Search Results

Search found 9394 results on 376 pages for 'mvc scaffolding'.

Page 86/376 | < Previous Page | 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93  | Next Page >

  • ASP.NET MVC Posted date field comes in as 1/1/0001

    - by engil
    Just started working with .NET and MVC(1). I'm having a problem wherein in my add action the entered date for some reason ends up as 1/1/0001 instead of what is entered thus causing a date overflow. In my model, this field ("Added") is is of type datetime and does not allow nulls. In my controller I have: public ActionResult Add() { Instance instance = new Instance() { Added = DateTime.Now, Active = true }; return View(instance); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(Instance instance) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { System.Diagnostics.Trace.Write("test"); instanceRepository.Add(instance); instanceRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = instance.InstanceID }); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(instance.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(instance); } And in my view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Added) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Added,String.Format("{0:g}",Model.Added))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Added) %> When I first go to Instances/Add the default value is set correctly, however as soon as I submit the date turns into 1/1/0001 (from my understanding this indicates that it was either null or in an unrecognizable format) When I debug and palce a watch on Request.Form I see the date coming in encoded ie Request.Form {Added=4%2f9%2f2010+8%3a24%3a39+AM} - is this an issue? I know its probably not enough information to make a conlusive determination on why this is failing, but if someone could provide some good debugging tips on how to determine where the submitted date is getting munged I'd really appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Database and logic layer for ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Ismail
    I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern as it allows to apply filter in logic layer rather than in data access layer. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right? So questions basically are - Is MySQL to Linq possible? If yes where can I get more details on it? Pros and cons of using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will it be easy to access data using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will I be able to implement repository patter which allows applying filter in logic layer rather than data access layer (when I use EntityFramework with MySQL) Does it fetches hell lot of data from database and then apply filter on it? If it sounds too many questions from my side in that case, if you can just let me know what you will do (with a considerable reason) in this situation as an experienced person in this area, that should answer my question.

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

    - by Bar
    I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

    Read the article

  • Controller class not available in Add View ASP.NET MVC

    - by Tassadaque
    Hi I have created the following controller i want to add view that should have the data access class UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems but when i add view by right clicking on view folder,it is not showing "UserMagnament.Controller.menuitems" in add data class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using UserManagement.Models; namespace UserManagement.Controllers { public class menuitems { EvoLetDataContext db1 = new EvoLetDataContext(); public menuitems() { } public IQueryable<UMUserType> menuitems() { return db1.UMUserTypes; //this.Packages = _SysPackage; //this.Modules = _SysModule; } public List<SysPackage> Packages { get; private set; } public List<SysModule> Modules { get; private set; } } public class Default1Controller : Controller { // // GET: /Default1/ public ActionResult Index() { return View(new menuitems()); } } }

    Read the article

  • Injecting Dependencies into Domain Model classes with Nhibernate (ASP.NET MVC + IOC)

    - by Sunday Ironfoot
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC application that uses a DDD (Domain Driven Design) approach with database access handled by NHibernate. I have domain model class (Administrator) that I want to inject a dependency into via an IOC Container such as Castle Windsor, something like this: public class Administrator { public virtual int Id { get; set; } //.. snip ..// public virtual string HashedPassword { get; protected set; } public void SetPassword(string plainTextPassword) { IHashingService hasher = IocContainer.Resolve<IHashingService>(); this.HashedPassword = hasher.Hash(plainTextPassword); } } I basically want to inject IHashingService for the SetPassword method without calling the IOC Container directly (because this is suppose to be an IOC Anti-pattern). But I'm not sure how to go about doing it. My Administrator object either gets instantiated via new Administrator(); or it gets loaded via NHibernate, so how would I inject the IHashingService into the Administrator class? On second thoughts, am I going about this the right way? I was hoping to avoid having my codebase littered with... currentAdmin.Password = HashUtils.Hash(password, Algorithm.Sha512); ...and instead get the domain model itself to take care of hashing and neatly encapsulate it away. I can envisage another developer accidently choosing the wrong algorithm and having some passwords as Sha512, and some as MD5, some with one salt, and some with a different salt etc. etc. Instead if developers are writing... currentAdmin.SetPassword(password); ...then that would hide those details away and take care of those problems listed above would it not?

