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  • populating object collection property with Linq

    - by Benjamin Ortuzar
    I have an XML structure that has many doc nodes, and each node may have zero or more extract paragraphs (paras). <doc> <docitem>3</docitem> <docid>129826</docid> <doctitle>sample title</doctitle> <docdatetime>2009-07-03T16:59:00</docdatetime> <collectdatetime>2009-07-03T16:59:23</collectdatetime> <summary> <summarytext>sample summary</summarytext> </summary> <paras> <paraitemcount>2</paraitemcount> <para> <paraitem>1</paraitem> <paratext>sample text 1</paratext> </para> <para> <paraitem>2</paraitem> <paratext>sample text 2</paratext> </para> </paras> </doc> <doc> ... </doc> I also has some Linq code to populate some Document objects: List<Document> documentsList = (from doc in xmlDocument.Descendants("doc") select new Document { DocId = doc.Element("docid").Value, DocTitle = doc.Element("doctitle").Value, DocDateTime = DateTime.Parse(doc.Element("docdate").Value), DocSummary = doc.Element("summary").Value, DocParas = "" ///missing code to populate List<string> } ).ToList<Document>(); Is it possible add all the paras nodes into the Document.DocParas List<string> using Linq and Xpath, or should I do this task in a different way? Note: I'm using .NET C# 3.5

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  • StringTemplate Variable with Object Properties

    - by David Higgins
    I am starting to use StringTemplate for the first time, and am stuck trying to figure out how to get StringTemplate to do something like the following: article.st $elemenets:article/elements()$ article/elements.st $if($it.is_type)$ $it:article/type()$ $elseif($it.is_type2)$ $it:article/type2()$ // also tried: $it.value:article/type2()$, same result $endif$ article/type.st <type>$it.value$</type> article/type2.st <h1>$it.value.title</h1> <type2>$it.value.text</type2> program.cs StringTemplateGroup group = new StringTemplateGroup("article", "Templates"); StringTemplate template = group.GetInstanceOf("Article"); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type = true, value = "<p>Hello Text</p>" }); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type2 = true, value = new { title = "Type 2 Title", text = "Type2 Text" } }); return template.ToString(); Problem here is ... the if(it.is_type) works fine, and the article/type.st works perfectly. However, when I pass an object to the value property for 'Element' I get this error: Class ClassName has no such attribute: text in template context [Article article/element elseif(it.is_type2)_subtemplate article/type2] So - my question is, how do i access the properties/fields of an object, within an object using StringTemplate?

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  • How to serialize List<object>

    - by afin
    I am writing common functions to serialize the given object and List<object> as follows public string SerializeObject(Object pObject)// for given object { try { String XmlizedString = null; MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(pObject)); XmlTextWriter xmlTextWriter = new XmlTextWriter(memoryStream, Encoding.UTF8); xs.Serialize(xmlTextWriter, pObject); memoryStream = (MemoryStream)xmlTextWriter.BaseStream; XmlizedString = UTF8ByteArrayToString(memoryStream.ToArray()); return XmlizedString; } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine(e); return null; } } public string SerializeObject(List<Object> pObject)// for given List<object> { try { String XmlizedString = null; MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(pObject)); XmlTextWriter xmlTextWriter = new XmlTextWriter(memoryStream, Encoding.UTF8); xs.Serialize(xmlTextWriter, pObject); memoryStream = (MemoryStream)xmlTextWriter.BaseStream; XmlizedString = UTF8ByteArrayToString(memoryStream.ToArray()); return XmlizedString; } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine(e); return null; } } first one is working fine. If I pass any type, it is successfully returning xml string. But second one is throwing error. what could be wrong?

