventually. THE CIRCUMSTANCES I have a table which users a string as a primary key, this table has various many to one and many to many relationships all off this primary key. When searching for multiple items from the table all relationships were brought back. However whenever I tried to get the object by the primary key (string) it was not bringing back any relationships, they were always set to 0. THE PARTIAL SOLUTION So I looked into my logs to see what the SQL was doing and that was returning the correct results. So I tried various things in all sorts of random ways and eventually worked out it was. The case of the string being passed into the get method was not EXACTLY the same case as it was in the database, so when it tried to match up the relationship items with the main entity it was finding nothing (Or at least NHIbernate wasn't because as I stated above the SQL was actually returning the correct results) THE REAL SOLUTION Has anyone else come across this? If so how do you tell NHibernate to ignore case when matching SQL results to the entity? It is silly because it worked perfectly well before now all of a sudden it has started to pay attention to the case of the string.

    Read the article

  • Unassigned value error asp.net C#

    - by slash shogdhe
    if variable is not assigned,then it takes the default value at run time. for example int A1; if i will check the value of A1 at runtime it will be 0; then why at compile time it throws a error of unassigned value; why clr dont use to alot the default value at runtime; int A1; int B1 = A1+10; it shud be 11 as the default value of A1 is 0; there project property where i can check for "assignn defalut values for unassigned variable"; can any one tell me where i can find it;

    Read the article

  • Converting time period strings to value/unit pair

    - by randomtoor
    I need to parse the contents of a string that represents a time period. The format of the string is value/unit, e.g.: 1s, 60min, 24h. I would separate the actual value (an int) and unit (a str) to separated variables. At the moment I do it like this: def validate_time(time): binsize = time.strip() unit = re.sub('[0-9]','',binsize) if unit not in ['s','m','min','h','l']: print "Error: unit {0} is not valid".format(unit) sys.exit(2) tmp = re.sub('[^0-9]','',binsize) try: value = int(tmp) except ValueError: print "Error: {0} is not valid".format(time) sys.exit(2) return value,unit However, it is not ideal as things like 1m0 are also (wrongly) validated (value=10,unit=m). What is the best way to validate/parse this input?

    Read the article

  • How to generate Serial Keys? [closed]

    - by vincent mathew
    Which software can I use to generate Product keys if I have the GroupId, KeyId, Secret and Hash for the generation? Edit: I had seen a post which generated Product Keys using this information. [Additional Key Details/Activation Decryption*: GroupId = 86f 2159 KeyId = ed46 60742 Secret = e0cdc320ba048 3954789545910344 Hash = 5f 95 ] So I was wondering if there is any software which could generate keys using this information? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Copy a value based on criteria Salesforce

    - by Robert
    Hi all, On a Salesforce.com opportunity I have a number of custom fields that are potential options that the end client will eventually select. Option 1 (Desc Field) Option 1 (Value) Option 2 (Desc Field) Option 2 (Value) Option 3 (Desc Field) Option 3 (Value) At a future point the user will ultimately choose one of the options as the preferred option. What I want is then the value for the chosen option to be stored in another field without the user having to enter it again. A “nice to have” would also be that all 3 option descriptions, values and selected value are locked once this is done. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • In JPA, a Map of embeddable values, that have an embedded entity used as the key

    - by Schmuli
    I'm still new to JPA (and Hibernate, which I'm using as my provider), so maybe this just can't be done, but anyway... Consider the following code: @Entity class Root { @Id private long id; private String name; @ElementCollection private Map<ResourceType, Resource> resources; ... } @Entity class ResourceType { @Id private long id; private String name; } @Embeddable class Resource { private ResourceType resourceType; private long value; } In the database, there is a collection table, 'Root_resources', that stores the values of the map, but the resource type appears twice (actually, the resource type ID does), once as the KEY of the map, and once as part of the value. Is there a way, similar to, say, the @MapKey annotation, to indicate that the key is one of the columns of the value (i.e. embedded)?

    Read the article

  • how to print not mapped value

    - by IcanMakeIt
    I am using complicated SQL queries, i have to use SqlQuery ... in simple way: MODEL: public class C { public int ID { get; set; } [NotMapped] public float Value { get; set; } } CONTROLLER: IEnumerable<C> results = db.C.SqlQuery(@"SELECT ID, ATAN(-45.01) as Value from C); return View(results.ToList()); VIEW: @model IEnumerable<C> @foreach (var item in Model) { @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Value) } and the result for item.Value is NULL. So my question is , how can i print the computed value from SQL Query ? Thank you for help.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >