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  • Suggestions In Porting ASP.NET to MVC.NET - Is storing SiteConfiguration in Cache RESTful?

    - by DaveDev
    I've been tasked with porting/refactoring a Web Application Platform that we have from ASP.NET to MVC.NET. Ideally I could use all the existing platform's configurations to determine the properties of the site that is presented. Is it RESTful to keep a SiteConfiguration object which contains all of our various page configuration data in the System.Web.Caching.Cache? There are a lot of settings that need to be loaded when the user acceses our site so it's inefficient for each user to have to load the same settings every time they access. Some data the SiteConfiguration object contains is as follows and it determines what Master Page / site configuration / style / UserControls are available to the client, public string SiteTheme { get; set; } public string Region { private get; set; } public string DateFormat { get; set; } public string NumberFormat { get; set; } public int WrapperType { private get; set; } public string LabelFileName { get; set; } public LabelFile LabelFile { get; set; } // the following two are the heavy ones // PageConfiguration contains lots of configuration data for each panel on the page public IList<PageConfiguration> Pages { get; set; } // This contains all the configurations for the factsheets we produce public List<ConfiguredFactsheet> ConfiguredFactsheets { get; set; } I was thinking of having a URL structure like this: www.MySite1.com/PageTemplate/UserControl/ the domain determines the SiteConfiguration object that is created, where MySite1.com is SiteId = 1, MySite2.com is SiteId = 2. (and in turn, style, configurations for various pages, etc.) PageTemplate is the View that will be rendered and simply defines a layout for where I'm going to inject the UserControls Can somebody please tell me if I'm completely missing the RESTful point here? I'd like to refactor the platform into MVC because it's better to work in but I want to do it right but with a minimum of reinventing-the-wheel because otherwise it won't get approval. Any suggestions otherwise? Thanks

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  • ADO.net Data Services - Querying

    - by Prajuvan
    Just I started learning ADO.NET Data Services. Some Pages show the querying like (sample) http://localhost:1705/ServiceExample/SomeService.svc/Persons(1)/Name http://localhost:1705/ServiceExample/SomeService.svc/Persons(1)/Name/$value Is it XPath or XQuery? Where can i get complete rules for forming such queries with examples? Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET Ajax REST service not defined

    - by Attilah
    I created an ASP.NET REST service (using WCF) and access it through one of my .aspx page. the problem is that when I publish (precomile) my code to the web server, I get an error : "ThunServ not defined" in the Javascript console of my browser. don't know what's causing it and how to solve it.

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  • how to read check box in a word document in asp.net

    - by Nataraja
    hi friends present i am working as developes, i want code for the following scenario my scenario is the word document must contain checkbox, and this word document should read to asp.net page, when user click the check box, the selected value should be stored into the database can any one help me

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  • Maintain state of an ASP.NET page

    - by user279521
    Hi, what is your preferred method to maintain state of an asp.net page, if it is a public website (involving shopping cart, wish-list etc). I am in the process of designing a website that will need to ensure that the user is not able to tamper with the state (such as delete cookies etc).

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  • Crystal Reports Reportviewer - Set Datasource Dynamically Not Working :argh:

    - by Albert
    I'm running CR XI, and accessing .RPT files through a ReportViewer in my ASP.NET pages. I've already got the following code, which is supposed to set the Report Datasource dynamically. rptSP = New ReportDocument Dim rptPath As String = Request.QueryString("report") rptSP.Load(rptPath.ToString, 0) Dim SConn As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionStringBuilder(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ConnectionString) rptSP.DataSourceConnections(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog).SetConnection(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog, SConn.UserID, SConn.Password) Dim myConnectionInfo As ConnectionInfo = New ConnectionInfo myConnectionInfo.ServerName = SConn.DataSource myConnectionInfo.DatabaseName = SConn.InitialCatalog myConnectionInfo.UserID = SConn.UserID myConnectionInfo.Password = SConn.Password 'Two new methods to loop through all objects and tables contained in the requested report and set 'login credentials for each object and table. SetDBLogonForReport(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) SetDBLogonForSubreports(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) Me.CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = rptSP But when I go into each .RPT file, and open up the Database Expert section, there is obviously still servernames hardcoded in there, and the code listed above doesn't seem to be able to change the servernames that are hardcoded there. I say this because I have training and production environments. When the .RPT file is hardcoded with my production server, and I open it on my training server with the code above (and the web.config has the training server in the connection string), I get the ol: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. And then if I go into the .RPT file, and change over the datasource to the training server, and try to open it again, it works fine. Why doesn't the code above overwrite the .RPT files datasource? How can I avoid having to open up each .RPT and change the datasource when migrating reports from server to server? Is there a setting in the .RPT file I'm missing or something?

