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• Measuring "real" phone signal strength on a mobile phone

  - by Serafeim

  I want to programmatically measure the phone signal strength in a mobile phone. I don't actually care about the mobile phone or the programming environment: It can be based on android or windows mobile or even J2ME and can be from any manufacturer (please no iPhone). However, it needs to be a real, commercial mobile phone and not a special measurement device. This problem is not as easy as it seems with a first look. I am aware that there already exist a number of methods that claim to return the phone signal strength. Some of these are: SystemState.PhoneSignalStrength for WM6 RIL_GetCellTowerInfo for WinCe (dwRxLevel member of returned RILCELLTOWERINFO struct) android.telephony.NeighboringCellInfo.getRssi() for android The problem with the above is that they only return a few (under 10) discrete values, meaning that, for instance, the return values of SystemState.PhoneSignalStrength can only be translated to (for instance) -100 dbm, -90 dbm, -80 dbm, -70 dbm and -60 dbm, something that is not useful for my application, since I'd like to have as much precision as possible. It doesn't matter if there is an undocumented solution that only works on only one phone, if you can tell me a way I'd be grateful. Thanks in advance

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• Using android.view.SurfaceView with a camera on part of the screen

  - by oneself

  Hi, I trying to put together an Android app that will take a picture and process it in some way. I'd like the layout to be similar to Google Goggles. Meaning, camera preview on the top, and some controls on the bottom using portrait orientation. I've built a first version using code sample from here. This works, but I want to add a button on the bottom. I've modified my main.xml to look as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="150dp" android:stretchColumns="1"> <TableRow> <android.view.SurfaceView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/preview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> </TableRow> <Button android:id="@+id/snap" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Snap" /> <TableRow> </TableRow> </TableLayout> But when I run this code I get an exception: java.lang.RuntimeException: startPreview failed. When I replace the SurfaceView above with something else, e.g. a TextView, that it displays, but in landscape. How can I get a camera preview on part of the screen using portrait view? Thanks

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• How to do proper Unicode and ANSI output redirection on cmd.exe?

  - by Sorin Sbarnea

  If you are doing automation on windows and you are redirecting the output of different commands (internal cmd.exe or external, you'll discover that your log files contains combined Unicode and ANSI output (meaning that they are invalid and will not load well in viewers/editors). Is it is possible to make cmd.exe work with UTF-8? This question is not about display, s about stdin/stdout/stderr redirection and Unicode. I am looking for a solution that would allow you to: redirect the output of the internal commands to a file using UTF-8 redirect output of external commands supporting Unicode to the files but encoded as UTF-8. If it is impossible to obtain this kind of consistence using batch files, is there another way of solving this problem, like using python scripting for this? In this case, I would like to know if it is possible to do the Unicode detection alone (user using the scripting should not remember if the called tools will output Unicode or not, it will just expect to convert the output to UTF-8. For simplicity we'll assume that if the tool output is not-Unicode it will be considered as UTF-8 (no codepage conversion).

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• Conversion constructor vs. conversion operator: precedence

  - by GRB

  Reading some questions here on SO about conversion operators and constructors got me thinking about the interaction between them, namely when there is an 'ambiguous' call. Consider the following code: class A; class B { public: B(){} B(const A&) //conversion constructor { cout << "called B's conversion constructor" << endl; } }; class A { public: operator B() //conversion operator { cout << "called A's conversion operator" << endl; return B(); } }; int main() { B b = A(); //what should be called here? apparently, A::operator B() return 0; } The above code displays "called A's conversion operator", meaning that the conversion operator is called as opposed to the constructor. If you remove/comment out the operator B() code from A, the compiler will happily switch over to using the constructor instead (with no other changes to the code). My questions are: Since the compiler doesn't consider B b = A(); to be an ambiguous call, there must be some type of precedence at work here. Where exactly is this precedence established? (a reference/quote from the C++ standard would be appreciated) From an object-oriented philosophical standpoint, is this the way the code should behave? Who knows more about how an A object should become a B object, A or B? According to C++, the answer is A -- is there anything in object-oriented practice that suggests this should be the case? To me personally, it would make sense either way, so I'm interested to know how the choice was made. Thanks in advance

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• How do I use jquery validate remote validation on a field that depends on another field in the form?