    Read the article

  • MVC: Submit one form from a page with multiple forms

    - by Rob
    I'm working in an ASP.NET 3.5 MVC application where i've got a view with multiple forms in it. Form 1 contains information about products and will form a shoppingcart with a remove button. Form 2 is as below and is to be used to get the information from the shoppingcart and create an order of it. <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%=Html.Hidden(Order.ProductId", "E63EF586-F625-4C8D-B82E-E63A6FA4A63C")%> <%=Html.Hidden(Order.Amount", 1)%> <input type="submit" value="Pay" /> <%} % The first form contains a similar beginform with a foreach loop to get the information about the products from the model. When i use the submit button on the second form everything seems to be submitted and the action in the controller for the first form is trying to handle the request. That is where the error occurce because the information in the viewmodel isn't corresponding to what is being expected. The controller which is trying to handle the request: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult ShowShoppingcartForm([Bind(Prefix = "Order")] MyViewmodel viewModel) { //.. } The controller which is expected to handle the request: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SaveOrder([Bind(Prefix = "Order")] MyViewmodel viewModel) { throw new NotImplementedException(); }

    Read the article

  • MVC : Checkboxes generated using JavaScript not appearing in FormCollection on postback

    - by Andy Evans
    I took over another project (written by one contractor, modified by another and now it's not working) written using MVC/C# where a view that has a table (see below) is dynamically populated using JSON/Javascript - the first column of which is a checkbox. View (spark view engine) <table id='component_list' name='component_list' cellpadding='0' border='0' cellspacing='0'> <thead> <tr> <th>&nbsp;</th> <th>Component</th> <th>Component Type</th> <th>Evenflo Part #</th> <th>Supplier Part #</th> <th>Supplier</th> <th>Requirement</th> <th>Location</th> <th>Region</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> </tbody> </table> When the page is rendered, I look at the source for the page and do not see the table data (I wouldn't expect to see this). However, when the form is posted back, controller, the FormCollection is empty. Supposedly this had been working before the last contractor got their hands on it - which is another post all together. My goal right now is having the checkboxes in the FormCollection. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC, JS injection and System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path

    - by Mose
    Hi, In my ASP.Net MVC application, I use custom error handling. I want to perform custom actions for each error case I meet in my application. So I override Application_Error, get the Server.GetLastError(); and do my business depending on the exception, the current user, the current URL (the application runs on many domains), the user IP, and many others. Obviousely, the application is often the target of hackers. In almost all the case it's not a problem to detect and manage it, but for some JS URL attacks, my error handling does not perform what I want it to do. Ex (from logs) : http://localhost:1809/Scripts/]||!o.support.htmlSerialize&&[1 When I got such an URL, an exception is raised when accessing the ConnectionStrings section in the web.config, and I can't even redirect to another URL. It leads to a "System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path, etc." The screenshot below shows the problem : http://screencast.com/t/Y2I1YWU4 An obvious solution is to write a HTTP module to filter the urls before they reach my application, but I'd like to avoid it because : I like having the whole security being managed in one place (in the Application_Error() method) In the module I cannot access the whole data I have in the application itself (application specific data I don't want to debate here) Questions : Did you meet this problem ? How did you manage it ? Thanks for you suggestions, Mose

    Read the article

  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Conditional validation

    - by Peter Stegnar
    How to use data annotations to do a conditional validation on model? For example, lets say we have the following model (Person and Senior): public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")] public string Name { get; set; } public bool IsSenior { get; set; } public Senior Senior { get; set; } } public class Senior { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")]//this should be conditional validation, based on the "IsSenior" value public string Description { get; set; } } And the following view: <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> I would like to be the "Senior.Description" property conditional required field based on the selection of the "IsSenior" propery (true - required). How to implement conditional validation in ASP.NET MVC 2 with data annotations? UPDATE Found nice solution. Look below.

    Read the article

  • IIS6, ASP.NET MVC 1 and random slowdowns

    - by Mr Snuffle
    I've recently deployed a MVC application to an IIS6 web server. One strange behaviour I've been having is the load times will randomly blow up to 30sec+ and then return to normal. Our tests have shown this occurring on multiple connections at the same time. Once the wait has passed, the site become responsive again. It's completely random when this will occur, but will probably happen about once every 15 minutes or so. My first thought was the application was being restarted by the web server for some reason, but I determined this wasn't the case because the process recycling is set very infrequently, and I placed some logging in the application startup. It's also nothing to do with the database connection. This slowdown happens simply by moving between static pages too. I've watched the database with a SQL profiler, and nothing is hitting it when these slowdowns occur. Finally, I've placed entry and exit logging on my controller actions, the slowdown always happens outside of the controller. The entry and exit time for a controller action is always appropriately fast. Does anyone have any ideas of what could be causing this? I've tried running it locally on IIS7 and I haven't had the issue. I can only think it's something to do with our hosting provider.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net mvc retriev images from db and display on Page

