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  • Checking if an int is prime more efficiently

    - by SipSop
    I recently was part of a small java programming competition at my school. My partner and I have just finished our first pure oop class and most of the questions were out of our league so we settled on this one (and I am paraphrasing somewhat): "given an input integer n return the next int that is prime and its reverse is also prime for example if n = 18 your program should print 31" because 31 and 13 are both prime. Your .class file would then have a test case of all the possible numbers from 1-2,000,000,000 passed to it and it had to return the correct answer within 10 seconds to be considered valid. We found a solution but with larger test cases it would take longer than 10 seconds. I am fairly certain there is a way to move the range of looping from n,..2,000,000,000 down as the likely hood of needing to loop that far when n is a low number is small, but either way we broke the loop when a number is prime under both conditions is found. At first we were looping from 2,..n no matter how large it was then i remembered the rule about only looping to the square root of n. Any suggestions on how to make my program more efficient? I have had no classes dealing with complexity analysis of algorithms. Here is our attempt. public class P3 { public static void main(String[] args){ long loop = 2000000000; long n = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); for(long i = n; i<loop; i++) { String s = i +""; String r = ""; for(int j = s.length()-1; j>=0; j--) r = r + s.charAt(j); if(prime(i) && prime(Long.parseLong(r))) { System.out.println(i); break; } } System.out.println("#"); } public static boolean prime(long p){ for(int i = 2; i<(int)Math.sqrt(p); i++) { if(p%i==0) return false; } return true; } } ps sorry if i did the formatting for code wrong this is my first time posting here. Also the output had to have a '#' after each line thats what the line after the loop is about Thanks for any help you guys offer!!!

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  • jQuery AJAX Web service works only locally

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a simple ASP.NET Web Service [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { } [WebMethod] public string SetName(string name) { return "hello my dear friend " + name; } } For this Web Service I created Virtual Directory, so I can receive the access by taping http://localhost:89/Service.asmx. I try to call it via simple html page with jQuery. For this purpose I use function CallWS() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "{'name':'Pumba'}", dataType: "json", url: "http://localhost:89/Service.asmx/SetName", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (msg) { $('#DIVid').html(msg.d); }, error: function (e) { $('#DIVid').html("Error"); } }); The most interesting fact: If I create the html page in the project with my WebService and change url to Service.asmx/SetName everything works excellent. But if I try to call this webservice remotely - success function works but msg is null. After that I tried to call this service even via SOAP. It is the the same - locally it works excellent, but remotely - not at all. var ServiceUrl = 'http://localhost:89/Service.asmx?op=SetName'; function beginSetName(Name) { var soapMessage = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <SetName xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <name>' + Name + '</name> </SetName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; $.ajax({ url: ServiceUrl, type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: soapMessage, complete: endSetName, contentType: "text/xml; charset=\"utf-8\"" }); return false; } function endSetName(xmlHttpRequest, status) { $(xmlHttpRequest.responseXML) .find('SetNameResult') .each(function () { var name = $(this).text(); alert(name); }); } In this case status has value "parseerror". Could you please help me to resolve this problem? What should I do to call another WebService remotely by url via jQuery. Thank you in advance, Greg

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  • Sockets receiving null (Android)

    - by Henrik
    I have a android app that is communicating with a server (written in java). Between these two parts I have established a Socket connection and want to send data. The problem I am having is that sometimes, for some users, the information that reaches the server is null. This works (for all phones, all users): Server: int a = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int b = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int c = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int d = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); String checksum = in.readLine(); String model = in.readLine(); String device = in.readLine(); String name = in.readLine(); Client: out.println(a); out.println(b); out.println(c); out.println(d); out.println(hash); out.println(Build.MODEL); out.println(Build.DEVICE); String name = fixName(); out.print(name); out.flush(); This does not work (for some users): Server: int a = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); String checksum = in.readLine(); String model = in.readLine(); String device = in.readLine(); String name = in.readLine(); String msg = in.readLine(); int version = -1; String test = "hej"; try{ test = in.readLine(); version = Integer.parseInt(test); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Client: out.println(a); out.println(hash); out.println(Build.MODEL); out.println(Build.DEVICE); String name = fixName(); if(name == null) name = "John Doe"; out.println(name); String msg = fixMsg(); if(msg == null) name = "nada"; out.println(msg); out.println(curversion); out.flush(); Sometimes, in the second case, the name, msg, and version (the string test) are null at the server side. The catch is triggered because test is null. curversion,a are ints, the rest are strings. Any ideas?

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  • Retrieving/Updating Entity Framework POCO objects that already exist in the ObjectContext