  - by Kevin J

  I have a form in which I am using remote validation to check if an email address already exists in the database. However, the catch is that on this form, the user can select between several different "groups", and each group has its own distinct set of email addresses (thus the same email can exist once in each group). The group selection is a dropdown on the form, and the email address is an input field with remote validation. I have a couple issues. First, I have set up my remote rule like this: remote: { url: 'remote_script.php', data: { group_id: $('select.group_id').val() } } However, this seems to statically set the group_id parameter to whatever the first value in the select is. Meaning, if I change the select, then trigger the remote validation again, the group_id parameter does not change First, how can I make this parameter dynamic, depending on the value of a select in the form? Secondly, how do I manually trigger the remote validation on the email address field? When the group_id select is changed, I want to re-trigger the remote validation on the email address field (without changing the value of the field). I tried using $(selector).validate().element('.email_addr') But this appears to only trigger the standard validation (required, email), and not the remote call.

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• A list of Entity Framework providers for various databases

  - by Robert Koritnik

  Which providers are there and your experience using them I would like to know about all possible native .net Framework Entity Framework providers that are out there as well as their limitations compared to the default Linq2Entities (from MS for MS SQL). If there are more for the same database even better. Tell me and I'll be updating this post with this list. Feel free to add additional providers directly into this post or provide an answer and others (including me) will add it to the list. Entity Framework 1 Microsoft SQL Server Standard/Enterprise/Express Linq 2 Entities - Microsoft SQL Server connector DataDirect ADO.NET Data Providers Microsoft SQL Server CE (Compact Edition) Any provider? MySQL MySQL Connector (since version 6.0) - I've read about issues when using Skip(), Take() and Sort() in the same expression tree - everyone welcome to input their experience/knowledge regarding this. (NOTE: MySQL Connector/NET Visual Studio Integration is not supported in the Express Editions of Visual Studio, meaning you won't be able to view MySQL databases in the Database explorer window or add a MySQL data source via Visual Studio wizard dialog boxes. Some users may find that this limits their ability to use Entity Framework and MySQL within Visual Studio Express). Devart dotConnect for MySQL - similar issues to MySql's connector as I've read and both try to blame MS for it [these issues are supposed to be solved] SQLite Devart dotConnect for SQLite System.Data.SQLite PostgreSQL Devart dotConnect for PostgreSQL Npgsql Oracle Devart dotConnect for Oracle Sample Entity Framework Provider for Oracle - community effort project DataDirect ADO.NET Data Providers DB2 IBM Data Server Provider has EF support. Here are some limitations. DataDirect ADO.NET Data Providers Sybase Sybase iAnywhere DataDirect ADO.NET Data Providers Informix IBM Data Server Provider supports Informix Firebird ADO.NET Data Provider with EF support Provider Wrappers Tracing and Caching Providers for EF Entity Framework 4 (beta) Microsoft SQL Server Microsoft's Linq to Entities 4 - shipped with .net 4.0 and Visual Studio 2010; so far the only provider for EF4 MySQL Devart dotConnect for MySQL SQLite Devart dotConnect for SQLite PostgreSQL Devart dotConnect for PostgreSQL Oracle Devart dotConnect for Oracle

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• Personal projects competing with employers projects?

  - by jamesorwood123

  Recently at my place of employment it was discovered that I was developing an outside personal project (personal project being a project I have been working on, in my spare time, for my own purposes, using my personal equipment). My employer has an idea which is very similar to my outside project but has not been started, created, put out to market yet. When I originally started working for the company I signed a non-compete contract. My employer is now saying that because my outside/personal project is similar to theirs that I am now a competitor and breaching my original non-compete agreement. What I would like to know is where do I stand in this situation? Also my personal project has not been fully developed, nor is available to anyone other than myself. So if we both don’t have full/released products (full meaning put out to the public) are we actually competitors? There is going to be a meeting in the coming weeks to discuss this issue and would like to have a proper argument in place. I know some of this conversation is best held with a lawyer but I don’t have the money to do that yet. I’m not looking for full legal advice just anyone who has maybe experienced this or can give any advice. Thanks in advance!

