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  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

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  • Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

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  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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  • Creating LINQ to SQL Data Models' Data Contexts with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm just getting started with ASP.NET MVC, mostly by reading ScottGu's tutorial. To create my database connections, I followed the steps he outlined, which were to create a LINQ-to-SQL dbml model, add in the database tables through the Server Explorer, and finally to create a DataContext class. That last part is the part I'm stuck on. In this class, I'm trying to create methods that work around the exposed data. Following the example in the tutorial, I created this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MySite.Models { public partial class MyDataContext { public List<Post> GetPosts() { return Posts.ToList(); } public Post GetPostById(int id) { return Posts.Single(p => p.ID == id); } } } As you can see, I'm trying to use my Post data table. However, it doesn't recognize the "Posts" part of my code. What am I doing wrong? I have a feeling that my problem is related to my not adding the data tables correctly, but I'm not sure. Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Binding a Child Entity to the Model

    - by Nathan Taylor
    This one seems painfully obvious to me, but for some reason I can't get it working the way I want it to. Perhaps it isn't possible the way I am doing it, but that seems unlikely. This question may be somewhat related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1274855/asp-net-mvc-model-binding-related-entities-on-same-page. I have an EditorTemplate to edit an entity with multiple related entity references. When the editor is rendered the user is given a drop down list to select related entities from, with the drop down list returning an ID as its value. <%=Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.Entity.ID)%> When the request is sent the form value is named as expected: "Entity.ID", however my strongly typed Model defined as an action parameter doesn't have Entity.ID populated with the value passed in the request. public ActionResult AddEntity(EntityWithChildEntities entityWithChildEntities) { } I tried fiddling around with the Bind() attribute and specified Bind(Include = "Entity.ID") on the entityWithChildEntities, but that doesn't seem to work. I also tried Bind(Include = "Entity"), but that resulted in the ModelBinder attempting to bind a full "Entity" definition (not surprisingly). Is there any way to get the default model binder to fill the child entity ID or will I need to add action parameters for each child entity's ID and then manually copy the values into the model definition?

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  • web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

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  • Which Code Should Go Where in MVC Structure

    - by Oguz
    My problem is in somewhere between model and controller.Everything works perfect for me when I use MVC just for crud (create, read, update, delete).I have separate models for each database table .I access these models from controller , to crud them . For example , in contacts application,I have actions (create, read, update, delete) in controller(contact) to use model's (contact) methods (create, read, update, delete). The problem starts when I try to do something more complicated. There are some complex processes which I do not know where should I put them. For example , in registering user process. I can not just finish this process in user model because , I have to use other models too (sending mails , creating other records for user via other models) and do lots of complex validations via other models. For example , in some complex searching processes , I have to access lots of models (articles, videos, images etc.) Or, sometimes , I have to use apis to decide what I will do next or which database model I will use to record data So where is the place to do this complicated processes. I do not want to do them in controllers , Because sometimes I should use these processes in other controllers too. And I do not want to put these process in models because , I use models as database access layers .May be I am wrong,I want to know . Thank you for your answer .

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  • ASP.NET MVC Creating a impersonated user.

    - by Malcolm
    Hi, I have a MVC app where I have a User class and the user can also impersonate another user(Admin users only). So I have this code below that authenticates the request and instantiates my version of a User class. It then tries to get the impersonated user from the Session object but Session is not available in this method in the global.asax. Hope this makes sense. How else could I do this? protected void Application_OnAuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { IMylesterService service = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(); if (Context.User != null) { if (Context.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { User user = service.GetUser(Context.User.Identity.Name); if (user == null) throw new ApplicationException("Context.user.Identity.name is not a recognized user"); User impersonatedUser = (User)this.Session["ImpersonatedUser"]; if (impersonatedUser == null) user.ImpersonatedUser = user; else user.ImpersonatedUser = impersonatedUser; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = user; return; } } User guest = service.GetGuestUser(); guest.ImpersonatedUser = guest; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = guest; }

