Search Results

Search found 82298 results on 3292 pages for 'mvc you know me'.

Page 85/3292 | < Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >

  • Validation in n-tier asp.net mvc applications

    - by sTodorov
    Dear Stack Overflow gurus, I am looking for some practical/theoretical information regarding best practices for validation in asp.net mvc n-tier applications. I am working on a .Net application divided into the following layers: UI - Mvc3 BLL layer - all business rules. Decoupled from data access and UI layers through interfaces DAL layer - Data access with the repository pattern, EF4 and pocos Now, I am looking for a nice, clean and transparent way to specify my validation rules. Here are some thoughts on the matter so far: UI validation should only be responsible for user input and its validity. BLL validation should be handling the validity of the data regarding the application business rules. My main concern is how to bind the BLL and UI validation in the most efficient way. One think I am would like to avoid is having the UI check in a collection of validation and adding manually errors to the ModelState. Furthermore, I do not want to pass the ModelState to the BLL to be populated in there. I will appreciate any thoughts on the matter. P.S. Should this question be marked as a discussion ?

    Read the article

  • Synchronizing ASP.NET MVC action methods with ReaderWriterLockSlim

    - by James D
    Any obvious issues/problems/gotchas with synchronizing access (in an ASP.NET MVC blogging engine) to a shared object model (NHibernate, but it could be anything) at the Controller/Action level via ReaderWriterLockSlim? (Assume the object model is very large and expensive to build per-request, so we need to share it among requests.) Here's how a typical "Read Post" action would look. Enter the read lock, do some work, exit the read lock. public ActionResult ReadPost(int id) { // ReaderWriterLockSlim allows multiple concurrent writes; this method // only blocks in the unlikely event that some other client is currently // writing to the model, which would only happen if a comment were being // submitted or a new post were being saved. _lock.EnterReadLock(); try { // Access the model, fetch the post with specificied id // Pseudocode, etc. Post p = TheObjectModel.GetPostByID(id); ActionResult ar = View(p); return ar; } finally { // Under all code paths, we must release the read lock _lock.ExitReadLock(); } } Meanwhile, if a user submits a comment or an author authors a new post, they're going to need write access to the model, which is done roughly like so: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SaveComment(/* some posted data */) { // try/finally omitted for brevity _lock.EnterWriteLock(); // Save the comment to the DB, update the model to include the comment, etc. _lock.ExitWriteLock(); } Of course, this could also be done by tagging those action methods with some sort of "synchronized" attribute... but however you do it, my question is is this a bad idea? ps. ReaderWriterLockSlim is optimized for multiple concurrent reads, and only blocks if the write lock is held. Since writes are so infrequent (1000s or 10,000s or 100,000s of reads for every 1 write), and since they're of such a short duration, the effect is that the model is synchronized , and almost nobody ever locks, and if they do, it's not for very long.

    Read the article

  • Best Way to automatically compress and minimize JavaScript files in an ASP.NET MVC app

    - by wgpubs
    So I have an ASP.NET MVC app that references a number of javascript files in various places (in the site master and additional references in several views as well). I'd like to know if there is an automated way, and if so what is the recommended approach, for compressing and minimizing such references into a single .js file where possible. Such that this ... <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/Ext.ux.grid.GridSummary/Ext.ux.grid.GridSummary.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.rating/ext.ux.ratingplugin.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext-starslider/ext-starslider.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.dollarfield.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.combobox.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/ext.ux.datepickerplus/ext.ux.datepickerplus-min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/SessionProvider.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ExtJS/TabCloseMenu.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/ActivityForm.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/UserForm.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/SwappedGrid.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/ActivityViewer/Tree.js" type="text/javascript"></script> ... could be reduced to something like this ... <script src="<%= ResolveUrl("~") %>Content/MyViewPage-min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Thanks