    - by jslatts
    I have a project using Entity Framework 4.0 with POCOs (data is stored in SQL DB, lazyloading is enabled) as follows: public class ParentObject { public int ID {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } public class ChildObject { public int ID {get; set;} public int ChildRoleID {get; set;} public int ParentID {get; set;} public virtual ParentObject Parent {get; set;} public virtual ChildRoleObject ChildRole {get; set;} } public class ChildRoleObject { public int ID {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } I want to create a new ChildObject, assign it a role, then add it to an existing ParentObject. Afterwards, I want to send the new ChildObject to the caller. The code below works fine until it tries to get the object back from the database. The newChildObjectInstance only has the ChildRoleID set and does not contain a reference to the actual ChildRole object. I try and pull the new instance back out of the database in order to populate the ChildRole property. Unfortunately, in this case, instead of creating a new instance of ChildObject and assigning it to retreivedChildObject, EF finds the existing ChildObject in the context and returns the in-memory instance, with a null ChildRole property. public ChildObject CreateNewChild(int id, int roleID) { SomeObjectContext myRepository = new SomeObjectContext(); ParentObject parentObjectInstance = myRepository.GetParentObject(id); ChildObject newChildObjectInstance = new ChildObject() { ParentObject = parentObjectInstance, ParentID = parentObjectInstance.ID, ChildRoleID = roleID }; parentObjectInstance.children.Add(newChildObjectInstance); myRepository.Save(); ChildObject retreivedChildObject = myRepository.GetChildObject(newChildObjectInstance.ID); string assignedRoleName = retreivedChildObject.ChildRole.Name; //Throws exception, ChildRole is null return retreivedChildObject; } I have tried setting MergeOptions to Overwrite, calling ObjectContext.Refresh() and ObjectContext.DetectChanges() to no avail... I suspect this is related to the proxy objects that EF injects when working with POCOs. Has anyone run into this issue before? If so, what was the solution?

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • php MySQL snytax error

    - by Jacksta
    my scrip is supposed to look up contacts in a table and present thm on the screen to then be edited. however this is not this case. I am getting the error Parse error: syntax error, unexpected $end in /home/admin/domains/domain.com.au/public_html/pick_modcontact.php on line 50 NOTE: this is the last line in this script. <? session_start(); if ($_SESSION[valid] != "yes") { header( "Location: contact_menu.php"); exit; } $db_name = "testDB"; $table_name = "my_contacts"; $connection = @mysql_connect("localhost", "user", "pass") or die(mysql_error()); $db = @mysql_select_db($db_name, $connection) or die(mysql_error()); $sql = "SELECT id, f_name, l_name FROM $table_name ORDER BY f_name"; $result = @mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die(mysql_error()); $num = @mysql_num_rows($result); if ($num < 1) { $display_block = "<p><em>Sorry No Results!</em></p>"; } else { while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $id = $row['id']; $f_name = $row['f_name']; $l_name = $row['l_name']; $option_block .= "<option value\"$id\">$l_name, $f_name</option>"; } $display_block = "<form method=\"POST\" action=\"show_modcontact.php\"> <p><strong>Contact:</strong> <select name=\"id\">$option_block</select> <input type=\"submit\" name=\"submit\" value=\"Select This Contact\"></p> </form>"; ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Modify A Contact</title> </head> <body> <h1>My Contact Management System</h1> <h2><em>Modify a Contact</em></h2> <p>Select a contact from the list below, to modify the contact's record.</p> <? echo "$display_block"; ?> <br> <p><a href="contact_menu.php">Return to Main Menu</a></p> </body> </html>

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  • How to successfully implement og:image for the LinkedIn

    - by Sabo
    THE PROBLEM: I am trying, without much success, to implement open graph image on site: http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/ The homepage is completeply bypassing the og:image tag, where internal pages are reading all images from the site and place og:image as the last option. Other social networks are working fine on both internal pages and homepage. THE CONFIGURATION: I have no share buttons or alike, all I want is to be able to share the link via my profile. The image is well over 300x300px: http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png Here is how my head tag looks like: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Guarenty Group : Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé</title> <meta name="keywords" content="" /> <meta name="description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání." /> <meta name="image_src" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta name="image_url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:title" content="Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/cz/" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání [...]" /> ... </head> THE TESTING RESULTS: In order to trick the cache i have tested the site with http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/?try=N, where I have changed the N every time. The strange thing is that images found for different value of N is different. Sometimes there is no image, sometimes there is 1, 2 or 3 images, but each time there is a different set of images. But, in any case I could not find the image specified in the og:graph! MY QUESTIONS: https://developer.linkedin.com/documents/setting-display-tags-shares is saying one thing, and the personnel on the support forum is saying "over 300" Does anyone know What is the official minimum dimension of the image (both w and h)? Can an image be too large? Should I use the xmlns, should I not use xmlns or it doesn't matter? What are the maximum (and minimum) lengths for og:title and og:description tags? Any other suggestion is of course welcomed :) Thanks in advance, cheers~

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  • git filter-branch chmod

    - by Evan Purkhiser
    I accidental had my umask set incorrectly for the past few months and somehow didn't notice. One of my git repositories has many files marked as executable that should be just 644. This repo has one main master branch, and about 4 private feature branches (that I keep rebased on top of the master). I've corrected the files in my master branch by running find -type f -exec chmod 644 {} \; and committing the changes. I then rebased my feature branches onto master. The problem is there are newly created files in the feature branches that are only in that branch, so they weren't corrected by my massive chmod commit. I didn't want to create a new commit for each feature branch that does the same thing as the commit I made on master. So I decided it would be best to go back through to each commit where a file was made and set the permissions. This is what I tried: git filter-branch -f --tree-filter 'chmod 644 `git show --diff-filter=ACR --pretty="format:" --name-only $GIT_COMMIT`; git add .' master.. It looked like this worked, but upon further inspection I noticed that the every commit after a commit containing a new file with the proper permissions of 644 would actually revert the change with something like: diff --git a b old mode 100644 new mode 100755 I can't for the life of me figure out why this is happening. I think I must be mis-understanding how git filter-branch works. My Solution I've managed to fix my problem using this command: git filter-branch -f --tree-filter 'FILES="$FILES "`git show --diff-filter=ACMR --pretty="format:" --name-only $GIT_COMMIT`; chmod 644 $FILES; true' development.. I keep adding onto the FILES variable to ensure that in each commit any file created at some point has the proper mode. However, I'm still not sure I really understand why git tracks the file mode for each commit. I had though that since I had fixed the mode of the file when it was first created that it would stay that mode unless one of my other commits explicit changed it to something else. That did not appear to the be the case. The reason I thought that this would work is from my understanding of rebase. If I go back to HEAD~5 and change a line of code, that change is propagated through, it doesn't just get changed back in HEAD~4.