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• NSDate dateFromString, how to parse 'around' UTC, GMT and User locale?

  - by RickiG

  Hi I parse some values from an xml file. There is a @"25-12-2010'T'23:40:00"string with the time and date and there is a string with the GMT offset like this @"+0200". So the above time is the 25. of December 23:40:00 in timeZone +0200 GMT. (or 21:40 UTC) I have lots of these dates with different GMT offsets. I have to display these dates as they are, i.e. They must not be changed to fit the locale of the user. So if time 1: is 22:45 +0500 then that is what I must show the user, even if the user is in a different timezone. I have all sorts of trouble with displaying, calculating and parsing these strings. If I use a dateFormatter and dateFromString the user specific GMT info will be included in the resulting NSDate meaning the above will be saved as 23:40:00 +0100 GMT because that is my phones setting and maybe 23:40:00 -0400 on a user from new New York's phone. When I subsequently do subtraction, addition and comparisons between these dates I have to keep the GMT offset around and everything gets worse if the phone switches locale settings, from when the date was parsed to when the date is displayed... Is there a way for me to extract this date from the string as UTC, then save it as an interval instead of an actual (timezone dependent) date. I know that is how dates are always saved internally. But I can't figure out how to do it with the separate GMT string and taking into account the users locale. Cheers

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• C# Thread Pool Cross-Thread Communication

  - by Goober

  The Scenario I have a windows forms application containing a MAINFORM with a listbox on it. The MAINFORM also has a THREAD POOL that creates new threads and fires them off to do lots of different bits of processing. Whilst each of these different worker threads is doing its job, I want to report this progress back to my MAINFORM, however, I can't because it requires Cross-Thread communication. Progress So far all of the tutorials etc. that I have seen relating to this topic involve custom(ish) threading implementations, whereas I literally have a fairly basic(ish) standard THREAD POOL implementation. Since I don't want to really modify any of my code (since the application runs like a beast with no quarms) - I'm after some advice as to how I can go about doing this cross-thread communication. ALTERNATIVELY - How to implement a different "LOGTOSCREEN" method altogether (obviously still bearing in mind the cross-thread communication thing). WARNING: I use this website at work, where we are locked down to IE6 only, and the javascript thus fails, meaning I cannot click accept on any answers during work, and thus my acceptance rate is low. I can't do anything about it I'm afraid, sorry. EDIT: I DO NOT HAVE INSTALL RIGHTS ON MY COMPUTER AT WORK. I do have firefox but the proxy at work fails when using this site on firefox. FURTHER EDIT: I DO NOT WANT TO CHANGE MY THREADING IMPLEMENTATION. AT ALL! - Accept to enable cross-thread communication....why would a backgroundworker help here!?

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• WPF: Textbox not firing onTextInput event

  - by Kay Ell

  So basically, I have a bunch of TextBoxes that the user gets to fill out. I've got a button that I want to keep disabled until all the TextBoxes have had text entered in them. Here is a sample XAML TextBox that I'm using: <TextBox Name="DelayedRecallScore" TextInput="CheckTextBoxFilled" Width="24" /> And here is the function that I'm trying to trigger: //Disables the OK button until all score textboxes have content private void CheckTextBoxFilled(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /* foreach (TextBox scorebox in TextBoxList) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(scorebox.Text)) { Ok_Button.IsEnabled = false; return; } } Ok_Button.IsEnabled = true; */ MessageBox.Show("THIS MAKES NO SENSE"); } The MessageBox is not showing up when TextInput should be getting triggered. As an experiment I tried triggering CheckTextBoxFilled() on PreviewTextInput, and it worked fine then, meaning that for whatever reason, the function just isn't getting called. I also have a validation function that is triggered by PreviewTextInput, which works as it should. At first I thought PreviewTextInput might somehow be interfering with TextInput, so I took PreviewTextInput off the TextBox, but that hasn't managed to fix anything. I'm completely befuddled by why this might happen, so any help would be appreciated.