    Read the article

  • MVC design question for forms

    - by kenny99
    Hi, I'm developing an app which has a large amount of related form data to be handled. I'm using a MVC structure and all of the related data is represented in my models, along with the handling of data validation from form submissions. I'm looking for some advice on a good way to approach laying out my controllers - basically I will have a huge form which will be broken down into manageable categories (similar to a credit card app) where the user progresses through each stage/category filling out the answers. All of these form categories are related to the main relation/object, but not to each other. Does it make more sense to have each subform/category as a method in the main controller class (which will make that one controller fairly massive), or would it be better to break each category into a subclass of the main controller? It may be just for neatness that the second approach is better, but I'm struggling to see much of a difference between either creating a new method for each category (which communicates with the model and outputs errors/success) or creating a new controller to handle the same functionality. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

    Read the article

  • Problem with EDM in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Mannsi
    Hello, I have a question that is pretty similar to this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/899734/strongly-typed-asp-net-mvc-with-entity-framework but the solutions for that question don't work for me. Let me start by saying that I don't know a great deal about the subject I am asking about. I have the following code [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(PaymentInformation paymentInformationToEdit, int pensionFundID) { var originalPaymentInformation = (from PIs in _db.PaymentInformation where PIs.employeeNumber == paymentInformation.employeeNumber select PIs).First(); var laborUnion = (from LUs in _db.LaborUnion where LUs.laborUnionID = laborUnionID select LUs)First(); paymentInformationToEdit.laborUnion = laborUnion; _db.ApplyProperyChanges(originalPaymentInformation.EntityKey.EntitySetName, paymentInformationToEdit); _db.SaveChanges(); } I get an error when I try for the ApplyProperyChanges saying 'The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state'. I don't know how to change the state to either, or even if I am doing something fundamentally wrong. Please advice. EDIT: I hope this is the way to go here on stackoverflow. I haven't gotten an answer that solved my problem but Gregoire below posted a possible solution that I didn't understand. I hope this edit bumps my question so somebody will see it and help me. Sorry if this is not the way to go.

    Read the article

  • Upload image from Silverlight to ASP .net MVC 2.0 Action

    - by Raha
    Hello ... I have been trying really hard to Upload a photo from a Silverlight app to ASP .net MVC app. I simply use WebClient like this in Silverlight : private bool UploadFile(string fileName, Stream data) { try { UriBuilder ub = new UriBuilder("http://localhost:59933/Admin/Upload"); ub.Query = string.Format("filename={0}", fileName); WebClient wc = new WebClient(); wc.OpenReadCompleted += (sender, e) => { PushData(data, e.Result); e.Result.Close(); data.Close(); }; wc.OpenWriteAsync(ub.Uri); } catch (Exception) { throw; } return true; } private void PushData(Stream input, Stream output) { byte[] buffer = new byte[4096]; int byteRead; while ((byteRead = input.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) != 0) { output.Write(buffer, 0, byteRead); } } On the other hand I have created a simple action called Upload like this: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { //Some code here } The problem is that it doesn't hit the break point in Upload method. Is this even possible ? The reason why I am using Silverlight is that I want to preview the image before uploading it to server and it is very simple in Silverlight. I failed to do that in JavaScript and that is why Silverlight might be more useful here.

    Read the article

  • Can ASP.net MVC 2 Project and CMS can be Combined together

    - by coolguy97
    Hi, I have developed project using Asp.net MVC 2.Now the content part of My site i don't want to build a Cms for that So my question is can i used any existing CMS developed in MVC2 so that The content part will be taken care of by the CMS and Application part by developed project by me. I have used CMS like Silverstripe which is quite easy which also provides ORM to develop application on their Sapphire engine which but developed in PHP. If it is Combined then when writing Code i will write like this [This just Sample Imaginary Code.I just want CMS to be easy] <logo><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=logo></logo> <menu><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=menu></menu> <header><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=header></header> <body> <Pick_up_from_CMS ID=body> <MY_Application_Logic ID=Logic1><!--This May be my Registration or Search form> --> </body> <footer><Pick_up_from_CMS ID=footer></footer>

