Search Results

Search found 23265 results on 931 pages for 'justin case'.

Page 859/931 | < Previous Page | 855 856 857 858 859 860 861 862 863 864 865 866  | Next Page >

  • PostgreSQL - fetch the row which has the Max value for a column

    - by Joshua Berry
    I'm dealing with a Postgres table (called "lives") that contains records with columns for time_stamp, usr_id, transaction_id, and lives_remaining. I need a query that will give me the most recent lives_remaining total for each usr_id There are multiple users (distinct usr_id's) time_stamp is not a unique identifier: sometimes user events (one by row in the table) will occur with the same time_stamp. trans_id is unique only for very small time ranges: over time it repeats remaining_lives (for a given user) can both increase and decrease over time example: time_stamp|lives_remaining|usr_id|trans_id ----------------------------------------- 07:00 | 1 | 1 | 1 09:00 | 4 | 2 | 2 10:00 | 2 | 3 | 3 10:00 | 1 | 2 | 4 11:00 | 4 | 1 | 5 11:00 | 3 | 1 | 6 13:00 | 3 | 3 | 1 As I will need to access other columns of the row with the latest data for each given usr_id, I need a query that gives a result like this: time_stamp|lives_remaining|usr_id|trans_id ----------------------------------------- 11:00 | 3 | 1 | 6 10:00 | 1 | 2 | 4 13:00 | 3 | 3 | 1 As mentioned, each usr_id can gain or lose lives, and sometimes these timestamped events occur so close together that they have the same timestamp! Therefore this query won't work: SELECT b.time_stamp,b.lives_remaining,b.usr_id,b.trans_id FROM (SELECT usr_id, max(time_stamp) AS max_timestamp FROM lives GROUP BY usr_id ORDER BY usr_id) a JOIN lives b ON a.max_timestamp = b.time_stamp Instead, I need to use both time_stamp (first) and trans_id (second) to identify the correct row. I also then need to pass that information from the subquery to the main query that will provide the data for the other columns of the appropriate rows. This is the hacked up query that I've gotten to work: SELECT b.time_stamp,b.lives_remaining,b.usr_id,b.trans_id FROM (SELECT usr_id, max(time_stamp || '*' || trans_id) AS max_timestamp_transid FROM lives GROUP BY usr_id ORDER BY usr_id) a JOIN lives b ON a.max_timestamp_transid = b.time_stamp || '*' || b.trans_id ORDER BY b.usr_id Okay, so this works, but I don't like it. It requires a query within a query, a self join, and it seems to me that it could be much simpler by grabbing the row that MAX found to have the largest timestamp and trans_id. The table "lives" has tens of millions of rows to parse, so I'd like this query to be as fast and efficient as possible. I'm new to RDBM and Postgres in particular, so I know that I need to make effective use of the proper indexes. I'm a bit lost on how to optimize. I found a similar discussion here. Can I perform some type of Postgres equivalent to an Oracle analytic function? Any advice on accessing related column information used by an aggregate function (like MAX), creating indexes, and creating better queries would be much appreciated! P.S. You can use the following to create my example case: create TABLE lives (time_stamp timestamp, lives_remaining integer, usr_id integer, trans_id integer); insert into lives values ('2000-01-01 07:00', 1, 1, 1); insert into lives values ('2000-01-01 09:00', 4, 2, 2); insert into lives values ('2000-01-01 10:00', 2, 3, 3); insert into lives values ('2000-01-01 10:00', 1, 2, 4); insert into lives values ('2000-01-01 11:00', 4, 1, 5); insert into lives values ('2000-01-01 11:00', 3, 1, 6); insert into lives values ('2000-01-01 13:00', 3, 3, 1);

    Read the article

  • How to combine designable components with dependency injection

    - by Wim Coenen
    When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

    Read the article

  • App dies on startup but not crash report

    - by brettr
    I've given an ad hoc version of my app to some users. Two of them have the app die on start up while one user has no issues. I can also install the ad hoc without issue...but that is always the case for me. One user sent the info below from the Xcode Organizer Console. They didn't find any crash logs. I don't know what to make of the info below. The one thing that stands out is "Permission denied". I place the provisioning and myapp.app files in a dropbox folder. The user then retrieves the files from the same location. I've run codesign against the .app file in the dropbox and get valid output: codesign -vvvv myapp.app myapp.app: valid on disk myapp.app: satisfies its Designated Requirement Any one have some ideas how I can figure out why the app doesn't work for this user? Here is the Console output from one user. They couldn't find any associated crash logs: Stats totalMLSITDBPostProcessing=5.31s commands=0.01 misc=0.45s icuSort=4.41s (MLS_icu_data=0.23s, MLS_icu_sec_data=0.13, dropIdx=0.04, normalize=0.13, update_orders=1.31, tStatsICUOther1=0.02, createIndex=2.50) Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 179: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:10 unknown springboardservicesrelay[155] <Warning>: Unable to parse property list data of length: 0 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 182: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1