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• Trying to connect to QuickBooks via Web Connect in asp.net

  - by ile

  I don't know if any of you have had experience with QuickBooks integration, but I have to try :) I downloaded QuickBooks Free Simple Start, Quickbooks Web Connector and Web Service sample code ... I've read Web Connector manual and followed instructions but, when using authenticate function, I always get error "nvu", meaning that username or password are not valid. Following instructions, I added this QWC file to QBWC: <?xml version="1.0"?> <QBWCXML> <AppName>My application</AppName> <AppID></AppID> <AppURL>http://localhost/QBWC/Service1.asmx</AppURL> <AppDescription>My application web service</AppDescription> <AppSupport>http://localhost/QBWC/Service1.asmx?wsdl</AppSupport> <OwnerID>{87EDAAF8-637E-4203-867F-4BA79C2F8998}</OwnerID> <FileID>{CA1C3EB8-1B61-4747-A743-8D5B438B83AC}</FileID> <UserName>test</UserName> <QBType>QBFS</QBType> <Style>Document</Style> <AuthFlags>0xF</AuthFlags> </QBWCXML> After adding this this file to QBWC, I also added password "1234". After that, I opened my web service: http://localhost/WCWebService/WCWebService.asmx?op=authenticate and in field "strUserName" entered "test", in field "strPassword" entered: "1234". But "nvu" is always returned as a result. If someone is familiar with this I would appreciate for help!

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• Is it possible to make a non-nullable column nullable when used in a view? (sql server)

  - by Matt

  Hi, To start off I have two tables, PersonNames and PersonNameVariations. When a name is searched, it finds the closest name to one of the ones available in PersonNames and records it in the PersonNameVariations table if it's not already in there. I am using a stored proc to search the PersonNames for a passed in PersonNameVariationand return the information on both the PersonName found and the PersonNameVariation that was compared to it. Since I am using the Entity Framework, I needed return a complex type in the Import Function but for some reason it says my current framework doesn't support it. My last option was to use an Entity to return in my stored proc instead. The result that I needed back is the information on both the PersonName that was found and the PersonNameVariation that was recorded. Since I cannot return both entities, I created a view PersonSearchVariationInfo and added it into my Entity Framework in order to use it as the entity to return. The problem is that the search will not always return a Person Name match. It needs to be able to return only the PersonNameVariation data in some cases, meaning that all the fields in the PersonSearchVariationInfo pertaining to PersonName need to be nullable. How can I take my view and make some of the fields nullable? When I do it directly in the Entity Framework I get a mapping error: Error 4 Error 3031: Problem in mapping fragments starting at line 1202:Non-nullable column myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo.DateAdded in table myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo is mapped to a nullable entity property. C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject.Domain\EntityFramework\MyProjectDBEntities.edmx 1203 15 MyProject.Domain Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Matt

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• LINQ-to-SQL: How can I prevent 'objects you are adding to the designer use a different data connecti

  - by Timothy Khouri

  I am using Visual Studio 2010, and I have a LINQ-to-SQL DBML file that my colleagues and I are using for this project. We have a connection string in the web.config file that the DBML is using. However, when I drag a new table from my "Server Explorer" onto the DBML file... I get presented with a dialog that demands that do one of these two options: Allow visual studio to change the connection string to match the one in my solution explorer. Cancel the operation (meaning, I don't get my table). I don't really care too much about the debate as why the PMs/devs who made this tool didn't allow a third option - "Create the object anyway - don't worry, I'm a developer!" What I am thinking would be a good solution is if I can create a connection in the Server Explorer - WITHOUT A WIZARD. If I can just paste a connection string, that would be awesome! Because then the DBML designer won't freak out on me :O) If anyone knows the answer to this question, or how to do the above, please lemme know!