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  • Constructor versus setter injection

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm currently designing an API where I wish to allow configuration via a variety of methods. One method is via an XML configuration schema and another method is through an API that I wish to play nicely with Spring. My XML schema parsing code was previously hidden and therefore the only concern was for it to work but now I wish to build a public API and I'm quite concerned about best-practice. It seems that many favor javabean type PoJo's with default zero parameter constructors and then setter injection. The problem I am trying to tackle is that some setter methods implementations are dependent on other setter methods being called before them in sequence. I could write anal setters that will tolerate themselves being called in many orders but that will not solve the problem of a user forgetting to set the appropriate setter and therefore the bean being in an incomplete state. The only solution I can think of is to forget about the objects being 'beans' and enforce the required parameters via constructor injection. An example of this is in the default setting of the id of a component based on the id of the parent components. My Interface public interface IMyIdentityInterface { public String getId(); /* A null value should create a unique meaningful default */ public void setId(String id); public IMyIdentityInterface getParent(); public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent); } Base Implementation of interface: public abstract class MyIdentityBaseClass implements IMyIdentityInterface { private String _id; private IMyIdentityInterface _parent; public MyIdentityBaseClass () {} @Override public String getId() { return _id; } /** * If the id is null, then use the id of the parent component * appended with a lower-cased simple name of the current impl * class along with a counter suffix to enforce uniqueness */ @Override public void setId(String id) { if (id == null) { IMyIdentityInterface parent = getParent(); if (parent == null) { // this may be the top level component or it may be that // the user called setId() before setParent(..) } else { _id = Helpers.makeIdFromParent(parent,getClass()); } } else { _id = id; } } @Override public IMyIdentityInterface getParent() { return _parent; } @Override public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent) { _parent = parent; } } Every component in the framework will have a parent except for the top level component. Using the setter type of injection, then the setters will have different behavior based on the order of the calling of the setters. In this case, would you agree, that a constructor taking a reference to the parent is better and dropping the parent setter method from the interface entirely? Is it considered bad practice if I wish to be able to configure these components using an IoC container? Chris

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  • Issues with LINQ (to Entity) [adding records]

    - by Mario
    I am using LINQ to Entity in a project, where I pull a bunch of data (from the database) and organize it into a bunch of objects and save those to the database. I have not had problems writing to the db before using LINQ to Entity, but I have run into a snag with this particular one. Here's the error I get (this is the "InnerException", the exception itself is useless!): New transaction is not allowed because there are other threads running in the session. I have seen that before, when I was trying to save my changes inside a loop. In this case, the loop finishes, and it tries to make that call, only to give me the exception. Here's the current code: try { //finalResult is a list of the keys to match on for the records being pulled foreach (int i in finalResult) { var queryEff = (from eff in dbMRI.MemberEligibility where eff.Member_Key == i && eff.EffDate >= DateTime.Now select eff.EffDate).Min(); if (queryEff != null) { //Add a record to the Process table Process prRecord = new Process(); prRecord.GroupData = qa; prRecord.Member_Key = i; prRecord.ProcessDate = DateTime.Now; prRecord.RecordType = "F"; prRecord.UsernameMarkedBy = "Autocard"; prRecord.GroupsId = qa.GroupsID; prRecord.Quantity = 2; prRecord.EffectiveDate = queryEff; dbMRI.AddObject("Process", prRecord); } } dbMRI.SaveChanges(); //<-- Crashes here foreach (int i in finalResult) { var queryProc = from pro in dbMRI.Process where pro.Member_Key == i && pro.UsernameMarkedBy == "Autocard" select pro; foreach (var qp in queryProc) { Audit aud = new Audit(); aud.Member_Key = i; aud.ProcessId = qp.ProcessId; aud.MarkDate = DateTime.Now; aud.MarkedByUsername = "Autocard"; aud.GroupData = qa; dbMRI.AddObject("Audit", aud); } } dbMRI.SaveChanges(); //<-- AND here (if the first one is commented out) } catch (Exception e) { //Do Something here } Basically, I need it to insert a record, get the identity for that inserted record and insert a record into another table with the identity from the first record. Given some other constraints, it is not possible to create a FK relationship between the two (I've tried, but some other parts of the app won't allow it, AND my DBA team for whatever reason hates FK's, but that's for a different topic :)) Any ideas what might be causing this? Thank!

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  • JavaCC: How can one exclude a string from a token? (A.k.a. understanding token ambiguity.)