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  • How can I get controller type and action info from a url or from route data?

    - by Rob Levine
    How can I get the controller action (method) and controller type that will be called, given the System.Web.Routing.RouteData? My scenario is this - I want to be able to do perform certain actions (or not) in the OnActionExecuting method for an action. However, I will often want to know not the current action, but the "root" action being called; by this I mean I may have a view called "Login", which is my login page. This view may include another partial view "LeftNav". When OnActionExecuting is called for LeftNav, I want to be able to determine that it is really being called for the "root" aciton of Login. I realise that by calling RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext), I can get the route for the "root" request, but how to turn this into method and type info? The only solution I have so far, is something like: var routeData = RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext) var routeController = (string)routeData.Values["controller"]; var routeAction = (string)routeData.Values["action"]; The problem with this is that "routeController" is the controller name with the "Controller" suffix removed, and is not fully qualified; ie it is "Login", rather than "MyCode.Website.LoginController". I would far rather get an actual Type and MethodInfo if possible, or at least a fully qualified type name. Any thoughts, or alternative approaches? [EDIT - this is ASP.Net MVC 1.0]

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  • Passing Control's Value to Modal Popup

    - by Sherwin Valdez
    Hello, Just would like know how to pass textbox value to a modal popup after clicking a button using ModalPopUpExtender in ASP.NET, I've tried these codes but seems that I have no luck :( <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button1.Attributes.Add("onclick", "showModalPopup(); return false;"); } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick='showModalPopup(); return false;' /> <cc1:ModalPopupExtender ID="ModalPopupExtender1" runat="server" TargetControlID="Button1" PopupControlID="Panel1" CancelControlID="btnCancel" OkControlID="btnOkay" BackgroundCssClass="ModalPopupBG"> </cc1:ModalPopupExtender> <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" Style="display: none" runat="server"> <div class="HellowWorldPopup"> <div class="PopupHeader" id="PopupHeader"> Header</div> <div class="PopupBody"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server"></asp:Label> </div> <div class="Controls"> <input id="btnOkay" type="button" value="Done" /> <input id="btnCancel" type="button" value="Cancel" /> </div> </div> </asp:Panel> javascript function showModalPopup() { //show the ModalPopupExtender var value; value = document.getElementById("TextBox1").value; $get("<%=Label1.ClientID %>").value = value; $find("<%=ModalPopupExtender1.ClientID %>").show(); } I wonder what I miss out :(, Thanks and I hope someone could help me :)

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  • Ajax.BeginForm driving me crazy

    - by Fabio Milheiro
    ASP.NET MVC3 I have a partial view that is initially rendered inside a div. The following is the partial code: @model Venue.Models.Validation.CustomerRequestModel <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js"></script> @{ Html.RenderPartial("Message"); } @Html.ValidationSummary() @using (Ajax.BeginForm( "Customer", "Service", null, new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "post", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace, LoadingElementDuration = 100, LoadingElementId = "loading-customer", OnBegin = "hideSubmitButton", OnSuccess = "hideForm", OnComplete = "showSubmitButton", OnFailure = "showErrorMessage", UpdateTargetId = "formclientes", }, new { id = "customer-form" })) { // Fields are all type="text" although some are numbers. <input type="text" name="Address" class="clientes_form" /> } The action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Customer(CustomerRequestModel customer) { // ... } In the immediate window, this is what I get: this.Request.IsAjaxRequest() false Why?!