    Read the article

  • How do I send an XML document to an ASP.NET MVC page for manipuation

    - by Decker
    I have some hierarchical data stored as an multiple XML files on the server according to a vendor's schema. In my ASP.NET MVC (2!) application, I'd like the user to choose one of these hierarchies (i.e. file -- I provide a list in my controller's Index action). When the user selects one to "edit" my edit action should return a page that presents the XML hierarchy (it's a representation of a folder tree). So my thoughts are that the view would return HTML that contained a JQuery on load ajax call back to the server for the XML data -- at which point I would present the tree using one of the many JQuery tree controls. On the client side I'd like the user to manipulate the tree and when done, I'd like to post back the new hierarchy where I would replace the original XML file that represents that hierarchy. So my questions are: What form should I use to send the data down? XML or JSON?. If I send down XML then I would have to not only read the XML -- which JQuery can do -- but I would also have to be able to modify that XML and then send it back. Can I use JQuery to modify this XML DOM? And will all the namespace declarations be preserved? What form should I send the data back? If I originally sent the client the hierarchy as JSON (using JsonResult), then presumably I would have a hierarchy of javascript objects. What options would I have to post that back? Would I have to recreate the XML reprentation on the client and post that back? Or should I serialize back to JSON, post that to the server, and then have the server do the work of recreating the XML according to the schema. Thanks for any advice.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net MVC error with custom HttpModule

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a custom authentication HttpModule that is pretty strait forward. But I want it to run only for managed requests (and not for static ones). Asp.net MVC automatically adds configuration section for IIS7 web server: <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule,..." /> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule,..." /> </modules> <handlers> ... </handlers> </system.webServer> When I add my own module I also set its preCondition="managedHandler", but since there's runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" on parent <module> element my preCondition is ignored by design (as I read on MSDN). When I try to set though: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false"> I get this error: [image no longer valid] What else (which other module) do I have to set in web.config to make it work with this setting: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false">

    Read the article

  • Retrive data from two tables in asp.net mvc using ADO.Net Entity Framework

    - by user192972
    Please read my question carefully and reply me. I have two tables as table1 and table2. In table1 i have columns as AddressID(Primary Key),Address1,Address2,City In table2 i have columns as ContactID(Primary Key),AddressID(Foriegn Key),Last Name,First Name. By using join operation i can retrive data from both the tables. I created a Model in my MVC Application.I can see both the tables in enitity editor. In the ViewData folder of my solution explorer i created two class as ContactViewData.cs and SLXRepository.cs In the ContactViewData.cs i have following code public IEnumerable<CONTACT> contacts { get; set; } In the SLXRepository.cs i have following code public IEnumerable<CONTACT> GetContacts() { var contact = ( from c in context.CONTACT join a in context.ADDRESS on c.ADDRESSID equals a.ADDRESSID select new { a.ADDRESS1, a.ADDRESS2, a.CITY, c.FIRSTNAME, c.LASTNAME } ); return contact; } I am getting the error in return type Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Linq.IQueryable' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?)

    Read the article

  • understanding the models in MVC

    - by fayer
    i cant fully understand the models in MVC. so i am using symfony with doctrine. the doctrine models are created. does this mean that i don't have to create any models? are the doctrine models the only models i need? where should i put the code that uses the doctrine models: eg. $phoneIds = array(); $phone1 = new Phonenumber(); $phone1['phonenumber'] = '555 202 7890'; $phone1->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone1['id']; $phone2 = new Phonenumber(); $phone2['phonenumber'] = '555 100 7890'; $phone2->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone2['id']; $user = new User(); $user['username'] = 'jwage'; $user['password'] = 'changeme'; $user->save(); $user->link('Phonenumbers', $phoneIds); should this code be in the controller or in another model? and where should i validate these fields (check if it exists in database, that email is email etc)? could someone please shed a light on this. thanks.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net mvc - trying to display images pulled from db \