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• Is VB Really Case Insensitive?

  - by Otaku

  I'm not trying to start an argument here, but for whatever reason it's typically stated that VB is case insensitive and C languages aren't (and somehow that is a good thing). But here's my question: Where exactly is VB case insensitive? When I type... Dim ss As String Dim SS As String ...into the VS2008 IDE the second one has a warning of "Local variable 'SS' is already declared in the current block". In VBA VBE, it doesn't immediately kick an error, but rather just auto-corrects the case. Am I missing something here with this argument that VB is not case sensitive? (Also, if you know or care to answer, why would that be a bad thing?) EDIT: Why am I even asking this question? I've used VB in many of it's dialects for years now, sometimes as a hobbyist, sometimes for small business-related programs in a workgroup. As of the last 6 months I've been working on a big project, much bigger than I anticipated. Much of the sample source code out there is in C#. I don't have any burning desire to learn C#, but if there are things I'm missing out on that C# offers that VB doesn't (an opposite would be VB.NET offers XML Literals), then I'd like to know more about that feature. So in this case, it's often argued that C languages are case sensitive and that's good and VB is case insensitive and that is bad. I'd like to know A) how exactly is VB case insensitive because every single example in the code editor becomes case sensititive (meaning case gets corrected) whether I want it or not and B) is this compelling enough for me to consider moving to C# if VB.NET case is somehow limiting what I could do with code?

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• Selected Item in Dropdown Lists from Enum in ASP.net MVC

  - by AlexCuse

  Sorry if this is a dup, my searching turned up nothing. I am using the following method to generate drop down lists for enum types (lifted from here: http://addinit.com/?q=node/54): public static string DropDownList(this HtmlHelper helper, string name, Type type, object selected) { if (!type.IsEnum) throw new ArgumentException("Type is not an enum."); if(selected != null && selected.GetType() != type) throw new ArgumentException("Selected object is not " + type.ToString()); var enums = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (int value in Enum.GetValues(type)) { var item = new SelectListItem(); item.Value = value.ToString(); item.Text = Enum.GetName(type, value); if(selected != null) item.Selected = (int)selected == value; enums.Add(item); } return System.Web.Mvc.Html.SelectExtensions.DropDownList(helper, name, enums, "--Select--"); } It is working fine, except for one thing. If I give the dropdown list the same name as the property on my model the selected value is not set properly. Meaning this works: <%= Html.DropDownList("fam", typeof(EnumFamily), Model.Family)%> But this doesn't: <%= Html.DropDownList("family", typeof(EnumFamily), Model.Family)%> Because I'm trying to pass an entire object directly to the controller method I am posting to, I would really like to have the dropdown list named for the property on the model. When using the "right" name, the dropdown does post correctly, I just can't seem to set the selected value. I don't think this matters but I am running MVC 1 on mono 2.6

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• How to write a streaming 'operator<<' that can take arbitary containers (of type 'X')?

  - by Drew Dormann

  I have a C++ class "X" which would have special meaning if a container of them were to be sent to a std::ostream. I originally implemented it specifically for std::vector<X>: std::ostream& operator << ( std::ostream &os, const std::vector<X> &c ) { // The specialized logic here expects c to be a "container" in simple // terms - only that c.begin() and c.end() return input iterators to X } If I wanted to support std::ostream << std::deque<X> or std::ostream << std::set<X> or any similar container type, the only solution I know of is to copy-paste the entire function and change only the function signature! Is there a way to generically code operator << ( std::ostream &, const Container & )? ("Container" here would be any type that satisfies the commented description above.)