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  • ASP.net MVC 2 EditorFor Dictionary Bind

    - by user307540
    Hi! I try this, but don't work. bemutatkozas@Modify = null all the time. public class Iroda { public Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas { get; set; } } public ActionResult Index() { var dct = new Dictionary<int, string>(); dct.Add(1, "magyar"); dct.Add(2, "angol"); dct.Add(3, "olasz"); return View(new Iroda { bemutatkozas = dct }); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Modify(Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas) { return View(); } <% using (Html.BeginForm("Modify","Iroda")) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <%= Html.EditorFor(o=>o.bemutatkozas,"MultiLanguageEditor") %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<Dictionary<int, string>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach (var s in Model) { %> <%= Html.Hidden(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].key", s.Key) %> <%= Html.TextBox(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].value",s.Value) %> <% i++; %> <% }%> Whats the solution? Thx!

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  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Paging for a search form

    - by James Alexander
    I've read several different posts on paging w/ in MVC but none describe a scenario where I have something like a search form and then want to display the results of the search criteria (with paging) beneath the form once the user clicks submit. My problem is that, the paging solution I'm using will create <a href="..."> links that will pass the desired page like so: http://mysite.com/search/2/ and while that's all fine and dandy, I don't have the results of the query being sent to the db in memory or anything so I need to query the DB again. If the results are handled by the POST controller action for /Search and the first page of the data is rendered as such, how do I get the same results (based on the form criteria specified by the user) when the user clicks to move to page 2? Some javascript voodoo? Leverage Session State? Make my GET controller action have the same variables expected by the search criteria (but optional), when the GET action is called, instantiate a FormCollection instance, populate it and pass it to the POST action method (there-by satisfying DRY)? Can someone point me in the right direction for this scenario or provide examples that have been implemented in the past? Thanks!

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  • Reading DATA from an OBJECT asp.net MVC C#

    - by kalyan
    Hi, I am new to the MVC and I am stuck with a wierd situation. I have to read the Data from the type object and I tried different ways and I couldn't get a solution.Please help. IList<User> u = new UserRepository().Getuser(Name.ToUpper(), UserName.ToUpper(), UserCertNumber.ToUpper(), Date.ToUpper(), UserType.ToUpper(), Company.ToUpper(), PageNumber, Orderby, SearchALL.ToUpper(), PrintAllPages.ToUpper()); object[] users = new object[u.Count]; for (int i = 0; i < u.Count; i++) { users[i] = new { Id = u[i].UserId, Title = u[i].Title, FirstName = u[i].FirstName, LastName = u[i].LastName, Privileges = (from apps in u[i].UserPrivileges select new { PrivilegeId = apps.Privilege.PrivilegeId, PrivilegeName = apps.Privilege.Name, DeactiveDate = apps.DeactiveDate }), Status = (from status in u[i].UserStatus select new { StatusId = status.Status.StatusId, StatusName = status.Status.StatusName, DeactiveDate = status.DeactiveDate }), ActiveDate = u[i].ActiveDate, UserName = u[i].Email, UserCN = (from cert in u[i].UserCertificates select new { CertificateNumber = cert.CertificateNumber, DeactiveDate = cert.DeactiveDate }), Company = u[i].Company.Name }; } string x = ""; string y = ""; var report = users; foreach (var r in report) { x = r[0].....; i want to assign the values from the report to something else and I am not able to read the data from the report object. Please help. } Thank you.