    Read the article

  • Performance issue when querying a large xml file through php/ajax on Apache Server

    - by Niall
    Hey, I have a simple "live search" (results displayed while typing) web site. This make up is Ajax to PHP querying a pretty large XML document (10,000+ lines). This is all been hosted on a local Apache server (xamp). The scale of the xml document seems to be causing huge performance issue with results taking 10ish seconds to give the results. I'm very new to PHP (this actually being my first play about) so there below is a snippet of code in case there is something obvious for($i=0; $i<($foodListXML->length); $i++){ $type=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('type'); $foodnote=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('foodnote'); $style=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('style'); if ($type->item(0)->nodeType==1) { //find a link matching the search text if (stristr($type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue,$q)){ $currentFoodName = $type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodStyle = $style->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodNote = $foodnote->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; if ($hint==""){ $hint= $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } else{ $hint=$hint . $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } } } } } Also if having the data in a DB and accessing that is faster, then I'm open to that.. All ideas really!! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Page - Viewstate for Confirm email field is getting erased on Registration Page if valid

    - by Rita
    Hi I have a Registaration page with the following fields Email, Confirm Email, Password and Confrim Password. On Register Button click and post the model to the server, the Model validates and if that Email is already Registered, it displays the Validation Error Message "User already Exists. Please Login or Register with a different email ID". While we are displaying this validation error message, I am loosing the value of "Confirm Email" field. So that the user has to reenter again and I want to avoid this. Here I don't have confirm_Email field in my Model. Is there something special that has to be done to remain Confirm Email value on the Page even in case of Validation failure? Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform"> <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <p>Note: Confirmation email will be sent to the email address listed above.</p> </fieldset> <% } %>

    Read the article

  • Calculating next date in Turbo Pascal

    - by Chaima Chaimouta
    program date; uses wincrt; var m,ch,ch1,ch2,ch3: string ; mois,j,a,b: integer ; begin write('a');read(a); write('j');read(j); write('mois');read(mois); case mois of 1,3,5,7,8,10: if j<31 then begin b:=j+1; m:=str(b,ch)+'/'+str(mois,ch2)+'/'+str(a,ch3); else if j=31then b:=1; s:=mois+1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(s,ch2),'/',str(a,ch3)); end else m:='erreur'; 4,6,9,11:if j<30 then begin b:=j+1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2),'/',str(a,ch3)); end else j=30 then begin b:=1; s:=mois+1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2),'/',str(a,ch3)); end else m:='erreur'; 2:if j<28 then begin b:=j+1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2),'/',str(a,ch3)); end else if j=28 then begin b:=1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2,'/',str(a,ch3)); end else if((a mod 4=0)AND (a mod 100<>0)) or ((a mod 100=0)and(a mod 400=0)) then if j<29 then begin b:=j+1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2,'/',str(a,ch3)); end else if j=29 then begin b:=1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2,'/',str(a,ch3)); end else m:='erreur'; 12:if j<31 then begin b:=j+1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2,'/',str(a,ch3)); end else if j=31 then begin b:=1; s:=a+1; m:=concat(str(b,ch),'/',str(mois,ch2,'/',str(s,ch3)); end; writeln(m); end. this is my program i hope you be able to help me

    Read the article

  • Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture not working consistently

    - by xTRUMANx
    I've been working on a pet project on the weekends to learn more about C# and have encountered an odd problem when working with localization. To be more specific, the problem I have is with System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture. I've set up my app so that the user can quickly change the language of the app by clicking a menu item. The menu item in turn, saves the two-letter code for the language (e.g. "en", "fr", etc.) in a user setting called 'Language' and then restarts the application. Properties.Settings.Default.Language = "en"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); Application.Restart(); When the application is started up, the first line of code in the Form's constructor (even before InitializeComponent()) fetches the Language string from the settings and sets the CurrentUICulture like so: public Form1() { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(Properties.Settings.Default.Language); InitializeComponent(); } The thing is, this doesn't work consistently. Sometimes, all works well and the application loads the correct language based on the string saved in the settings file. Other times, it doesn't, and the language remains the same after the application is restarted. At first I thought that I didn't save the language before restarting the application but that is definitely not the case. When the correct language fails to load, if I were to close the application and run it again, the correct language would come up correctly. So this implies that the Language string has been saved but the CurrentUICulture assignment in my form constructor is having no effect sometimes. Any help? Is there something I'm missing of how threading works in C#? This could be machine-specific, so if it makes any difference I'm using Pentium Dual-Core CPU. UPDATE Vlad asked me to check what the CurrentThread's CurrentUICulture is. So I added a MessageBox on my constructor to tell me what the CurrentUICulture two-letter code is as well as the value of my Language user string. MessageBox.Show(string.Format("Current Language: {0}\nCurrent UI Culture: {1}", Properties.Settings.Default.Language, Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.TwoLetterISOLanguageName)); When the wrong language is loaded, both the Language string and CurrentUICulture have the wrong language. So I guess the CurrentUICulture has been cleared and my problem is actually with the Language Setting. So I guess the problem is that my application sometimes loads the previously saved language string rather than the last saved language string. If the app is restarted, it will then load the actual saved language string.