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I had already many problems with understanding, how ambiguous tokens can be handled elegantly (or somehow at all) in JavaCC. Let's take this example: I want to parse XML processing instruction. The format is: "<?" <target> <data> "?>": target is an XML name, data can be anything except ?>, because it's the closing tag. So, lets define this in JavaCC: (I use lexical states, in this case DEFAULT and PROC_INST) TOKEN : <#NAME : (very-long-definition-from-xml-1.1-goes-here) > TOKEN : <WSS : (" " | "\t")+ > // WSS = whitespaces <DEFAULT> TOKEN : {<PI_START : "<?" > : PROC_INST} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_TARGET : <NAME> >} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_DATA : ~[] >} // accept everything <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_END : "?>" > : DEFAULT} Now the part which recognizes processing instructions: void PROC_INSTR() : {} { ( <PI_START> (t=<PI_TARGET>){System.out.println("target: " + t.image);} <WSS> (t=<PI_DATA>){System.out.println("data: " + t.image);} <PI_END> ) {} } Let's test it with <?mytarget here-goes-some-data?>: The target is recognized: "target: mytarget". But now I get my favorite JavaCC parsing error: !! procinstparser.ParseException: Encountered "" at line 1, column 15. !! Was expecting one of: !! Encountered nothing? Was expecting nothing? Or what? Thank you, JavaCC! I know, that I could use the MORE keyword of JavaCC, but this would give me the whole processing instruction as one token, so I'd had to parse/tokenize it further by myself. Why should I do that? Am I writing a parser that does not parse? The problem is (i guess): hence <PI_DATA> recognizes "everything", my definition is wrong. I should tell JavaCC to recognize "everything except ?>" as processing instruction data. But how can it be done? NOTE: I can only exclude single characters using ~["a"|"b"|"c"], I can't exclude strings such as ~["abc"] or ~["?>"]. Another great anti-feature of JavaCC. Thank you.

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  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

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  • Web Services Primer for a WinForms Developer?

    - by Unicorns
    I've been writing client/server applications with Winforms for about six years now, but I have yet to venture into the web space (neither ASP.NET nor web services). Given the direction that the job market has been heading for some time and the fact that I have a basic curiosity, I'd like to get involved with writing web services, but I don't know where to start. I've read about various options (XML/SOAP vs. JSON, REST vs...well, actually I don't know what it's called, etc.), but I'm not sure what sort of criteria are in play when making the determination to use one or the other. Obviously, I'd like to leverage the tools that I have (Visual Studio, the .NET framework, etc.) without hamstringing myself into only targeting a particular audience (i.e. writing the service in such a way as to make it difficult to consume from a Windows Mobile/Android/iPhone client, for example). For the record, my plan--for now--is to use WCF for my web service development, but I'm open to using another .NET approach if that's advisable. I realize that this question is pretty open-ended so it may get closed, but here are some things I'm wondering: What are some things to consider when choosing the type of web service (REST, etc.) I intend to write? Is it possible (and, if so, feasible) to move from one approach to another? Can web services be written in an event-driven way? As I said I'm a Winforms developer, so I'm used to objects raising events for me to react to. For instance, if I have two clients connected to my service, is there a way for me to "push" information to one of them as a result of an action by the other? If this is possible, is this advisable or am I just not thinking about it correctly? What authentication mechanisms seem to work best for public-facing services? What about if I plan to have different types of OS'es and clients connecting to the service? Is there a generally accepted platform-agnostic approach? In the line of authentication, is this something that I should be doing myself (authenticating an managing sessions, etc.) or is this something should be handled at the framework level and I just define exactly how it should work? If that's the case, how do I tell who the requester has authenticated themselves as? I started writing an authentication mechanism (simple username/password combinations stored in the database and a corresponding session table with a GUID key) within my service and just requiring that key to be passed with every operation (other than logging in, of course), but I want to make sure that I'm not reinventing the wheel here. However, I also don't want to clutter up the server with a bunch of machine user accounts just to use Basic authentication. I'm also under the impression that Digest (and of course Windows) authentication requires a machine (or AD) user account.

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  • C++0x Overload on reference, versus sole pass-by-value + std::move?

    - by dean
    It seems the main advice concerning C++0x's rvalues is to add move constructors and move operators to your classes, until compilers default-implement them. But waiting is a losing strategy if you use VC10, because automatic generation probably won't be here until VC10 SP1, or in worst case, VC11. Likely, the wait for this will be measured in years. Here lies my problem. Writing all this duplicate code is not fun. And it's unpleasant to look at. But this is a burden well received, for those classes deemed slow. Not so for the hundreds, if not thousands, of smaller classes. ::sighs:: C++0x was supposed to let me write less code, not more! And then I had a thought. Shared by many, I would guess. Why not just pass everything by value? Won't std::move + copy elision make this nearly optimal? Example 1 - Typical Pre-0x constructor OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // single copy OurClass(SomeClass()); // single copy Cons: A wasted copy for rvalues. Example 2 - Recommended C++0x? OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass&& obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, one move OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: Presumably the fastest. Cons: Lots of code! Example 3 - Pass-by-value + std::move OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy, one move OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, two moves OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: No additional code. Cons: A wasted move in cases 1 & 2. Performance will suffer greatly if SomeClass has no move constructor. What do you think? Is this correct? Is the incurred move a generally acceptable loss when compared to the benefit of code reduction?

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  • How to troubleshoot a Highcharts script that's not rendering data when date is added and hanging the JS engine with large datasets?