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  • VB.Net Custom Object Master-Detail Data Binding

    - by clawson
    Since beginning to use VB.Net some years ago I have become slowly familiar with using the data binding features of .Net, however I often find my self bewildered by it's behavior and instead of discover the correct way it should work I find some dirty work around to suit my needs and continue on. Needless to say my problems continue to arise. I am using Custom Objects as the Data Sources for by controls and often entire forms. I find it frustrating to separate business logic and the graphical interface. (That could be a new question entirely.) So for a lot of objects I generate a form which has the DataBindingSource for the object. When I create each from using the New Constructor I explicitly pass to it the object to which it should be bound, and then set this passed object as the DataSource of the BindingSource. (That's a mouthful!) Now the Master object (say, bound to each form) often contains a List of objects which I like to have displayed in a DataGridView. I (sometimes) create and modify these child objects in their own form (again creating a databind the same way as the master form) but when I add them to the List in the master object the DataGridView won't update with the new items. So my question really has a few layers: How can I easily/efficiently/correctly update this DataGridView with the list of Detail objects when I add them to the list of the Master object. Is this approach to DataBinding good/viable. What's the best way to separate business logic from graphical interface. Thanks for the help!

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  • Create Keyword Object Perl Microsoft::AdCenter

    - by toobsco42
    So I looked at the perldoc for the Microsoft::AdCenter module and it shows this as an example of how to create a keyword object: ~$ perldoc Microsoft::AdCenter #Create a Keyword object my $keyword = Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Keyword->new ->Text("some text") ->BroadMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)) ->ExactMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)); However, doesn't this violate the new policy of using only one match type per keyword? Campaign Management changes: "Previously, you would create a single Keyword object and specify a bid value for each match that you wanted to bid on (for example, exact match or phrase match). If you did not specify a bid value at the keyword-level, adCenter used the default bid value specified at the ad group level. Now, you must create a Keyword object for each match type that you want to bid on. For example, to bid on the keyword car by using exact match and phrase match, create a Keyword object and set the Text element to car and the ExactMatchBid element to a bid amount. Then, create a second Keyword object and set the Text element to car and PhraseMatchBid to a bid amount. When you add the keywords, you’ll get a unique keyword ID for each keyword and match-type combination."

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  • Asp.Net Cache, modify an object from cache and it changes the cached value

    - by Glen
    Hi, I'm having an issue when using the Asp.Net Cache functionality. I add an object to the Cache then at another time I get that object from the Cache, modify one of it's properties then save the changes to the database. But, the next time I get the object from Cache it contains the changed values. So, when I modify the object it modifies the version which is contained in cache even though I haven't updated it in the Cache specifically. Does anyone know how I can get an object from the Cache which doesn't reference the cached version? i.e. Step 1: Item item = new Item(); item.Title = "Test"; Cache.Insert("Test", item, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(1), System.Web.Caching.Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); Step 2: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); item.Title = "Test 1"; Step 3: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); if(item.Title == "Test 1"){ Response.Write("Object has been changed in the Cache."); } I realise that with the above example it would make sense that any changes to the item get reflected in cache but my situation is a bit more complicated and I definitely don't want this to happen.

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  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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  • HP QTP 10: Web-app testing - SomeObj.FireEvent("OnCLick") works, SomeObj.Object.FireEvent("OnCLick") doesn't

    - by Vitaliy
    Hi all! I have rich web app btuil with ExtJS. It has multi-select list control (created with JS+CSS). I want to click on some item in that list using HP QuickTest Pro 10 with Internet Explorer 6. I added that item into Object repository and found that following code works - selects some item: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").Click next code also works: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onMouseDown") Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onMouseUp") Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onClick") But I want to select several items using shift+click method. I don't know to do that :( So I have a few questions: How can perform click with mouse on several web elements with Shift key pressed? I tried to do that using CreateEventObject + shiftKey set to true, but the method (perform fireEvent on DOM object, not object from Object repository) doesn't work: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").Object.FireEvent("onClick") What the difference between WebElement("Element").FireEvent("OnClick") and WebElement("Element").Object.FireEvent("OnClick") ? Plsease, help someone, because I fought with that problem a lot, but had no result. Thanks!

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  • When onblur occurs, how can I find out which element focus went *to*?