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  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

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  • JavaScript keeps returning ambigious error

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    this is my function (with other lines ive tried/abandoned)... function DoClicked(eNumber) { //obj.style = 'bgcolor: maroon'; var eid = 'cat' + eNumber; //$get(obj).style.backgroundColor = 'maroon'; //var nObj = $get(obj); var nObj = document.getElementById(eid) //alert(nObj.getAttribute("style")); nObj.style.backgroundColor = 'Maroon'; alert(nObj.style.backgroundColor); //nObj.setAttribute("style", "backgroundcolor: Maroon"); }; This error keeps getting returned even after the last line in the function runs: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.ArgumentUndefinedException: Value cannot be undefined. Parameter name: method this function is called with an "OnSuccess" set in my Ajax.ActionLink call (ASP.NET MVC)... anyone any ideas on this? i have these referenced... even when i remove the 'debug' versions for normal versions, i still get an error but the error just has much less information and says 'b' is undefined (probably a ms js library internal variable)... <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> also, this is how i am calling the actionlink method: Ajax.ActionLink(item.CategoryName, "SubCategoryList", "Home", New With {.CategoryID = item.CategoryID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "SubCat", .HttpMethod = "Post", .OnSuccess = "DoClicked(" & item.CategoryID.ToString & ")"}, New With {.id = "cat" & item.CategoryID.ToString})

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  • Does Security Trimming work with Web Forms Routing?

    - by Slauma
    In my web.config I have configured a SiteMapProvider with securityTrimmingEnabled="true" and on my main master page is an asp:Menu control bound to an asp:SiteMapDataSource. In addition I have configured restricted access to all pages in a subfolder "Admin" (using another web.config in this subfolder). If I put a sitemapNode in Web.sitemap... <siteMapNode url="~/Admin/Default.aspx" title="Administration" description="" > ... only users in role "Admin" will have the menu item related to that siteMapNode. So this is working fine and as intended. Now I have defined a URL route in Global.asax to map the physical file to a new URL: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("AdminHomeRoute", "Administration/Home", "~/Admin/Default.aspx"); But when I use this route-URL in the SiteMap file... <siteMapNode url="Administration/Home" title="Administration" description="" > ... it seems that security trimming does not work: The menu item is visible for all users. (Access to the page is still restricted though, so selecting the menu item by non-Admin users does not navigate to the restricted page.) Question: Is there any setting I've missed so far to make security trimming working with URL routing in ASP.NET 4.0 Web Forms? Did I do something wrong? Is there any work-around? Thank you for help!

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  • Make PasswordRecovery control work with locked out users ?

    - by Moe Sisko
    Example scenario in an ASP.NET application using SQL Server membership provider : 1) a user can't remember their exact password, and tries many times in a short space of time to login with an invalid password (say 5 times in a 10 minute window). This locks out the user (i.e. sets the IsLockedOut flag of the aspnet_Membership table to 1). 2) user goes to the "forgot my password" screen to try to get a new password emailed to them. This screen uses the PasswordRecovery control. User enters their correct user id, but then cannot go further in the password recovery process, since the IsLockedOut flag is 1. (They don't even get to see their security question). 3) The user would then have to phone tech support to get themselves unlocked etc. To reduce the burden on support staff, we are trying to eliminate step 3) if possible, by making the PasswordRecovery control (if possible), work with locked out users. i.e. when they enter their login ID, the security question comes up, and IF they enter the correct answer, the system will unlock the user, then send the new email to them. I'm wondering if it is possible to tweak the PasswordRecovery control to do this. Or maybe I'm approaching this the wrong way ?

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • Performance Difference between HttpContext user and Thread user

    - by atrueresistance
    I am wondering what the difference between HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower and Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower. Both methods grab the username in my asp.net 3.5 web service. I decided to figure out if there was any difference in performance using a little program. Running from full Stop to Start Debugging in every run. Dim st As DateTime = DateAndTime.Now Try 'user = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower user = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name.ToString.ToLower Dim dif As TimeSpan = Now.Subtract(st) Dim break As String = "nothing" Catch ex As Exception user = "Undefined" End Try I set a breakpoint on break to read the value of dif. The results were the same for both methods. dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long Using a longer duration, loop 5,000 times results in these figures. Thread Method run 1 dif.Milliseconds 125 Integer dif.Ticks 1250000 Long run 2 dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long run 3 dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long HttpContext Method run 1 dif.Milliseconds 15 Integer dif.Ticks 156250 Long run 2 dif.Milliseconds 156 Integer dif.Ticks 1562500 Long run 3 dif.Milliseconds 0 Integer dif.Ticks 0 Long So I guess what is more prefered, or more compliant with webservice standards? If there is some type of a performance advantage, I can't really tell. Which one scales to larger environments easier?