    - by ylluminate
    I have a Highchart JS graph that I'm building in Rails (although I don't think Ruby has real bearing on this problem unless it's the Date output format) to which I'm adding the timestamp of each datapoint. Presently the array of floats is rendering fine without timestamps, however when I add the timestamp to the series it fails to rend. What's worse is that when the series has hundreds of entries all sorts of problems arise, not the least of which is the browser entirely hanging and requiring a force quit / kill. I'm using the following to build the array of arrays data series: series1 = readings.map{|row| [(row.date.to_i * 1000), (row.data1.to_f if BigDecimal(row.data1) != BigDecimal("-1000.0"))] } This yields a result like this: series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-09],[1326262920000,1.29e-09],[1326262860000,1.22e-09],[1326262800000,1.42e-09],[1326262740000,1.29e-09],[1326262680000,1.34e-09],[1326262620000,1.31e-09],[1326262560000,1.51e-09],[1326262500000,1.24e-09],[1326262440000,1.7e-09],[1326262380000,1.24e-09],[1326262320000,1.29e-09],[1326262260000,1.53e-09],[1326262200000,1.23e-09],[1326262140000,1.21e-09]],"color":"blue"}] Yet nothing appears on the graph as noted. Notwithstanding, when I compare the data series in one of their very similar examples here: http://www.highcharts.com/demo/spline-irregular-time It appears that really the data series are formatted identically (except in mine I use the timestamp vs date method). This leads me to think I've got a problem with the timestamp output, but I'm just not able to figure out where / how as I'm converting the date output to an integer multipled by 1000 to convert it to milliseconds as per explained in a similar Railscasts tutorial. I would very much appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction here as to what I may be doing wrong. What could cause no data to appear on the graph in smaller sized sets (<100 points) and when into the hundreds causes an apparent hang in the javascript engine in this case? Perhaps ultimately the key lies here as this is the entire js that's being generated and not rendering: jQuery(function() { // 1. Define JSON options var options = { chart: {"defaultSeriesType":"spline","renderTo":"chart_name"}, title: {"text":"Title"}, legend: {"layout":"vertical","style":{}}, xAxis: {"title":{"text":"UTC Time"},"type":"datetime"}, yAxis: [{"title":{"text":"Left Title","margin":10}},{"title":{"text":"Right Groups Title"},"opposite":true}], tooltip: {"enabled":true}, credits: {"enabled":false}, plotOptions: {"areaspline":{}}, series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-08],[1326262920000,1.69e-08],[1326262860000,1.62e-08],[1326262800000,1.42e-08],[1326262740000,1.29e-08],[1326262680000,1.34e-08],[1326262620000,1.31e-08],[1326262560000,1.51e-08],[1326262500000,1.64e-08],[1326262440000,1.7e-08],[1326262380000,1.64e-08],[1326262320000,1.69e-08],[1326262260000,1.53e-08],[1326262200000,1.23e-08],[1326262140000,1.21e-08]],"color":"blue"},{"name":"Data 2","data":[[1326262980000,9.79e-09],[1326262920000,9.78e-09],[1326262860000,9.8e-09],[1326262800000,9.82e-09],[1326262740000,9.88e-09],[1326262680000,9.89e-09],[1326262620000,1.3e-06],[1326262560000,1.32e-06],[1326262500000,1.33e-06],[1326262440000,1.33e-06],[1326262380000,1.34e-06],[1326262320000,1.33e-06],[1326262260000,1.32e-06],[1326262200000,1.32e-06],[1326262140000,1.32e-06]],"color":"red"}], subtitle: {} }; // 2. Add callbacks (non-JSON compliant) // 3. Build the chart var chart = new Highcharts.StockChart(options); });

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  • how to include in web.config an external mydll.config file and read its values?

    - by firepol
    Hi, I found this answer about external configuration files. I'm trying to do a similar thing. I have a small webapplication called StatsGen I want to include in other projects, and for convenience I'd like to have the settings inside the bin folder, in a config file with an appropriate name, in my case: StatsGen.config. So I've put these line in the web.config (as explained in the answer I mentioned above): <configSections> <section name="StatsGenSettings" restartOnExternalChanges="true" type="System.Configuration.NameValueFileSectionHandler" /> <!--sectionGroups--> </configSections> <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> <!--and here comes the rest... appSettings etc.--> Inside the bin folder, I created a StatsGen.xml file, then renamed it to StatsGen.config. It looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <StatsGenSettings> <add key="Password" value="myStatsPass" /> <add key="ConnectionString" value="Server=mydbsrv;Database=myDB;User ID=myUser;Password=myPass" /> </StatsGenSettings> I created an Helper class, as suggested in the answer. In the Page_Load of my default.aspx.cs file, I've put: goodPassword = StatsGenSettings.Instance["Password"]; When I load my page, I get this error: The type initializer for 'StatsGen.Helpers.StatsGenSettings' threw an exception. I've tried to exlude the helper and just to get access to the key, like this: NameValueCollection _settings = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("StatsGenSettings") as NameValueCollection; And I get this error: Unable to open configSource file 'StatsGen.config'. (C:\Users\pbo\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\StatsGen\StatsGen\web.config line 21) At line 21 I just have this, as explained above: <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> So now I'm wondering, what's wrong? Some detailed help would be cool... like: where exactly should I declare the StatsGenSettings element inside the web.config? It was not specified in the answer I've found... or what else am I doing wrong? Thanks for letting me know...