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• split video (avi/h264) on keyframe

  - by m.sr

  Hallo. I have a big video file. ffmpeg, tcprobe and other tool say, it is an h264-stream in an AVI-container. Now i'd like to cut out small chunks form the video. Problem: The index of the video seam corrupted/destroyed. I kind of fixed this via mplayer -forceidx -saveidx <IndexFile> <BigVideoFile>. The Problem here is, that I'm now stuck with mplayer/mencoder which can use this index file via -loadidx <IndexFile>. I have tried correcting the index like described in man aviindex (mplayer -frames 0 -saveidx mpidx broken.avi ; aviindex -i mpidx -o tcindex ; avimerge -x tcindex -i broken.avi -o fixed.avi), but this didn't fix my video - meaning that most tools i've tested couldn't search in the video file. Problem: I sut out parts of the video via following command: mencoder -loadidx in.idx -ss 8578 -endpos 20 -oac faac -ovc x264 -sws 9 -lavfopts format=mp4 -x264encopts <LotsOfOpts> -of lavf -vf scale=800:-10,harddup in.avi -o out.mp4. Now here the problem is, that some videos are corrupted at the beginning. I think this is because the fact, that i do not necessarily cut at keyframe. Questions: What is the best way to fix the index of an avi "inline" so that every tool can again work as expected with it? How can i split at the keyframes? Is there an mencoder-option for this? Are Keyframes coming in a frequency? How to find out this frequency? (So with a bit of math it should be possible to calculate the next keyframe and cut there) Is ther perhaps some completely other way to split this movie? Doing it by hand is no option, i've to cut out 1000+ chunks ... Thanks a lot!

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• How do I eliminate Error 3002?

  - by Andrew

  Say I have the following table definitions in SQL Server 2008: CREATE TABLE Person (PersonId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, ManyMoreIrrelevantColumns VARCHAR(MAX) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE Model (ModelId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ModelName VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, Description VARCHAR(200) NULL) CREATE TABLE ModelScore (ModelId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Model (ModelId), Score INT NOT NULL, Definition VARCHAR(100) NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ModelId, Score)) CREATE TABLE PersonModelScore (PersonId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Person (PersonId), ModelId INT NOT NULL, Score INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (PersonId, ModelId), FOREIGN KEY (ModelId, Score) REFERENCES ModelScore (ModelId, Score)) The idea here is that each Person may have only one ModelScore per Model, but each Person may have a score for any number of defined Models. As far as I can tell, this SQL should enforce these constraints naturally. The ModelScore has a particular "meaning," which is contained in the Definition. Nothing earth-shattering there. Now, I try translating this into Entity Framework using the designer. After updating the model from the database and doing some editing, I have a Person object, a Model object, and a ModelScore object. PersonModelScore, being a join table, is not an object but rather is included as an association with some other name (let's say ModelScorePersonAssociation). The mapping details for the association are as follows: - Association - Maps to PersonModelScore - ModelScore ModelId : Int32 <=> ModelId : int Score : Int32 <=> Score : int - Person PersonId : Int32 <=> PersonId : int On the right-hand side, the ModelId and PersonId values have primary key symbols, but the Score value does not. Upon compilation, I get: Error 3002: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 5190: Potential runtime violation of table PersonModelScore's keys (PersonModelScore.ModelId, PersonModelScore.PersonId): Columns (PersonModelScore.PersonId, PersonModelScore.ModelId) are mapped to EntitySet ModelScorePersonAssociation's properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.Score, ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId). What have I done wrong in the designer or otherwise, and how can I fix the error? Many thanks!

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• weird result with c# winForms array of Lists

  - by jello

  so I'm trying to store values in an array of Lists in C# winForms. In the for loop in which I make the sql statment, everything works fine: the message box outputs a different medication name each time. for (int i = 0; i < numberOfMeds; i++) { queryStr = "select * from biological where medication_name = '" + med_names[i] + "' and patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStr)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStr, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { medObject.medication_date = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_bio"]; medObject.medication_name = rdr["medication_name"].ToString(); medObject.medication_dose = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["medication_dose"]); medsList[i].Add(medObject); } } conn.Close(); MedicationTimelineClass medObjectx = medsList[i][0] as MedicationTimelineClass; MessageBox.Show(medObjectx.medication_name); } } but then, when I take the message box code out of the loop, meaning that the array of Lists is supposed to be populated, I always get the same value: the last value entered. the same medication name, no matter what number I put between those brackets. It's like if the whole array of Lists is populated with the same data. for (int i = 0; i < numberOfMeds; i++) { queryStr = "select * from biological where medication_name = '" + med_names[i] + "' and patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStr)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStr, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { medObject.medication_date = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_bio"]; medObject.medication_name = rdr["medication_name"].ToString(); medObject.medication_dose = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["medication_dose"]); medsList[i].Add(medObject); } } conn.Close(); } } MedicationTimelineClass medObjectx = medsList[0][0] as MedicationTimelineClass; MessageBox.Show(medObjectx.medication_name); what's going on here?