    Read the article

  • What is `objc_msgSend_fixup`, exactly?

    - by Luis Antonio Botelho O. Leite
    I'm messing around with the Objective-C runtime, trying to compile objective-c code without linking it against libobjc, and I'm having some segmentation fault problems with a program, so I generated an assembly file from it. I think it's not necessary to show the whole assembly file. At some point of my main function, I've got the following line (which, by the way, is the line after which I get the seg fault): callq *l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc and here is the definition for l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc: .hidden l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc # @"\01l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc" .type l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc,@object .section "__DATA, __objc_msgrefs, coalesced","aw",@progbits .weak l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc .align 16 l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc: .quad objc_msgSend_fixup .quad L_OBJC_METH_VAR_NAME_ .size l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc, 16 I've reimplemented objc_msgSend_fixup as a function (id objc_msgSend_fixup(id self, SEL op, ...)) which returns nil (just to see what happens), but this function isn't even being called (the program crashes before calling it). So, my question is, what is callq *l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc supposed to do and what is objc_msgSend_fixup (after l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc:) supposed to be (a function or an object)? Edit To better explain, I'm not linking my source file against the objc library. What I'm trying to do is implement some parts of the libray, just to see how it works. Here is an approach of what I've done: #include <stdio.h> #include <objc/runtime.h> @interface MyClass { } +(id) alloc; @end @implementation MyClass +(id) alloc { // alloc the object return nil; } @end id objc_msgSend_fixup(id self, SEL op, ...) { printf("Calling objc_msgSend_fixup()...\n"); // looks for the method implementation for SEL in self's vtable return nil; // Since this is just a test, this function doesn't need to do that } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { MyClass *m; m = [MyClass alloc]; // At this point, according to the assembly code generated // objc_msgSend_fixup should be called. So, the program should, at least, print // "Calling objc_msgSend_fixup()..." on the screen, but it crashes before // objc_msgSend_fixup() is called... return 0; } If the runtime needs to access the object's vtable to find the correct method to call, what is the function which actually does this? I think it is objc_msgSend_fixup, in this case. So, when objc_msgSend_fixup is called, it receives an object as one of its parameters, and, if this object hasn't been initialized, the function fails. So, I've implemented my own version of objc_msgSend_fixup. According to the assembly source above, it should be called. It doesn't matter if the function is actually looking for the implementation of the selector passed as parameter. I just want objc_msgSend_lookup to be called. But, it's not being called, that is, the function that looks for the object's data is not even being called, instead of being called and cause a fault (because it returns a nil (which, by the way, doesn't matter)). The program seg fails before objc_msgSend_lookup is called...

    Read the article

  • Sockets receiving null (Android)

    - by Henrik
    I have a android app that is communicating with a server (written in java). Between these two parts I have established a Socket connection and want to send data. The problem I am having is that sometimes, for some users, the information that reaches the server is null. This works (for all phones, all users): Server: int a = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int b = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int c = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int d = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); String checksum = in.readLine(); String model = in.readLine(); String device = in.readLine(); String name = in.readLine(); Client: out.println(a); out.println(b); out.println(c); out.println(d); out.println(hash); out.println(Build.MODEL); out.println(Build.DEVICE); String name = fixName(); out.print(name); out.flush(); This does not work (for some users): Server: int a = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); String checksum = in.readLine(); String model = in.readLine(); String device = in.readLine(); String name = in.readLine(); String msg = in.readLine(); int version = -1; String test = "hej"; try{ test = in.readLine(); version = Integer.parseInt(test); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Client: out.println(a); out.println(hash); out.println(Build.MODEL); out.println(Build.DEVICE); String name = fixName(); if(name == null) name = "John Doe"; out.println(name); String msg = fixMsg(); if(msg == null) name = "nada"; out.println(msg); out.println(curversion); out.flush(); Sometimes, in the second case, the name, msg, and version (the string test) are null at the server side. The catch is triggered because test is null. curversion,a are ints, the rest are strings. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