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  • Autocomplete server-side implementation

    - by toluju
    What is a fast and efficient way to implement the server-side component for an autocomplete feature in an html input box? I am writing a service to autocomplete user queries in our web interface's main search box, and the completions are displayed in an ajax-powered dropdown. The data we are running queries against is simply a large table of concepts our system knows about, which matches roughly with the set of wikipedia page titles. For this service obviously speed is of utmost importance, as responsiveness of the web page is important to the user experience. The current implementation simply loads all concepts into memory in a sorted set, and performs a simple log(n) lookup on a user keystroke. The tailset is then used to provide additional matches beyond the closest match. The problem with this solution is that it does not scale. It currently is running up against the VM heap space limit (I've set -Xmx2g, which is about the most we can push on our 32 bit machines), and this prevents us from expanding our concept table or adding more functionality. Switching to 64-bit VMs on machines with more memory isn't an immediate option. I've been hesitant to start working on a disk-based solution as I am concerned that disk seek time will kill performance. Are there possible solutions that will let me scale better, either entirely in memory or with some fast disk-backed implementations? Edits: @Gandalf: For our use case it is important the the autocompletion is comprehensive and isn't just extra help for the user. As for what we are completing, it is a list of concept-type pairs. For example, possible entries are [("Microsoft", "Software Company"), ("Jeff Atwood", "Programmer"), ("StackOverflow.com", "Website")]. We are using Lucene for the full search once a user selects an item from the autocomplete list, but I am not yet sure Lucene would work well for the autocomplete itself. @Glen: No databases are being used here. When I'm talking about a table I just mean the structured representation of my data. @Jason Day: My original implementation to this problem was to use a Trie, but the memory bloat with that was actually worse than the sorted set due to needing a large number of object references. I'll read on the ternary search trees to see if it could be of use.

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  • php pdo connection scope

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a connection class I found for pdo. I am calling the connection method on the page that the file is included on. The problem is that within functions the $conn variable is not defined even though I stated the method was public (bare with me I am very new to OOP), and I was wondering if anyone had an elegant solution other then using global in every function. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. CONNECTION class PDOConnectionFactory{ // receives the connection public $con = null; // swich database? public $dbType = "mysql"; // connection parameters // when it will not be necessary leaves blank only with the double quotations marks "" public $host = "localhost"; public $user = "user"; public $senha = "password"; public $db = "database"; // arrow the persistence of the connection public $persistent = false; // new PDOConnectionFactory( true ) <--- persistent connection // new PDOConnectionFactory() <--- no persistent connection public function PDOConnectionFactory( $persistent=false ){ // it verifies the persistence of the connection if( $persistent != false){ $this->persistent = true; } } public function getConnection(){ try{ // it carries through the connection $this->con = new PDO($this->dbType.":host=".$this->host.";dbname=".$this->db, $this->user, $this->senha, array( PDO::ATTR_PERSISTENT => $this->persistent ) ); // carried through successfully, it returns connected return $this->con; // in case that an error occurs, it returns the error; }catch ( PDOException $ex ){ echo "We are currently experiencing technical difficulties. We have a bunch of monkies working really hard to fix the problem. Check back soon: ".$ex->getMessage(); } } // close connection public function Close(){ if( $this->con != null ) $this->con = null; } } PAGE USED ON include("includes/connection.php"); $db = new PDOConnectionFactory(); $conn = $db->getConnection(); function test(){ try{ $sql = 'SELECT * FROM topic'; $stmt = $conn->prepare($sql); $result=$stmt->execute(); } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } } test();

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  • mulformed Farsi characters on AWT

    - by jlover2010
    Hi As i started programming by jdk6, i had no problem in text components neither in awt nor in swing. But for labels or titles of awt components, yes : I couldn't have Farsi characters displayable on AWTs just as simple as Swing by typing them into the source code. lets check this SSCCE : import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; import java.io.*; import java.util.Properties; public class EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT extends JFrame{ public EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT() { super("????"); setDefaultCloseOperation(3); setVisible(rootPaneCheckingEnabled); } public static void main(String[] args) throws AWTException, IOException { JFrame jFrame = new EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT(); MenuItem show ; // approach 1 = HardCoding : /* show = new MenuItem("\u0646\u0645\u0627\u06cc\u0634"); * */ // approach 2 = using simple utf-8 saved text file : /* BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("farsiLabels.txt")); String showLabel = in.readLine(); in.close(); show = new MenuItem(showLabel); * */ // approach 3 = using properties file : FileReader in = new FileReader("farsiLabels.properties"); Properties farsiLabels = new Properties(); farsiLabels.load(in); show = new MenuItem(farsiLabels.getProperty("tray.show")); PopupMenu popUp = new PopupMenu(); popUp.add(show); // creating Tray object Image iconIamge = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().getImage("greenIcon.png"); TrayIcon trayIcon = new TrayIcon(iconIamge, null, popUp); SystemTray tray = SystemTray.getSystemTray(); tray.add(trayIcon); jFrame.setIconImage(iconIamge); } } Yes, i know each of three approaches in source code does right when you may test it from IDE , but if you make a JAR contains just this class (and its resources) by means of NetBeans project clean&build ,you won't see the expected characters and will just get EMPTY/BLANK SQUARES ! Unfortunately, opposed to other situations i encountered before, here there is no way to avoid using awt and make use of Swing in this case. And this was just an SSCCE i made to show the problem and my recent (also first) application suffers from this subject. And i think should have to let you know I posted this question a while ago in SDN and "the Java Ranch" forums and other native forums and still I'm watching... By the way i am using latest version of Netbeans IDE... I will be so grateful if anybody has a solution to this damn AWT components never rendered any Farsi character for me... Thanks in advance

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  • What Amazon S3 .NET Library is most useful and efficient?