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  • C# internal VS VBNET Friend

    - by Will Marcouiller
    To this SO question: What is the C# equivalent of friend?, I would personally have answered "internal", just like Ja did among the answers! However, Jon Skeet says that there is no direct equivalence of VB Friend in C#. If Jon Skeet says so, I won't be the one telling otherwise! ;P I'm wondering how can the keyword internal (C#) not be the equivalent of Friend (VBNET) when their respective definitions are: Friend VBNET The Friend (Visual Basic) keyword in the declaration statement specifies that the elements can be accessed from within the same assembly, but not from outside the assembly. [...] internal C# Internal: Access is limited to the current assembly. To my understanding, these definitions mean quite the same to me. Then, respectively, when I'm coding in VB.NET, I use the Friend keyword to specify that a class or a property shall be accessible only within the assembly where it is declared. The same in C#, I use the internal keyword to specify the same. Am I doing something or anything wrong from this perspective? What are the refinements I don't get? Might someone please explain how or in what Friend and internal are not direct equivalences? Thanks in advance for any of your answers!

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  • Cascading DropDown List in MVC 4

    - by Misi
    I have a ASP.NET MVC 4 project with EF I have a table with Parteners. This table has 2 types of parteners : agents(part_type=1) and clients(part_type=2). In an Create view I have the first DropDownList that shows all my agents, a button and the second DDL that shows all my clients that correspond to the selected agent. Q1 : What button shoud I use ? , , @Html.ActionLink() ? Create.cshtml <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("idagenti", ViewData["idagenti"] as List<SelectListItem>, String.Empty) </div> @*a button*@ <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.id_parten, "Client") </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("id_parten", String.Empty) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.id_parten) </div> OrdersController.cs public ActionResult Create(int? id) // id is the selected agent { var agqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 1).Where(p => p.activ == true); var cltqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 2).Where(p => p.activ == true); List<SelectListItem> idagenti = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (partener ag in agqry) { idagenti.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = ag.den_parten, Value = ag.id_parten.ToString() }); } if (id != null) { cltqry = cltqry.Where(p => p.par_parten == id); } ViewData["idagenti"] = idagenti; ViewBag.id_parten = new SelectList(cltqry, "id_parten", "den_parten");// } Q: How can I pass the selected agent id from the first DDL to my controller ?

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  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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  • Newbie seeking advice on programming in general

    - by user974685
    need some of you to remember back to a time when you might have been bad at programming... Been at my new job (as a software developer) for a couple of months now, passed probation period. Have very little programming experience (C++ only) and am currently working with asp.net MVC and silverlight. So there's a website the company has been working on and I am joining the effort to make it better, iron out bugs etc. The problem is - learning about a system/website which has already been made, via visual studio. I ALWAYS feel HUGELY overwhelmed, never knowing which part of this line should I look up, and generally having lots of trouble getting the big picture. Visual studio itself is something I'm finding it difficult to get to grips with, let alone the asp.net framework. I get the impression that because my coworkers have more experience than me, they are getting all the good jobs, and I am left with crap to do - stuff which is not even vaguely programming. Meaning they are learning/creating more, and I am learning/creating near nothing. I'm getting demoralised, and too scared to say anything. I'm not stupid, I've read and practiced plenty of the fundamental programming concepts...I'm just bloody scared of this damn framework. I look at it and just feel paralyzed. The result is that I keep asking the older veteran guy of questions, and he is getting irritated, and would rather give me easy/mindless/non programming jobs to avoid wasting time with helping me out. Then when I don't understand something, I'm hesitating about whether or not I should ask him yet, and trying to decide if it would be a waste of time. I'm the kind of person who picks things up slowly, but with a lot of attention to detail. The former I think is making me look incompetent though. Anyone get where I'm coming from please say something helpful....I'm scared of losing my job in a few months or something...

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