    - by Dave Parker
    I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

    Read the article

  • Excel UDF calculation should return 'original' value

    - by LeChe
    Hi all, I've been struggling with a VBA problem for a while now and I'll try to explain it as thoroughly as possible. I have created a VSTO plugin with my own RTD implementation that I am calling from my Excel sheets. To avoid having to use the full-fledged RTD syntax in the cells, I have created a UDF that hides that API from the sheet. The RTD server I created can be enabled and disabled through a button in a custom Ribbon component. The behavior I want to achieve is as follows: If the server is disabled and a reference to my function is entered in a cell, I want the cell to display Disabled If the server is disabled, but the function had been entered in a cell when it was enabled (and the cell thus displays a value), I want the cell to keep displaying that value If the server is enabled, I want the cell to display Loading Sounds easy enough. Here is an example of the - non functional - code: Public Function RetrieveData(id as Long) Dim result as String // This returns either 'Disabled' or 'Loading' result = Application.Worksheet.Function.RTD("SERVERNAME", "", id) RetrieveData = result If(result = "Disabled") Then // Obviously, this recurses (and fails), so that's not an option If(Not IsEmpty(Application.Caller.Value2)) Then // So does this RetrieveData = Application.Caller.Value2 End If End If End Function The function will be called in thousands of cells, so storing the 'original' values in another data structure would be a major overhead and I would like to avoid it. Also, the RTD server does not know the values, since it also does not keep a history of it, more or less for the same reason. I was thinking that there might be some way to exit the function which would force it to not change the displayed value, but so far I have been unable to find anything like that. Any ideas on how to solve this are greatly appreciated! Thanks, Che EDIT: By popular demand, some additional info on why I want to do all this: As I said, the function will be called in thousands of cells and the RTD server needs to retrieve quite a bit of information. This can be quite hard on both network and CPU. To allow the user to decide for himself whether he wants this load on his machine, he or she can disable the updates from the server. In that case, he or she should still be able to calculate the sheets with the values currently in the fields, yet no updates are pushed into them. Once new data is required, the server can be enabled and the fields will be updated. Again, since we are talking about quite a bit of data here, I would rather not store it somewhere in the sheet. Plus, the data should be usable even if the workbook is closed and loaded again.

    Read the article

  • Using a function with reference as a function with pointers?

    - by epatel
    Today I stumbled over a piece of code that looked horrifying to me. The pieces was chattered in different files, I have tried write the gist of it in a simple test case below. The code base is routinely scanned with FlexeLint on a daily basis, but this construct has been laying in the code since 2004. The thing is that a function implemented with a parameter passing using references is called as a function with a parameter passing using pointers...due to a function cast. The construct has worked since 2004 on Irix and now when porting it actually do work on Linux/gcc too. My question now. Is this a construct one can trust? I can understand if compiler constructors implement the reference passing as it was a pointer, but is it reliable? Are there hidden risks? Should I change the fref(..) to use pointers and risk braking anything in the process? What to you think? #include <iostream> using namespace std; // ---------------------------------------- // This will be passed as a reference in fref(..) struct string_struct { char str[256]; }; // ---------------------------------------- // Using pointer here! void fptr(const char *str) { cout << "fptr: " << str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Using reference here! void fref(string_struct &str) { cout << "fref: " << str.str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Cast to f(const char*) and call with pointer void ftest(void (*fin)()) { void (*fcall)(const char*) = (void(*)(const char*))fin; fcall("Hello!"); } // ---------------------------------------- // Let's go for a test int main() { ftest((void (*)())fptr); // test with fptr that's using pointer ftest((void (*)())fref); // test with fref that's using reference return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Make an array of two.

    - by marharépa
    Hello! I'd like to make an array which tells my site's pages where to show in PHP. In $sor["site_id"] i've got two or four chars-lenght strings. example: 23, 42, 13, 1 In my other array (called to $pages_show) i want to give all the site_ids to an other id. $parancs="SELECT * FROM pages ORDER BY id"; $eredmeny=mysql_query($parancs) or die("Hibás SQL:".$parancs); while($sor=mysql_fetch_array($eredmeny)) { $pages[]=array( "id"=>$sor["id"], "name"=>$sor["name"], "title"=>$sor["title"], "description"=>$sor["description"], "keywords"=>$sor["keywords"] ); // this makes my pages array with the information about that page. $shower = explode(", ",$sor["site_id"]); // this is explode my site_id $pages_show[]=array( "id"=>$sor["id"], "where"=>$shower //to 'where' i want to put all the explode's elements one-by-one, to get the result like down ); This script gives me the following result: Array (3) 0 => Array (2) id => "29" where => Array (2) 0 => "17" 1 => "16" 1 => Array (2) id => "30" where => Array (1) 0 => "17" 2 => Array (2) id => "31" where => Array (1) 0 => "17" But in this case I'd like to be this: Array (4) 0 => Array (2) id => "29" where => "17" 1 => Array (2) id => "29" where => "16" 2 => Array (2) id => "30" where => "17" 3 => Array (2) id => "31" where => "17" Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Java: omitting a data member from the equals method.