    - by Michiel Borkent
    Suppose I attach an onblur function to an html input box like this: <input id="myInput" onblur="function() { ... }"></input> Is there a way to get the ID of the element which caused the onblur event to fire (the element which was clicked) inside the function? How? For example, suppose I have a span like this: <span id="mySpan">Hello World</span> If I click the span right after the input element has focus, the input element will lose its focus. How does the function know that it was mySpan that was clicked? PS: If the onclick event of the span would occur before the onblur event of the input element my problem would be solved, because I could set some status value indicating a specific element had been clicked. PPS: The background of this problem is that I want to trigger an Ajax.AutoCompleter control externally (from a clickable element) to show its suggestions, without the suggestions disappearing immediately because of the onblur event on the input element. So I want to check in the OnBlur function if one specific element has been clicked, and if so, ignore the blur event.

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  • How to use DLL reference with an ActiveX <object> via JavaScript

    - by John Factorial
    My question: how can I set an ActiveX object's property via JavaScript to an enum value found in a non-ActiveX DLL? Problem description: I am instantiating an ActiveX object with the following object tag: <object classid="clsid:F338193D-2491-4D7B-80CE-03487041A278" id="VideoCapture1" width="500" height="500"></object> (This is the guid for the 3rd party ActiveX I'm using, "VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.VFVideoCapture4X") I have example C# code for using this ActiveX, which I am porting to JavaScript. Code like this works just fine: VideoCapture1.Debug_Mode = true; var devcount = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetCount(); var devs = []; for (var i =0; i < devcount; ++i) { devs[devs.length] = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetItem(i); } ... etc ... However, VideoCapture1 has some settings which refer to a DLL enum, like so (C# code): VideoCapture1.Mode = VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview; I can see in Visual Web Developer that TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview is value 1 in the enum. However, the following JS does not appear to set the Mode properly: VideoCapture1.Mode = 1; Does anyone know how I can set VideoCapture1.Mode to the enum value found in the TxVFMode? PS: In Visual Web Developer, when I "Go to definition" on TxVFMode, I get the Guid for the enum. I thought I could create an with this Guid or instantiate a VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode in JS, but neither gives me a usable object.

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  • Hibernate overriding database modifications with detached object state

    - by EugeneP
    I'm gonna go with this design: create an object and keep it alive during all web-app session. And I need to synchronize its state with database state. What I want to achieve is that : IF between my db operations, that is, modifications that I persist to a db someone intentionally spoils table rows, then on next saving to a database all those changes WOULD BE OVERWRITTEN with the object state, that always contains valid data. What Hibernate methods do you recommend me to use to persist the modifications in a database? saveOrUpdate() is a possible solution, but maybe there's anything better? Again, I repeat how it looks. First I create an object without collections. Persist it (save()). Then user provides us with additional data. In a serviceLayer, again, we modify our object in memory (say, populate it with collections) and then, persist it again. So every serviceLayer operation of the next step must simply guarantee that database contains the exact persistent copy of this object that we have in memory. If data in a database differ, it MUST BE OVERRIDDEN with the object (kept in memory) state. What Session operations do you recommend?

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  • How to use the same element name in different purposes ( in XML and DTD ) ?

    - by BugKiller
    Hi, I Want to create a DTD schema for this xml document: <root> <student> <name> <firstname>S1</firstname> <lastname>S2</lastname> </name> </student> <course> <name>CS101</name> </course> </root> as you can see , the element name in the course contains plain text ,but the element name in the student is complex type ( first-name, last-name ). The following is the DTD: <!ELEMENT root (course|student)*> <!ELEMENT student (name)> <!ELEMENT name (lastname|firstname)> <!ELEMENT firstname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT lastname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT course (name)> When I want to validate it , I get an error because the course's name has different structure then the student's name . My Question: how can I make a work-around solution for this situation without changing the name of element name using DTD not xml schema . Thanks.