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• Delegates in .NET: how are they constructed ?

  - by Saulius

  While inspecting delegates in C# and .NET in general, I noticed some interesting facts: Creating a delegate in C# creates a class derived from MulticastDelegate with a constructor: .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(object 'object', native int 'method') runtime managed { } Meaning that it expects the instance and a pointer to the method. Yet the syntax of constructing a delegate in C# suggests that it has a constructor new MyDelegate(int () target) where I can recognise int () as a function instance (int *target() would be a function pointer in C++). So obviously the C# compiler picks out the correct method from the method group defined by the function name and constructs the delegate. So the first question would be, where does the C# compiler (or Visual Studio, to be precise) pick this constructor signature from ? I did not notice any special attributes or something that would make a distinction. Is this some sort of compiler/visualstudio magic ? If not, is the T (args) target construction valid in C# ? I did not manage to get anything with it to compile, e.g.: int () target = MyMethod; is invalid, so is doing anything with MyMetod, e.g. calling .ToString() on it (well this does make some sense, since that is technically a method group, but I imagine it should be possible to explicitly pick out a method by casting, e.g. (int())MyFunction. So is all of this purely compiler magic ? Looking at the construction through reflector reveals yet another syntax: Func CS$1$0000 = new Func(null, (IntPtr) Foo); This is consistent with the disassembled constructor signature, yet this does not compile! One final interesting note is that the classes Delegate and MulticastDelegate have yet another sets of constructors: .method family hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(class System.Type target, string 'method') cil managed Where does the transition from an instance and method pointer to a type and a string method name occur ? Can this be explained by the runtime managed keywords in the custom delegate constructor signature, i.e. does the runtime do it's job here ?

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• boost bind callback function pointer as a parameter

  - by Takashi-kun

  I am trying to pass a function pointer using boost::bind. void Class::ThreadFunction(Type(*callbackFunc)(message_type::ptr&)) { } boost::shared_ptr<boost::thread> Class::Init(Type(*callbackFunc)(message_type::ptr&)) { return boost::shared_ptr<boost::thread> ( new boost::thread(boost::bind(&Class::ThreadFunction, callbackFunc)) ); } I get the following errors: 1>C:\dev\sapphire\boost_1_46_1\boost/bind/mem_fn.hpp(362) : warning C4180: qualifier applied to function type has no meaning; ignored 1>C:\dev\sapphire\boost_1_46_1\boost/bind/mem_fn.hpp(333) : error C2296: '->*' : illegal, left operand has type 'Type (__cdecl **)(message_type::ptr &)' However, I was able to change to the following, it works fine: void ThreadFunction(Type(*callbackFunc)(message_type::ptr&)) { } boost::shared_ptr<boost::thread> Class::Init(Type(*callbackFunc)(message_type::ptr&)) { return boost::shared_ptr<boost::thread> ( new boost::thread(boost::bind(&ThreadFunction, callbackFunc)) ); } Why do I get those errors if I declare the method in the Class class?