    - by cchampion
    public class GamePiece { public GamePiece(char cLetter, int nPointValue) { m_cLetter=cLetter; m_nPointValue=nPointValue; m_nTurnPlaced=0; //has not been placed on game board yet. } public char GetLetter() {return m_cLetter;} public int GetPointValue() {return m_nPointValue;} public int GetTurnPlaced() {return m_nTurnPlaced;} public void SetTurnPlaced(int nTurnPlaced) { m_nTurnPlaced=nTurnPlaced; } @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { /*NOTE to keep this shorter I omitted some of the null checking and instanceof stuff. */ GamePiece other = (GamePiece) obj; //not case sensitive, and I don`t think we want it to be here. if(m_cLetter != other.m_cLetter) { return false; } if(m_nPointValue != other.m_nPointValue) { return false; } /* NOTICE! m_nPointValue purposely omitted. It does not affect hashcode or equals */ return true; } @Override public int hashCode() { /* NOTICE! m_nPointValue purposely omitted. It should not affect hashcode or equals */ final int prime = 41; return prime * (prime + m_nPointValue + m_cLetter); } private char m_cLetter; private int m_nPointValue; private int m_nTurnPlaced;//turn which the game piece was placed on the game board. Does not affect equals or has code! } Consider the given piece of code. This object has been immutable until the introduction of the m_nTurnPlaced member (which can be modified by the SetTurnPlaced method, so now GamePiece becomes mutable). GamePiece is used in an ArrayList, I call contains and remove methods which both rely on the equals method to be implemented. My question is this, is it ok or common practice in Java for some members to not affect equals and hashcode? How will this affect its use in my ArrayList? What type of java Collections would it NOT be safe to use this object now that it is mutable? I've been told that you're not supposed to override equals on mutable objects because it causes some collections to behave "strangely" (I read that somewhere in the java documentation).

    Read the article

  • Hibernate mapping to object that already exists

    - by teehoo
    I have two classes, ServiceType and ServiceRequest. Every ServiceRequest must specify what kind of ServiceType it is. All ServiceType's are predefined in the database, and ServiceRequest is created at runtime by the client. Here are my .hbm files: <hibernate-mapping> <class dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="false" mutable="true" name="xxx.model.entity.ServiceRequest" optimistic-lock="version" polymorphism="implicit" select-before-update="false"> <id column="USER_ID" name="id"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="quantity"> <column name="quantity" not-null="true"/> </property> <many-to-one cascade="all" class="xxx.model.entity.ServiceType" column="service_type" name="serviceType" not-null="false" unique="false"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> and <hibernate-mapping> <class dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="false" mutable="true" name="xxx.model.entity.ServiceType" optimistic-lock="version" polymorphism="implicit" select-before-update="false"> <id column="USER_ID" name="id"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="description"> <column name="description" not-null="false"/> </property> <property name="cost"> <column name="cost" not-null="true"/> </property> <property name="enabled"> <column name="enabled" not-null="true"/> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> When I run this, I get com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Cannot add or update a child row: a foreign key constraint fails I think my problem is that when I create a new ServiceRequest object, ServiceType is one of its properties, and therefore when I'm saving ServiceRequest to the database, Hibernate attempts to insert the ServiceType object once again, and finds that it is already exists. If this is the case, how do I make it so that Hibernate points to the exists ServiceType instead of trying to insert it again?

    Read the article

  • Invoke Python modules from Java

    - by user36813
    I have a Python interface of a graph library written in C - igraph (the name of library). My need is to invoke the python modules pertaining to this graph library from Java code. It goes like this, the core of library is in c. This core has been imported into Python and interfaces to the functions embedded in core are available in Python. My project's rest of the code is in Java and hence I would like to call the graph functions by Java as well. Jython - which lets you invoke python modules with in Java was an option.I went on trying Jython to discover that it will not work in my case as the core code is in C and Jython wont support anything that is imported as a c dll in python code.I also thought of opting for the approach of calling graph routines directly in c. That is without passing through Python code. I am assuming there must be something which lets you call c code from Java, how ever I am not good in C hence I did not go for it. My last resort seems to execute Python interpreter from command line using Java. But that is a dirty and shameless. Also to deal with the results produced by Python code I will have to write the results in a file and read it back in java. Again dirty way. Is there something that any one can suggest me? Thanks to every one giving time. Thanks Igal for answering. I had a look at it. At first glance it appears as if it is simply calling the python script. Jep jep = new Jep(false, SCRIPT_PATH, cl); jep.set("query", query); jep.runScript(SCRIPT_PATH + file); jep.close(); Isnt it very similar to what we would do if called the python interpreter from command line through a Java code. Runtime runtime = Runtime.getRuntime(); Process proc = runtime.exec("python test.py"); Concern is how do I use the results generated by Python script. The naive way is to write them to file and read it back in Java. I am searching for a smarter approach.Thanks for suggestion anyway.