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  • binding nested json object value to a form field

    - by Jack
    I am building a dynamic form to edit data in a json object. First, if something like this exists let me know. I would rather not build it but I have searched many times for a tool and have found only tree like structures that require entering quotes. I would be happy to treat all values as strings. This edit functionality is for end users so it needs to be easy an not intimidating. So far I have code that generates nested tables to represent a json object. For each value I display a form field. I would like to bind the form field to the associated nested json value. If I could store a reference to the json value I would build an array of references to each value in a json object tree. I have not found a way to do that with javascript. My last resort approach will be to traverse the table after edits are made. I would rather have dynamic updates but a single submit would be better than nothing. Any ideas? // the json in files nests only a few levels. Here is the format of a simple case, { "researcherid_id":{ "id_key":"researcherid_id", "description":"Use to retrieve bibliometric data", "url_template" :[ { "name": "Author Detail", "url": "http://www.researcherid.com/rid/${key}" } ] } } $.get('file.json',make_json_form); function make_json_form(response) { dataset = $.secureEvalJSON(response); // iterate through the object and generate form field for string values. } // Then after the form is edited I want to display the raw updated json (then I want to save it but that is for another thread) // now I iterate through the form and construct the json object // I would rather have the dataset object var updated on focus out after each edit. function show_json(form_id){ var r = {}; var el = document.getElementById(form_id); table_to_json(r,el,null); $('body').html(formattedJSON(r)); }

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  • sharing message object between web applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I need to share java mail message objects between two web applications(A and B). WebApplication A obtains the message and write it to the outputStream for(int i=0;i<messagesArr.length;i++){ uid = pop3FolderObj.getUID(messagesArr[i]); //storing messages with uid names inorder to maintain uniqueness File f = new File("F:/PersistedMessagesFolder" + uid); FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(f); messagesArr[i].writeTo(fos); fos.flush(); fos.close(); } Is FileOutputStream the best output stream for persisting message objects? Is it possible to use ObjectOutputStream for message object persistence? WebApplication B reads the message object via InputStream FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream("F:/MessagesPersistedFolder"+uid); MimeMessage mm = new MimeMessage(sessionObj,fis); What if the mail message object which is already written via WebApplication A is not a MimeMessage? How can I read non-mime messages using input stream? MimeMessage constructor mandates sessionObj as the first parameter? How can I obtain this sessionObj in WebApplicationB? Do I have to again establish store connection with the same emailid,emailpassword,popserver and port(already used in WebApplication A) with the email server inorder to obtain this session object? Even if obtained, will this session object remains the same as that of the session object which is priorly obtained in WebApplicationA? Since I am using uids to name Message objects (inorder to maintain uniqueness of file names) how can I share these uids between WebApplication A and WebApplication B? WebApplication B needs the uid inorder to access the specific file which is present in "F:/MessagesPersistedFolder" Please help me in resolving the aforeseen issues.

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  • filter by value in object of array

    - by zahir hussain
    hi i want to know how to filter the value in object of array... i just display the below is one data of my object array Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am zahir [c] => google.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am zahir [c] => yahoo.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am beni [c] => google.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) . . . Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am sani [c] => yahoo.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) i have to filter the [c] value... thanks and advance

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  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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  • How to use the same element name for different purposes ( in XML and DTD ) ?

    - by BugKiller
    Hi, I Want to create a DTD schema for this xml document: <root> <student> <name> <firstname>S1</firstname> <lastname>S2</lastname> </name> </student> <course> <name>CS101</name> </course> </root> as you can see , the element name in the course contains plain text ,but the element name in the student is complex type ( first-name, last-name ). The following is the DTD: <!ELEMENT root (course|student)*> <!ELEMENT student (name)> <!ELEMENT name (lastname|firstname)> <!ELEMENT firstname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT lastname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT course (name)> When I want to validate it , I get an error because the course's name has different structure then the student's name . My Question: how can I make a work-around solution for this situation without changing the name of element name using DTD not xml schema . Thanks.

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  • NSDrawer delegate pointing to deallocated object?