    - by Trey Carroll
    //Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<FilmFestWeb.Models.ListVideosViewModel>" <h2>ListVideos</h2> <% foreach(BusinessObjects.Video vid in Model.VideoList){%> <div class="videoBox"> <%= Html.Encode(vid.Name) %> <img src="<% vid.ThumbnailImage; %>" /> </div> <%} %> //ListVideosViewModel public class ListVideosViewModel { public IList<Video> VideoList { get; set; } } //Video public class Video { public long VideoId { get; set; } public long TeamId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Tags { get; set; } public string TeamMembers { get; set; } public string TranscriptFileName { get; set; } public string VideoFileName { get; set; } public int TotalNumRatings { get; set; } public int CumulativeTotalScore { get; set; } public string VideoUri { get; set; } public Image ThumbnailImage { get; set; } } I am getting the "red x" that I usually associate with image file not found. I have verified that my database table shows <binary data> after the stored proc that uploads the image executes. Any insight or advice would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc multiple fckeditors field

    - by mazhar kaunain baig
    how to add multiple fckeditor field on asp.net mvc page ok here is the code <% foreach (var OrganizationMeta in ((IEnumerable<Egovt.Models.OrganizationMeta>)ViewData["OrganizationMeta"])) { %> <% if (OrganizationMeta.vcr_DateType == "text") { %> <% TempData["OrganizationMeta"] = OrganizationMeta.vcr_MetaKey + Lang.int_LangId; %> <% Html.RenderPartial("ControlRender"); %> <% } %> <% } %> </div> controlrender <script src="<%= Url.Content("~/Content/js/fck/fckeditor.js") %>" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function() { var sBasePath = '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/js/fck/") %>'; var oFCKeditor = new FCKeditor('<%=TempData["OrganizationMeta"] %>'); oFCKeditor.BasePath = sBasePath; oFCKeditor.ReplaceTextarea(); } </script> <%= Html.TextArea(TempData["OrganizationMeta"].ToString(),"", new { @name = TempData["OrganizationMeta"] })%> How will i implement it

    Read the article

  • Use interface between model and view in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Icerman
    Hi, I am using asp.net MVC 2 to develop a site. IUser is used to be the interface between model and view for better separation of concern. However, things turn to a little messy here. In the controller that handles user sign on: I have the following: IUserBll userBll = new UserBll(); IUser newUser = new User(); newUser.Username = answers[0].ToString(); newUser.Email = answers[1].ToString(); userBll.AddUser(newUser); The User class is defined in web project as a concrete class implementing IUser. There is a similar class in DAL implementing the same interface and used to persist data. However, when the userBll.AddUser is called, the newUser of type User can't be casted to the DAL User class even though both Users class implementing the interface (InvalidCastException). Using conversion operators maybe an option, but it will make the dependency between DAL and web which is against the initial goal of using interface. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How to submit Nothing as a route value to ASP MVC

    - by Adam
    I have a route with several optional parameters. These are possible search terms in different fields. So, for example, if I have fields key, itemtype and text then I have in global.asax: routes.MapRoute( _ "Search", _ "Admin.aspx/Search/{Key}/{ItemType}/{Text}", _ New With {.controller = "Admin", .action = "Search" .Key = Nothing, .ItemType = Nothing, .Text = Nothing} _ ) My action takes optional parameters: Function Search(Optional ByVal Key As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal ItemType As Integer = 0, _ Optional ByVal Text As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal OtherText As String = Nothing) It then checks if the Key and Text strings have a non-null (and non-empty) value and adds search terms to the db request as needed. However, is it possible to send in a null value for, for example, Key but still send in a value for Text? If so, what does the URL look like? (Admin.aspx/Search//0/Foo doesn't work :) ) I know I can handle this using a parameter array instead, but wondered if this was possible using the sort of route described? I could of course define some other value as equivalent to null (for example, a space/%20) but is there any way to send a null value in the URL? I'm suspecting not, but thought I'd see if anyone knew of one. I'm using ASP MVC 2 for this project.