    Read the article

  • Writing Device Drivers for Microcontrollers, where to define IO Port pins?

    - by volting
    I always seem to encounter this dilemma when writing low level code for MCU's. I never know where to declare pin definitions so as to make the code as reusable as possible. In this case Im writing a driver to interface an 8051 to a MCP4922 12bit serial DAC. Im unsure how/where I should declare the pin definitions for The CS(chip select) and LDAC(data latch) for the DAC. At the moment there declared in the header file for the driver. Iv done a lot of research trying to figure out the best approach but havent really found anything. Im basically want to know what the best practices... if there are some books worth reading or online information, examples etc, any recommendations would be welcome. Just a snippet of the driver so you get the idea /** @brief This function is used to write a 16bit data word to DAC B -12 data bit plus 4 configuration bits @param dac_data A 12bit word @param ip_buf_unbuf_select Input Buffered/unbuffered select bit. Buffered = 1; Unbuffered = 0 @param gain_select Output Gain Selection bit. 1 = 1x (VOUT = VREF * D/4096). 0 =2x (VOUT = 2 * VREF * D/4096) */ void MCP4922_DAC_B_TX_word(unsigned short int dac_data, bit ip_buf_unbuf_select, bit gain_select) { unsigned char low_byte=0, high_byte=0; CS = 0; /**Select the chip*/ high_byte |= ((0x01 << 7) | (0x01 << 4)); /**Set bit to select DAC A and Set SHDN bit high for DAC A active operation*/ if(ip_buf_unbuf_select) high_byte |= (0x01 << 6); if(gain_select) high_byte |= (0x01 << 5); high_byte |= ((dac_data >> 8) & 0x0F); low_byte |= dac_data; SPI_master_byte(high_byte); SPI_master_byte(low_byte); CS = 1; LDAC = 0; /**Latch the Data*/ LDAC = 1; }

    Read the article

  • Hotfixing Code running inside Web Container with Groovy

    - by raoulsson
    I have a webapp running that has a bug. I know how to fix it in the sources. However I cannot redeploy the app as I would have to take it offline to do so. (At least not right now). I now want to fix the code "at runtime". Surgery on the living object, so to speak. The app is implemented in Java and is build on top of Seam. I have added a Groovy Console to the app previous to the last release. (A way to run arbitrary code at runtime) The normal way of adding behaviour to a class with Groovy would be similar to this: String.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } println "anything".foo(3) This code added the method foo to java.lang.String and prints 9. I can do the same thing with classes running inside my webapp container. New instances will thereafter show the same behaviour: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) Works as excpected. All good so far. My problem is now that the container, the web framework, Seam in this case, has already instantiated and cached the classes that I would like to manipulate (that is change their behaviour to reflect my bug fix). Ideally this code would work: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def x = org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(com.my.package.SomeService) println x.foo(3) However the instantiation of SomeService has already happened and there is no effect. Thus I need a way to make my changes "sticky". Has the groovy magic gone after my script has been run? Well, after logging out and in again, I can run this piece of code and get the expected result: def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) So the foo method is still around and it looks like my change has been permanent... So I guess the question that remains is how to force Seam to re-instantiate all its components and/or how to permanently make the change on all living instances...?

    Read the article

  • Is there anyway to exclude artifacts inherited from a parent POM?

    - by Miguel
    Artifacts from dependencies can be excluded by declaring an <exclusions> element inside a <dependency> But in this case it's needed to exclude an artifact inherited from a parent project. An excerpt of the POM under discussion follows: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>test</groupId> <artifactId>jruby</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> <parent> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> </parent> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.liferay.portal</groupId> <artifactId>ALL-DEPS</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> <scope>provided</scope> <type>pom</type> </dependency> </dependencies> </project> base artifact, depends on javax.mail:mail-1.4.jar, and ALL-DEPS depends on another version of the same library. Due to the fact that mail.jar from ALL-DEPS exist on the execution environment, although not exported, collides with the mail.jar that exists on the parent, which is scoped as compile. A solution could be to rid off mail.jar from the parent POM, but most of the projects that inherit base, need it (as is a transtive dependency for log4j). So What I would like to do is to simply exclude parent's library from the child project, as it could be done if base was a dependency and not the parent pom: ... <dependency> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> <type>pom<type> <exclusions> <exclusion> <groupId>javax.mail</groupId> <artifactId>mail</artifactId> </exclusion> </exclusions> </dependency> ...