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  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

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  • Spring-MVC Problem using @Controller on controller implementing an interface

    - by layne
    I'm using spring 2.5 and annotations to configure my spring-mvc web context. Unfortunately, I am unable to get the following to work. I'm not sure if this is a bug (seems like it) or if there is a basic misunderstanding on how the annotations and interface implementation subclassing works. For example, @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } works fine. When the context starts up, the urls this handler deals with are discovered, and everything works great. This however does not: @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo implements Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } When I try to pull up the url, I get the following nasty stack trace: javax.servlet.ServletException: No adapter for handler [com.shaneleopard.web.controller.RegistrationController@e973e3]: Does your handler implement a supported interface like Controller? org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.getHandlerAdapter(DispatcherServlet.java:1091) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doDispatch(DispatcherServlet.java:874) org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet.doService(DispatcherServlet.java:809) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.processRequest(FrameworkServlet.java:571) org.springframework.web.servlet.FrameworkServlet.doGet(FrameworkServlet.java:501) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:627) However, if I change Bar to be an abstract superclass and have Foo extend it, then it works again. @Controller @RequestMapping("url-mapping-here") public class Foo extends Bar { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public void showForm() { ... } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST) public String processForm() { ... } } This seems like a bug. The @Controller annotation should be sufficient to mark this as a controller, and I should be able to implement one or more interfaces in my controller without having to do anything else. Any ideas?

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  • Readonly SiteMapNodes in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by BenN
    I'm using MVCSiteMap as a SiteMapProvider for my MVC site. I have a node set up like so.... <mvcSiteMapNode key="1" title="Product" controller="Product" action="Display" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id"> <mvcSiteMapNode key="11" title="More Details" controller="Product" action="MoreDetails" isDynamic="true" dynamicParameters="id" /> </mvcSiteMapNode> ...Which means I can go to ~/Product/Display/12 and get a correct sitemap node for product id 12 (in this case just Product. And I can go to ~/Product/MoreDetails/12 and get the sitemap path for the MoreDetails (Product - More Details). The problem is that the link back to Product in this sitemap doesn't work - it skips the id off the end, instead linking to ~/Product/Display/. Which sucks. I've discovered I can edit the Title of a node using SiteMap.CurrentNode.Title = "My New Title"; But... SiteMap.CurrentNode.ParentNode.Url = "http://www.google.com"; Doesn't set the Url for the parent node; it gets the default link described before. Any ideas how I can set the URL of a SiteMapNode?

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  • Create serial number column in telerik mvc grid

    - by Jayaraj
    I could create a grid with telerik mvc <% Html.Telerik().Grid(Model) .Name("ProductGrid") .Columns(columns => { columns.Bound(h => h.ProductName).Width("34%"); columns.Bound(h => h.Description).Width("60%"); columns.Bound(h => h.ProductID).Format(Html.ImageLink("Edit", "Products", new { Id = "{0}" }, "/Content/images/icon_edit.gif", "", new { Id = "edit{0}" }, null).ToString()).Encoded(false).Title("").Sortable(false).Width("3%"); columns.Bound(h => h.ProductID).Format(Html.ImageLink("Delete", "Products", new { Id = "{0}" }, "/Content/images/icon_delete.gif", "", new { onclick = string.Format("return confirm('Are you sure to delete this add on?');") },null).ToString()).Encoded(false).Title("").Sortable(false).Width("3%"); }) .EnableCustomBinding(true) .DataBinding(databinding => databinding.Ajax().Select("_Index", "ProductGrid")) .Pageable(settings => settings.Total((int)ViewData["TotalPages"]) .PageSize(10)) .Sortable() .Render(); %> but I need to add a serial number column in telerik grid.How can i do this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

    - by mwgriffiths
    I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • ASP.Net MVC ActionLink's and Shared Hosting Aliased Domains

    - by Peter Meyer
    So, I've read this and I've got a similar issue: I have a shared hosting account (with GoDaddy, though that's not exactly relevant, I believe) and I've got an MVC (RC1) site deployed to a sub-folder which where I have another domain name mapped (or aliased). The sub-folder is also setup as an application root as well. The site works without issue, the problem is that I don't like the links that are being generated using Html.ActionLink and Ajax.ActionLink. It's inserting the sub folder name as part of the URL as described in this other question. Thing is, the site works fine, but I'd like to make the links generated relative to the domain name. To use an example: http://my.abc.com "primary" domain; maps to \ on file system http://my.xyz.com setup to map to \_xyz.com folder on file system My generated links on xyz.com look like this: Intended Generated -------- --------- http://my.xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 http://my.xyz.com/_xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 and, FWIW, the site works. So, the question: Is there something I can do to get rid of that folder name in the links being generated? I have a couple of brute force ideas, but they aren't too elegant.