    - by Trey Carroll
    //Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<FilmFestWeb.Models.ListVideosViewModel>" <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>ListVideos</h2> <% foreach(BusinessObjects.Video vid in Model.VideoList){%> <div class="videoBox"> <%= Html.Encode(vid.Name) %> <img src="<%= vid.ThumbnailImage %>" /> </div> <%} %> </asp:Content> //ListVideosViewModel public class ListVideosViewModel { public IList<Video> VideoList { get; set; } } //Video public class Video { public long VideoId { get; set; } public long TeamId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Tags { get; set; } public string TeamMembers { get; set; } public string TranscriptFileName { get; set; } public string VideoFileName { get; set; } public int TotalNumRatings { get; set; } public int CumulativeTotalScore { get; set; } public string VideoUri { get; set; } public Image ThumbnailImage { get; set; } } I am getting the "red x" that I usually associate with image file not found. I have verified that my database table shows after the stored proc that uploads the image executes. Any insight or advice would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What's the best way to transition to MVC coding?

    - by ggfan
    It's been around 5 months since I picked up a PHP book and started coding in PHP. At first, I created all my sites without any organizational plan or MVC. I soon found out that was a pain.. Then I started to read on stackoverflow on how to separate php and html and that's what I have been doing ever since. Ex: profile.php <--this file is HTML,css. I just echo the functions here. profile_functions.php <--this file is mostly PHP. has the functions. This is how I have been separating all my coding so far and now I feel I should move on and start MVC. But the problem is, I never used classes before and suck with them. And since MVC (such as cakephp and codeigniter) is all classes, that can't be good. My question: Is there any good books/sites/articles that teaches you how to code in MVC? I am looking for beginner beginner books :) I just started reading the codeigniter manuel and I think I am going to use that. When I looked at the example MVC, they use different PHP coding. When I start coding in MVC, would I have to learn a "new" way to code? Because right now I am coding in pure basic PHP.

    Read the article

  • Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

    Read the article

  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

    Read the article

  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

    Read the article

  • web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

    Read the article

  • Which Code Should Go Where in MVC Structure

    - by Oguz
    My problem is in somewhere between model and controller.Everything works perfect for me when I use MVC just for crud (create, read, update, delete).I have separate models for each database table .I access these models from controller , to crud them . For example , in contacts application,I have actions (create, read, update, delete) in controller(contact) to use model's (contact) methods (create, read, update, delete). The problem starts when I try to do something more complicated. There are some complex processes which I do not know where should I put them. For example , in registering user process. I can not just finish this process in user model because , I have to use other models too (sending mails , creating other records for user via other models) and do lots of complex validations via other models. For example , in some complex searching processes , I have to access lots of models (articles, videos, images etc.) Or, sometimes , I have to use apis to decide what I will do next or which database model I will use to record data So where is the place to do this complicated processes. I do not want to do them in controllers , Because sometimes I should use these processes in other controllers too. And I do not want to put these process in models because , I use models as database access layers .May be I am wrong,I want to know . Thank you for your answer .

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - Binding a Child Entity to the Model

    - by Nathan Taylor
    This one seems painfully obvious to me, but for some reason I can't get it working the way I want it to. Perhaps it isn't possible the way I am doing it, but that seems unlikely. This question may be somewhat related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1274855/asp-net-mvc-model-binding-related-entities-on-same-page. I have an EditorTemplate to edit an entity with multiple related entity references. When the editor is rendered the user is given a drop down list to select related entities from, with the drop down list returning an ID as its value. <%=Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.Entity.ID)%> When the request is sent the form value is named as expected: "Entity.ID", however my strongly typed Model defined as an action parameter doesn't have Entity.ID populated with the value passed in the request. public ActionResult AddEntity(EntityWithChildEntities entityWithChildEntities) { } I tried fiddling around with the Bind() attribute and specified Bind(Include = "Entity.ID") on the entityWithChildEntities, but that doesn't seem to work. I also tried Bind(Include = "Entity"), but that resulted in the ModelBinder attempting to bind a full "Entity" definition (not surprisingly). Is there any way to get the default model binder to fill the child entity ID or will I need to add action parameters for each child entity's ID and then manually copy the values into the model definition?