    - by Isaac
    A user has sent in a crash report with the stack trace listed below (I have not been able to reproduce the crash myself, but every other crash this user has reported has been a valid bug, even when I couldn't reproduce the effect). The application is a reference-counted Objective-C/Cocoa app. If I am interpreting it correctly, the crash is caused by attempting to send a drawerDidOpen: message to a deallocated object. The only object that should be receiving drawerDidOpen: is the drawer's delegate object (nowhere does any object register to receive drawer notifications), and the drawer's delegate object is instantiated via the XIB/NIB file, wired to the delegate outlet of the drawer, and not referenced anywhere else. Given that, how can I protect against the delegate getting dealloc'd before the drawer notification? Or, alternately, what have I misinterpreted that might be causing the crash? Crash log/stack trace: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x0000000000000010 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: drawerDidOpen: Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff8272011c objc_msgSend + 40 1 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87d0786e _nsnote_callback + 167 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831bcaea __CFXNotificationPost + 954 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831a9098 _CFXNotificationPostNotification + 200 4 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87cfe7d8 -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] + 101 5 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff8512e944 _NSDrawerObserverCallBack + 840 6 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831d40d7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 519 7 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831af8c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 548 8 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8ada RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 333 9 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b883d ReceiveNextEventCommon + 148 10 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8798 BlockUntilNextEventMatchingListInMode + 59 11 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8a2a _DPSNextEvent + 708 12 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8379 -[NSApplication nextEventMatchingMask:untilDate:inMode:dequeue:] + 155 13 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84dae05b -[NSApplication run] + 395 14 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84da6d7c NSApplicationMain + 364 15 (my app's identifier) 0x0000000100001188 start + 52

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  • Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

    - by bert
    How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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  • ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

    - by Dominic Watson
    I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

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  • jQuery: Adding li element only if it not already there?

    - by Legend
    I am constructing an <li> element like this: var element = $("<li></li>") .html(mHTML) .attr('id', "elemid"); I am trying to add this element to a <ul> element only if it doesn't already exist. Any ideas on how to do this? Am I supposed to use contains() to see if the ul element contain the html and then decide? For instance, <ul id="elemul"> <li id="elemli1">Element 1</li> <li id="elemli2">Element 2</li> <li id="elemli3">Element 3</li> </ul> If I try adding Element 1, it should not add it. What should I do if its a longer string (not really long but about 150 characters). Do I go about using hashmaps?

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  • Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

    - by Andree
    Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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  • Core Data object into an NSDictionary with possible nil objects

    - by Chuck
    I have a core data object that has a bunch of optional values. I'm pushing a table view controller and passing it a reference to the object so I can display its contents in a table view. Because I want the table view displayed a specific way, I am storing the values from the core data object into an array of dictionaries then using the array to populate the table view. This works great, and I got editing and saving working properly. (i'm not using a fetched results controller because I don't have anything to sort on) The issue with my current code is that if one of the items in the object is missing, then I end up trying to put nil into the dictionary, which won't work. I'm looking for a clean way to handle this, I could do the following, but I can't help but feeling like there's a better way. *passedEntry is the core data object handed to the view controller when it is pushed, lets say it contains firstName, lastName, and age, all optional. if ([passedEntry firstName] != nil) { [dictionary setObject:[passedEntry firstName] forKey:@"firstName"] } else { [dictionary setObject:@"" forKey:@"firstName"] } And so on. This works, but it feels kludgy, especially if I end up adding more items to the core data object down the road.

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  • Moving Javascript object with all bounded events to other variable

    - by Saif Bechan
    Let's say I have an anchor tag, with some events. <a id="clickme" href="/endpoint">clickme</a> <a id="clickme2" href="/endpoint2">clickme2</a> Let's use jquery for simplicity: $('#clickme').on('click', function(){.....}) I also have a variable: var myActiveVar = $('#clickme'); When I want to remove the element an every trace of it I can do this: myActiveVar.off().remove(); Here comes the problem, I want to reuse the variable. Something like this: var oldAcriveVar = myActiveVar; myActiveVar = $('#clickme2'); // Now I want to do some operations // both of the elements are still on // the page, when I'm done: oldActiveVar.off().remove(); Comeplete code: var myActiveVar = $('#clickme'); // Operate on myActiveVar var oldAcriveVar = myActiveVar; myActiveVar = $('#clickme2'); // Operate on myActiveVar which is // the new element. // Old element stays visible oldActiveVar.off().remove(); // Old element and all traces are gone Edit: Maybe the above code will work, but my problem goes beyond. I just gave a simplified example. I am using Backbone events that are bounded to object. They need to be removed when I am done with the object.

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