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  • How does MVC ViewData work?

    - by Matt
    I am toying around with an MVC application just to learn the technology. I am mocking up a check register application that keeps track of a checking account, what has cleared the bank and what has not. I am using EF for my model and everything seems to be working correctly insofar as Edit, Create, etc. However, I have a couple of totals at the top. One to show the bank's balance and another to show the actual balance. It works most of the time but when I do Edit's it does not always accurately reflect the new total and I need it to update everytime a change is made (i.e when something clears the bank): [Authorize(Roles = "admin, checkUser")] public ActionResult Index() { var resultSet = from myChecking in chk.tblCheckings orderby myChecking.id descending select myChecking; ViewData.Model = resultSet.Take(45).ToList(); //for balances var actualBalance = from theChecking in chk.tblCheckings select theChecking.deposit - theChecking.withdrawal; var bankBalance = from theChecking in chk.tblCheckings where theChecking.cleared == true select theChecking.deposit - theChecking.withdrawal; //get bank balance ViewData["bankBalance"] = bankBalance.Sum(); //get actual balance ViewData["actualBalance"] = actualBalance.Sum(); return View(); } I am showing the actual and other balance in the Index view as follows: <td colspan="9" style="text-align: center; font-size: 11pt; color: white;"> <%= string.Format("Bank Balance: {0:c}", ViewData["bankBalance"]) %> ------ <%= string.Format("Actual Balance: {0:c}", ViewData["actualBalance"]) %> </td>

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  • ASP.NET MVC application architecture "guidelines"

    - by Joe Future
    I'm looking for some feedback on my ASP.NET MVC based CMS application architecture. Domain Model - depends on nothing but the System classes to define types. For now, mostly anemic. Repository Layer - abstracted data access, only called by the services layer Services Layer - performs business logic on domain models. Exposes view models to the controllers. ViewModelMapper - service that translates back and forth between view models and domain models Controllers - super thin "traffic cop" style functionality that interacts with the service layer and only talks in terms of view models, never domain models My domain model is mostly used as data transfer (DTO) objects and has minimal logic at the moment. I'm finding this is nice because it depends on nothing (not even classes in the services layer). The services layer is a bit tricky... I only want the controllers to have access to viewmodels for ease of GUI programming. However, some of the services need to talk to each other. For example, I have an eventing service that notifies other listener services when content is tagged, when blog posts are created, etc. Currently, the methods that take domain models as inputs or return them are marked internal so they can't be used by the controllers. Sounds like overkill? Not enough abstraction? I'm mainly doing this as a learning exercise in being strict about architecture, not for an actual product, so please no feedback along the lines of "right depends on what you want to do". thanks! Jason

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  • PHP: MVC and Model

    - by Pirkka
    Hello I`ve been wondering this one thing about creating models. If I make for example Page model. Is it the both: It can retrieve one row from the table or all the rows. Somehow Im mixing the objects and the database. I have thought it like this: I would have to make a Page-class that would represent one row in the table. It also would have all the basic CRUD-methods. Then I would have to do a Pages-class (somekind of collection) that would retrieve rows from the table and instantiate a Page object from each row. Is this kind of weird? If someone could explain to me the idea of model throughout.. Im again confused. Maybe Im thinking the whole OOP too difficult.. And by the way this forum is great. Hopefully people will just understand my problems. Heh. I was a long time procedural style programmer and now in 3 months I have dived into OOP and MVC and PHP frameworks and I just get more excited day by day when I explore this stuff!

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  • MVC.NET custom validator is not working

    - by IvanMushketyk
    I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

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