    Read the article

  • Problem on jboss lookup entitymanager

    - by Stefano
    I have my ear-project deployed in jboss 5.1GA. From webapp i don't have problem, the lookup of my ejb3 work fine! es: ShoppingCart sc= (ShoppingCart) (new InitialContext()).lookup("idelivery-ear-1.0/ShoppingCartBean/remote"); also the iniection of my EntityManager work fine! @PersistenceContext private EntityManager manager; From test enviroment (I use Eclipse) the lookup of the same ejb3 work fine! but the lookup of entitymanager or PersistenceContext don't work!!! my good test case: public void testClient() { Properties properties = new Properties(); properties.put("java.naming.factory.initial","org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory"); properties.put("java.naming.factory.url.pkgs","org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces"); properties.put("java.naming.provider.url","localhost"); Context context; try{ context = new InitialContext(properties); ShoppingCart cart = (ShoppingCart) context.lookup("idelivery-ear-1.0/ShoppingCartBean/remote"); // WORK FINE } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } my bad test : EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("idelivery"); EntityManager em = emf.createEntityManager(); //test1 EntityManager em6 = (EntityManager) new InitialContext().lookup("java:comp/env/persistence/idelivery"); //test2 PersistenceContext em3 = (PersistenceContext)(new InitialContext()).lookup("idelivery/remote"); //test3 my persistence.xml <persistence-unit name="idelivery" transaction-type="JTA"> <jta-data-source>java:ideliveryDS</jta-data-source> <properties> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="create-drop" /><!--validate | update | create | create-drop--> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQL5InnoDBDialect" /> <property name="hibernate.show_sql" value="true" /> <property name="hibernate.format_sql" value="true" /> </properties> </persistence-unit> my datasource: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>ideliveryDS</jndi-name> ... </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> I need EntityManager and PersistenceContext to test my query before build ejb... Where is my mistake?

    Read the article

  • How can I structure my MustacheJS template to add dynamic classes based on the values from a JSON file?

    - by JGallardo
    OBJECTIVE To build an app that allows the user to search for locations. CURRENT STATE At the moment the locations listed are few, so they are just all presented when landing on the "dealers" page. BACKGROUND Previously there were only about 50 showrooms carrying a product we sell, so a static HTML page was fine. And displays as But the page size grew to about 1500 lines of code after doing this. We have gotten more and need a scalable solution so that we can add many more dealers fast. In other projects, I have previously used MustacheJS and to load in values from a JSON file. I know the ideally this will be an AJAX application. Perhaps I might be better off with database here? Below is what I have in mind so far, and it "works" up to a certain point, but seems not to be anywhere near the most sustainable solution that can be efficiently scaled. HTML <a id="{{state}}"></a> <div> <h4>{{dealer}} : {{city}}, {{state}} {{l_type}}</h4> <div class="{{icon_class}}"> <ul> <li><i class="icon-map-marker"></i></li> <li><i class="icon-phone"></i></li> <li><i class="icon-print"></i></li> </ul> </div> <div class="listingInfo"> <p>{{street}} <br>{{suite}}<br> {{city}}, {{state}} {{zip}}<br> Phone: {{phone}}<br> {{toll_free}}<br> {{fax}} </p> </div> </div> <hr> JSON { "dealers" : [ { "dealer":"Benco Dental", "City":"Denver", "state":"CO", "zip":"80112", "l_type":"Showroom", "icon_class":"listingIcons_3la", "phone":"(303) 790-1421", "toll_free":null, "fax":"(303) 790-1421" }, { "dealer":"Burkhardt Dental Supply", "City":"Portland", "state":"OR", "zip":"97220", "l_type":"Showroom", "icon_class":"listingIcons", "phone":" (503) 252-9777", "toll_free":"(800) 367-3030", "fax":"(866) 408-3488" } ]} CHALLENGES The CSS class wrapping the ul will vary based on how many fields there are. In this case there are 3, so the class is "listingIcons_3la" The "toll free" number section should only show up if in fact, there is a toll free number. the fax number should only show up if there is a value for a fax number.