    - by Geo
    There are two main open source .net Amazon S3 libraries. Three Sharp LitS3 I am currently using LitS3 in our MVC demo project, but there is some criticism about it. Has anyone here used both libraries so they can give an objective point of view. Below some sample calls using LitS3: On demo controller: private S3Service s3 = new S3Service() { AccessKeyID = "Thekey", SecretAccessKey = "testing" }; public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; return View("Index",s3.GetAllBuckets()); } On demo view: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <p> <%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </p> <% } %> EDIT 1: Since I have to keep moving and there is no clear indication of what library is more effective and kept more up to date, I have implemented a repository pattern with an interface that will allow me to change library if I need to in the future. Below is a section of the S3Repository that I have created and will let me change libraries in case I need to: using LitS3; namespace S3Helper.Models { public class S3Repository : IS3Repository { private S3Service _repository; #region IS3Repository Members public IQueryable<Bucket> FindAllBuckets() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets().AsQueryable(); } public IQueryable<ListEntry> FindAllObjects(string BucketName) { return _repository.ListAllObjects(BucketName).AsQueryable(); } #endregion If you have any information about this question please let me know in a comment, and I will get back and edit the question. EDIT 2: Since this question is not getting attention, I integrated both libraries in my web app to see the differences in design, I know this is probably a waist of time, but I really want a good long run solution. Below you will see two samples of the same action with the two libraries, maybe this will motivate some of you to let me know your thoughts. WITH THREE SHARP LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { List<string> list = new List<string>(); using (BucketListRequest request = new BucketListRequest(null)) using (BucketListResponse response = service.BucketList(request)) { XmlDocument bucketXml = response.StreamResponseToXmlDocument(); XmlNodeList buckets = bucketXml.SelectNodes("//*[local-name()='Name']"); foreach (XmlNode bucket in buckets) { list.Add(bucket.InnerXml); } } return list.Cast<T>().AsQueryable(); } WITH LITS3 LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets() .Cast<T>() .AsQueryable(); }

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 AJAX dilemma: Lose Models concept or create unmanageable JavaScript

    - by Slightly Frustrated
    Hi, Ok, let's assume we are working with ASP.NET MVC 2 (latest and greatest preview) and we want to create AJAX user interface with jQuery. So what are our real options here? Option 1 - Pass Json from the Controller to the view, and then the view submits Json back to the controller. This means (in the order given): User opens some View (let's say - /Invoices/January) which has to visualize a list of data (e.g. <IEnumerable<X.Y.Z.Models.Invoice>>) Controller retrieves the Model from the repository (assuming we are using repository pattern). Controller creates a new instance of a class which we will serialize to Json. The reasaon we do this, is because the model may not be serializable (circular reference ftl) Controller populates the soon-to-be-serialized class with data Controller serializes the class to Json and passes it the view. User does some change and submits the 'form' The View submits back Json to the controller The Controller now must 'manually' validate the input, because the Json passed does not bind to a Model See, if our View is communicating to the controller via Json, we lose the Model validation, which IMHO is incredible disadvantage. In this case, forget about data annotations and stuff. Option 2 - Ok, the alternative of the first approach is to pass the Models to the Views, which is the default behavior in the template when you start a new project. We pass a strong typed model to the view The view renders the appropriate html and javascript, sticking to the model property names. This is important! The user submits the form. If we stick to the model names, when we .serialize() the form and submit it to the controller it will map to a model. There is no Json mapping. The submitted form directly binds to a strongly typed model, hence, we can use the model validation. E.g. we keep the business logic where it should be. Problem with this approach is, if we refactor some of the Models (change property names, types, etc), the javascript we wrote would become invalid. We will have to manually refactor the scripting and hope we don't miss something. There is no way you can test it either. Ok, the question is - how to write an AJAX front end, which keeps the business logic validation in the model (e.g. controller passes and receives a Model type), but in the same time doesn't screw up the javascript and html when we refactor the model?

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  • Generate a list of file names based on month and year arithmetic

    - by MacUsers
    How can I list the numbers 01 to 12 (one for each of the 12 months) in such a way so that the current month always comes last where the oldest one is first. In other words, if the number is grater than the current month, it's from the previous year. e.g. 02 is Feb, 2011 (the current month right now), 03 is March, 2010 and 09 is Sep, 2010 but 01 is Jan, 2011. In this case, I'd like to have [09, 03, 01, 02]. This is what I'm doing to determine the year: for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) I don't have a clue what to do next. What should I do here? Update: I think, I better upload the entire script for better understanding. #!/usr/bin/env python import os, sys from time import strftime from calendar import month_abbr vGroup = {} vo = "group_lhcb" SI00_fig = float(2.478) months = tuple(month_abbr) print "\n%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('VOs','CPU-time','CPU-time','kSI2K-hrs') print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('','(in Sec)','(in Hrs)','(*2.478)') print "=" * 58 for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): readFile = open(inFile, 'r') lines = readFile.readlines() readFile.close() month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) for line in lines[2:]: if line.find(vo)==0: g, i = line.split() s = vGroup.get(g, 0) vGroup[g] = s + int(i) sumHrs = ((vGroup[g]/60)/60) sumSi2k = sumHrs*SI00_fig print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10.2f" % (mnYear,vGroup[g],sumHrs,sumSi2k) del vGroup[g] When I run the script, I get this: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ================================================== Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 As I said in the original post, I like the result to be in this order instead: Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 The files in the source directory reads like this: [root@serv07 usage]# ls -l total 3632 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144972 Feb 9 19:23 01 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 556630 Feb 13 09:11 02 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 443782 Feb 11 17:23 02.bak -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144556 Feb 14 09:30 09 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 370822 Feb 9 19:24 12 Did I give a better picture now? Sorry for not being very clear in the first place. Cheers!! Update @Mark Ransom This is the result from Mark's suggestion: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ========================================================== Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 As I said before, I'm looking for the result to b printed in this order: Sep, 2010 - Dec, 2010 - Jan, 2011 - Feb, 2011 Cheers!!