    Read the article

  • Creating LINQ to SQL Data Models' Data Contexts with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm just getting started with ASP.NET MVC, mostly by reading ScottGu's tutorial. To create my database connections, I followed the steps he outlined, which were to create a LINQ-to-SQL dbml model, add in the database tables through the Server Explorer, and finally to create a DataContext class. That last part is the part I'm stuck on. In this class, I'm trying to create methods that work around the exposed data. Following the example in the tutorial, I created this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MySite.Models { public partial class MyDataContext { public List<Post> GetPosts() { return Posts.ToList(); } public Post GetPostById(int id) { return Posts.Single(p => p.ID == id); } } } As you can see, I'm trying to use my Post data table. However, it doesn't recognize the "Posts" part of my code. What am I doing wrong? I have a feeling that my problem is related to my not adding the data tables correctly, but I'm not sure. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Creating a impersonated user.

    - by Malcolm
    Hi, I have a MVC app where I have a User class and the user can also impersonate another user(Admin users only). So I have this code below that authenticates the request and instantiates my version of a User class. It then tries to get the impersonated user from the Session object but Session is not available in this method in the global.asax. Hope this makes sense. How else could I do this? protected void Application_OnAuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { IMylesterService service = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(); if (Context.User != null) { if (Context.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { User user = service.GetUser(Context.User.Identity.Name); if (user == null) throw new ApplicationException("Context.user.Identity.name is not a recognized user"); User impersonatedUser = (User)this.Session["ImpersonatedUser"]; if (impersonatedUser == null) user.ImpersonatedUser = user; else user.ImpersonatedUser = impersonatedUser; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = user; return; } } User guest = service.GetGuestUser(); guest.ImpersonatedUser = guest; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = guest; }

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC 2 EditorFor Dictionary Bind

    - by user307540
    Hi! I try this, but don't work. bemutatkozas@Modify = null all the time. public class Iroda { public Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas { get; set; } } public ActionResult Index() { var dct = new Dictionary<int, string>(); dct.Add(1, "magyar"); dct.Add(2, "angol"); dct.Add(3, "olasz"); return View(new Iroda { bemutatkozas = dct }); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Modify(Dictionary<int,string> bemutatkozas) { return View(); } <% using (Html.BeginForm("Modify","Iroda")) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <%= Html.EditorFor(o=>o.bemutatkozas,"MultiLanguageEditor") %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<Dictionary<int, string>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach (var s in Model) { %> <%= Html.Hidden(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].key", s.Key) %> <%= Html.TextBox(Html.ViewContext.ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix+"["+i+"].value",s.Value) %> <% i++; %> <% }%> Whats the solution? Thx!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Paging for a search form

    - by James Alexander
    I've read several different posts on paging w/ in MVC but none describe a scenario where I have something like a search form and then want to display the results of the search criteria (with paging) beneath the form once the user clicks submit. My problem is that, the paging solution I'm using will create <a href="..."> links that will pass the desired page like so: http://mysite.com/search/2/ and while that's all fine and dandy, I don't have the results of the query being sent to the db in memory or anything so I need to query the DB again. If the results are handled by the POST controller action for /Search and the first page of the data is rendered as such, how do I get the same results (based on the form criteria specified by the user) when the user clicks to move to page 2? Some javascript voodoo? Leverage Session State? Make my GET controller action have the same variables expected by the search criteria (but optional), when the GET action is called, instantiate a FormCollection instance, populate it and pass it to the POST action method (there-by satisfying DRY)? Can someone point me in the right direction for this scenario or provide examples that have been implemented in the past? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

    Read the article

  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92  | Next Page >