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX Web service works only locally

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a simple ASP.NET Web Service [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { } [WebMethod] public string SetName(string name) { return "hello my dear friend " + name; } } For this Web Service I created Virtual Directory, so I can receive the access by taping http://localhost:89/Service.asmx. I try to call it via simple html page with jQuery. For this purpose I use function CallWS() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "{'name':'Pumba'}", dataType: "json", url: "http://localhost:89/Service.asmx/SetName", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (msg) { $('#DIVid').html(msg.d); }, error: function (e) { $('#DIVid').html("Error"); } }); The most interesting fact: If I create the html page in the project with my WebService and change url to Service.asmx/SetName everything works excellent. But if I try to call this webservice remotely - success function works but msg is null. After that I tried to call this service even via SOAP. It is the the same - locally it works excellent, but remotely - not at all. var ServiceUrl = 'http://localhost:89/Service.asmx?op=SetName'; function beginSetName(Name) { var soapMessage = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <SetName xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <name>' + Name + '</name> </SetName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; $.ajax({ url: ServiceUrl, type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: soapMessage, complete: endSetName, contentType: "text/xml; charset=\"utf-8\"" }); return false; } function endSetName(xmlHttpRequest, status) { $(xmlHttpRequest.responseXML) .find('SetNameResult') .each(function () { var name = $(this).text(); alert(name); }); } In this case status has value "parseerror". Could you please help me to resolve this problem? What should I do to call another WebService remotely by url via jQuery. Thank you in advance, Greg

    Read the article

  • how to implement a "soft barrier" in multithreaded c++

    - by Jason
    I have some multithreaded c++ code with the following structure: do_thread_specific_work(); update_shared_variables(); //checkpoint A do_thread_specific_work_not_modifying_shared_variables(); //checkpoint B do_thread_specific_work_requiring_all_threads_have_updated_shared_variables(); What follows checkpoint B is work that could have started if all threads have reached only checkpoint A, hence my notion of a "soft barrier". Typically multithreading libraries only provide "hard barriers" in which all threads must reach some point before any can continue. Obviously a hard barrier could be used at checkpoint B. Using a soft barrier can lead to better execution time, especially since the work between checkpoints A and B may not be load-balanced between the threads (i.e. 1 slow thread who has reached checkpoint A but not B could be causing all the others to wait at the barrier just before checkpoint B). I've tried using atomics to synchronize things and I know with 100% certainty that is it NOT guaranteed to work. For example using openmp syntax, before the parallel section start with: shared_thread_counter = num_threads; //known at compile time #pragma omp flush Then at checkpoint A: #pragma omp atomic shared_thread_counter--; Then at checkpoint B (using polling): #pragma omp flush while (shared_thread_counter > 0) { usleep(1); //can be removed, but better to limit memory bandwidth #pragma omp flush } I've designed some experiments in which I use an atomic to indicate that some operation before it is finished. The experiment would work with 2 threads most of the time but consistently fail when I have lots of threads (like 20 or 30). I suspect this is because of the caching structure of modern CPUs. Even if one thread updates some other value before doing the atomic decrement, it is not guaranteed to be read by another thread in that order. Consider the case when the other value is a cache miss and the atomic decrement is a cache hit. So back to my question, how to CORRECTLY implement this "soft barrier"? Is there any built-in feature that guarantees such functionality? I'd prefer openmp but I'm familiar with most of the other common multithreading libraries. As a workaround right now, I'm using a hard barrier at checkpoint B and I've restructured my code to make the work between checkpoint A and B automatically load-balancing between the threads (which has been rather difficult at times). Thanks for any advice/insight :)

    Read the article

  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

    Read the article

  • Job queue manager with RPC interface

    - by admr
    I need a job queue manager that I can control over the Internet. It should be able to execute and stop processes, check on their status (ideally notice and execute some code when a process exits), respond to commands and also be able to report back to a server. Background: I have a GWT application that allows to create jobs to execute on a cloud instance (currently EC2). I want to push a "job packet" (data for a process to operate on etc) to S3, start a Linux EC2 instance (or use one that's already running), and tell a job manager on the instance to execute that job (possibly parallel to other jobs). It should then pull the "job packet" from S3, run a process that operates on that data and report back to the server that is running the server part of my GWT application with some information (e.g. exit code, stdout, stderr). If I have to write e.g. stdour/err to a file from the process and read that file, that's OK too. I would really like the manager to be "close" to the processes it runs, meaning I want to avoid using something like Runtime.exec from the JDK. It seems like I would have to do that if I used Quartz for example. I'm fine with the calls in both directions being asynchronous. I'm fine with any reasonable technology for the calls as long as I can easily build an interface for that in my GWT server side (e.g. HTTP requests to a servlet over SSL would be nice and trivial). The job manager does not need to have a very sophisticated queueing system. Running several processes either sequentially or in parallel should be fine. Determining how much compute time a process received during its lifetime would be nice (AFAIK, this might be challenging). I did not yet find any existing software that does this, including http://java-source.net/open-source/job-schedulers. I suspect I might have to build an RPC interface (with authentication etc, of course) around a job manager; maybe use something like Apache Commons Exec. In that case, I would prefer Java or Python for the job manager part. I would be happy to hear suggestions for either the former or latter scenario!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 855 856 857 858 859 860 861 862 863 864 865 866  | Next Page >