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  • What is the difference between NULL in C++ and null in Java?

    - by Stephano
    I've been trying to figure out why C++ is making me crazy typing NULL. Suddenly it hits me the other day; I've been typing null (lower case) in Java for years. Now suddenly I'm programming in C++ and that little chunk of muscle memory is making me crazy. Wikiperipatetic defines C++ NULL as part of the stddef: A macro that expands to a null pointer constant. It may be defined as ((void*)0), 0 or 0L depending on the compiler and the language. Sun's docs tells me this about Java's "null literal": The null type has one value, the null reference, represented by the literal null, which is formed from ASCII characters. A null literal is always of the null type. So this is all very nice. I know what a null pointer reference is, and thank you for the compiler notes. Now I'm a little fuzzy on the idea of a literal in Java so I read on... A literal is the source code representation of a fixed value; literals are represented directly in your code without requiring computation. There's also a special null literal that can be used as a value for any reference type. null may be assigned to any variable, except variables of primitive types. There's little you can do with a null value beyond testing for its presence. Therefore, null is often used in programs as a marker to indicate that some object is unavailable. Ok, so I think I get it now. In C++ NULL is a macro that, when compiled, defines the null pointer constant. In Java, null is a fixed value that any non-primitive can be assigned too; great for testing in a handy if statement. Java does not have pointers, so I can see why they kept null a simple value rather than anything fancy. But why did java decide to change the all caps NULL to null? Furthermore, am I missing anything here?

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  • Ninject with Object Initializers and LINQ

    - by Alexander Kahoun
    I'm new to Ninject so what I'm trying may not even be possible but I wanted to ask. I free-handed the below so there may be typos. Let's say I have an interface: public interface IPerson { string FirstName { get; set; } string LastName { get; set;} string GetFullName(); } And a concrete: public class Person : IPerson { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string GetFullName() { return String.Concat(FirstName, " ", LastName); } } What I'm used to doing is something like this when I'm retrieving data from arrays or xml: public IEnumerable<IPerson> GetPeople(string xml) { XElement persons = XElement.Parse(xml); IEnumerable<IPerson> people = ( from person in persons.Descendants("person") select new Person { FirstName = person.Attribute("FName").Value, LastName = person.Attribute("LName").Value }).ToList(); return people; } I don't want to tightly couple the concrete to the interface in this manner. I haven't been able to find any information in regards to using Ninject with LINQ to Objects or with object initializers. I may be looking in the wrong places, but I've been searching for a day now with no luck at all. I was contemplating putting the kernel into an singleton instance and seeing if that would work, but I'm not sure that it will plus I've heard that passing your kernel around is a bad thing. I'm trying to implement this in a class library currently. If this is not possible, does anyone have any examples or suggestions as to what the best practice is in this case? Thanks in advance for the help. EDIT: Based on some of the answers I feel I should clarify. Yes, the example above appears short lived but it was simply an example of one piece that I was trying to do. Let's give a bigger picture. Say instead of XML I am gathering all my data through a 3rd party web service and I'm creating an interface for it, the data could be a defined object in the wsdl or it could sometimes be an xml string. IPerson could be used for both the Person object and a User object. I will be doing this inside of a separate class library, because it needs to be portable and will be used in other projects, and handing it to an MVC3 Web Application and the objects will be used in javascript as well. I appreciate all the input so far.

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  • ArithmeticException thrown during BigDecimal.divide

    - by polygenelubricants
    I thought java.math.BigDecimal is supposed to be The Answer™ to the need of performing infinite precision arithmetic with decimal numbers. Consider the following snippet: import java.math.BigDecimal; //... final BigDecimal one = BigDecimal.ONE; final BigDecimal three = BigDecimal.valueOf(3); final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three); assert third.multiply(three).equals(one); // this should pass, right? I expect the assert to pass, but in fact the execution doesn't even get there: one.divide(three) causes ArithmeticException to be thrown! Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArithmeticException: Non-terminating decimal expansion; no exact representable decimal result. at java.math.BigDecimal.divide It turns out that this behavior is explicitly documented in the API: In the case of divide, the exact quotient could have an infinitely long decimal expansion; for example, 1 divided by 3. If the quotient has a non-terminating decimal expansion and the operation is specified to return an exact result, an ArithmeticException is thrown. Otherwise, the exact result of the division is returned, as done for other operations. Browsing around the API further, one finds that in fact there are various overloads of divide that performs inexact division, i.e.: final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three, 33, RoundingMode.DOWN); System.out.println(three.multiply(third)); // prints "0.999999999999999999999999999999999" Of course, the obvious question now is "What's the point???". I thought BigDecimal is the solution when we need exact arithmetic, e.g. for financial calculations. If we can't even divide exactly, then how useful can this be? Does it actually serve a general purpose, or is it only useful in a very niche application where you fortunately just don't need to divide at all? If this is not the right answer, what CAN we use for exact division in financial calculation? (I mean, I don't have a finance major, but they still use division, right???).

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