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• Binding Data to DataGridView in VB.Net

  - by Peter

  Hi, I have a bit of code which loads data from a stored procedure in MS SQL Server and then loads the data to a datagridview, which works fine. What i want is for the code that connects / loads the data to sit in my Database Class and then everything associated with the datagridview to be stored in my Form but i am having problems passing the contents of the bindingsource over to the Form from the Database Class. Form1 Public Class Form1 Dim myDatabaseObj As New Class1() Dim bindingSource1 As New BindingSource() Dim connectString As New SqlConnection Dim objDataAdapter As New SqlDataAdapter Dim table As New DataTable() Dim tabletest As New DataTable() Private Sub loadCompanyList() Try Me.dgv_CompanyList.DataSource = Me.bindingSource1 getCompanyList() Catch ex As NullReferenceException End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load loadCompanyList() End Sub End Class Database Class When i try place the getCompanyList() in a class and then create a new object that references the Form() it does not seem to return any value from the table to the MyForm.BindingSource1.Datasource meaning my datagridview displays not data. ..... Private Sub getCompanyList() Try Dim myForm as new Form() connect_Transaction_Database() objDataAdapter.SelectCommand = New SqlCommand() objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = connectString objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = "sp_GetCompanyList" objDataAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure Dim commandBuilder As New SqlCommandBuilder(Me.objDataAdapter) Dim table As New DataTable() table.Locale = System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture Me.objDataAdapter.Fill(table) **MyForm.bindingSource1.DataSource = table** Catch ex As DataException MsgBox(ex.Message) Catch ex As NullReferenceException MsgBox(ex.Message) End Try disconnect_Transaction_Database() End Sub If anyone could help. Thank you. Peter

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• Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

  - by slugolicious

  It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

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• How to change disclosure style when user enters in edit mode of a UITableView?

  - by R31n4ld0

  Hello, guys. I have a UITableView that in 'normal' mode, show a UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator meaning if the user taps the row, another list is showed, like HIG says: "Disclosure indicator. When this element is present, users know they can tap anywhere in the row to see the next level in the hierarchy or the choices associated with the list item. Use a disclosure indicator in a row when selecting the row results in the display of another list. Don’t use a disclosure indicator to reveal detailed information about the list item; instead, use a detail disclosure button for this purpose." When the user tap the edit button in the top bar of the UITableView, I think I have to change the disclosure because if the user tap it, a view for changing the information of the current row is showed (see the bold line above), again, like HIG says: "Detail disclosure button. Users tap this element to see detailed information about the list item. (Note that you can use this element in views other than table views, to reveal additional details about something; see “Detail Disclosure Buttons” for more information.) In a table view, use a detail disclosure button in a row to display details about the list item. Note that the detail disclosure button, unlike the disclosure indicator, can perform an action that is separate from the selection of the row. For example, in Phone Favorites, tapping the row initiates a call to the contact; tapping the detail disclosure button in the row reveals more information about the contact." Have I miss understood the HIG, or I really do have to change the disclosure style in edit mode of UITableView? If yes, how I can intercept the edit mode when the user taps the Edit button? Thanks in advance.

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• What is the best way to send structs containing enum values via sockets in C.

  - by Axel

  I've lots of different structs containing enum members that I have to transmit via TCP/IP. While the communication endpoints are on different operating systems (Windows XP and Linux) meaning different compilers (gcc 4.x.x and MSVC 2008) both program parts share the same header files with type declarations. For performance reasons, the structures should be transmitted directly (see code sample below) without expensively serializing or streaming the members inside. So the question is how to ensure that both compilers use the same internal memory representation for the enumeration members (i.e. both use 32-bit unsigned integers). Or if there is a better way to solve this problem... //type and enum declaration typedef enum { A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 } eParameter; typedef enum { READY = 400, RUNNING = 401, BLOCKED = 402 FINISHED = 403 } eState; #pragma pack(push,1) typedef struct { eParameter mParameter; eState mState; int32_t miSomeValue; uint8_t miAnotherValue; ... } tStateMessage; #pragma pack(pop) //... send via socket tStateMessage msg; send(iSocketFD,(void*)(&msg),sizeof(tStateMessage)); //... receive message on the other side tStateMessage msg_received; recv(iSocketFD,(void*)(&msg_received),sizeof(tStateMessage)); Additionally... Since both endpoints are little endian maschines, endianess is not a problem here. And the pack #pragma solves alignment issues satisfactorily. Thx for your answers, Axel

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