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc stand alone ascx control how do i link (css and js) most efficiently

    - by Julian
    Hi, I need some advice. I have developed some asp.net mvc web pages. Each page has a master and some ascx controls (between 2 - 6) embedded into it a js and css file. Up to now every thing was fine. In order to improve modularity, flexibility and testability the ascx's are now expected to be able to work as stand alone controls. (Each ascx has also got its own css and js files in some cases it has another control inside it) In order to meet this requirement we call the controller with the relevant parameters and it returns the ascx (partial) directly to the browser without all of the other parts of the original page . In order to get it to display correctly (css) and act correctly (js/jquery) all of the relevant files need to be added (as links or scripts eg. href="<%= ResolveUrl(styleSheet)%>") to the user control. This is "contradicting" the concept of positioning the files at the most logical place (could be the master page for example). How can I overcome this problem? Keep in mind that this is relevant for each "control" ascx file. Any thoughts will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

    Read the article

  • Problem with displaying image from DB using asp.net MVC 2

    - by Renato
    Hello! I'm having trouble with displaying image from db. I think that method for saving image is working, because I see in DB that varbinary fields have some value, and that image type is correct. Also the size of image. But when I want to display image for product i don't get anything. Just blank space.. here is my code... public byte[] GetImage(int productID) { Product product = products.GetByID(productID); byte[] imageData = product.ImageData.ToArray(); return imageData; } That code is in my controller. Second is code from view : <% if (product.ImageData != null) { %> <img src='/product/getimage/<%= Html.Encode(product.ID) %>' alt=""/> <% } %> I tried some solutions found here on stack overflow, and everyone do it like this, but it's working for them. I dont have any idea why images aren't displayed. When i look at source code of page at debugging i have : <img src='/product/getimage/18' alt=""/> I'm using .net 4.0, MVC 2, VS 2010... Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

    - by Gidogeek
    Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

    Read the article

  • Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

    - by Lirik
    I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC URL Routing problem

    - by Sadegh
    hi, i have defined a route as below: context.MapRoute("SearchEngineWebSearch", "search/web/{query}/{index}/{size}", new { controller = "search", action = "web", query = "", index = 0, size = 5 }); and action method to handle request match with that: public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Web(string query = "", int index = 0, int size = 5) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) return RedirectToRoute("SearchEngineBasicSearch"); var search = new Search(); var results = search.PerformSearch(query, index, size); ViewData["Query"] = query; if (results != null && results.Count() > 0) { ViewData["Results"]= results; return View("Web"); } else return View("Not-Found"); } and form to sent parameter to action method: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Web", "Search", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <input name="query" type="text" value="<%: ViewData["Query"]%>" class="search-field" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="search-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="index" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="size" value="2" /> <%} %> now after click on submit and sending value to action method all route values updated but url values still is equals to first time of sending parameter. for example if i sent for first time request such as http://localhost/search/web/google and for next time http://localhost/search/web/yahoo, query parameter which passed to action method is yahoo but url after postback is http://localhost/search/web/google still! can anybody help me plz? ;)

    Read the article

  • MVC JsonResult not working with chrome?

    - by Karsten Detmold
    i want jquery to take a JsonResult from my MVC controller but it does'nt receive any data! If I put the output into a textfile and enter its link its working so I think my jQuery is fine. Then I was testing with other browsers like chrome and I saw NOTHING. The requested page was just emtpy.. no errors. Also IE seems to have problems receiving my string.. only firefox displays the string but why? public JsonResult jsonLastRequests() { List<Request> requests = new List<Request>(); while (r.Read()) { requests.Add(new Models.Request() { ID = (int)r[0], SiteID = r[1].ToString(), Lat = r[2].ToString(), City = r[4].ToString(), CreationTime = (DateTime)r[5] }); } r.Close(); return Json(requests); } I found out that also if I want to return the JSON as string its not working! Its working with a string in all browsers now.. but jQuery is still not loading anything var url = "http://../jsonLastRequests"; var source = { datatype: "json", datafields: [ { name: 'ID' }, { name: 'SiteID' }, { name: 'Lat' }, { name: 'CreationTime' }, { name: 'City' }, ], id: 'id', url: url }; var dataAdapter = new $.jqx.dataAdapter(source, { downloadComplete: function (data, status, xhr) { }, loadComplete: function (data) { }, loadError: function (xhr, status, error) { } }); I fixed my problem by adding: access-control-allow-origin:*

    Read the article

  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93  | Next Page >