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  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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  • customer.name joining transactions.name vs. customer.id [serial] joining transactions.id [integer]

    - by Frank Computer
    INFORMIX-SQL 7.32 Pawnshop Application: one-to-many relationship where each customer (master) can have many transactions (detail). customer( id serial, pk_name char(30), {PATERNAL-NAME MATERNAL-NAME, FIRST-NAME MIDDLE-NAME} [...] ); unique index on id; unique cluster index on name; transaction( fk_name char(30), ticket_number serial, [...] ); dups cluster index on fk_name; unique index on ticket_number; Several people have told me this is not the correct way to join master to detail. They said I should always join customer.id[serial] to transactions.id[integer]. When a customer pawns merchandise, clerk queries the master using wildcards on name. The query usually returns several customers, clerk scrolls until locating the right name, enters a 'D' to change to detail transactions table, all transactions are automatically queried, then clerk enters an 'A' to add a new transaction. The problem with using customer.id joining transaction.id is that although the customer table is maintained in sorted name order, clustering the transaction table by fk_id groups the transactions by fk_id, but they are not in the same order as the customer name, so when clerk is scrolling through customer names in the master, the system has to jump allover the place to locate the clustered transactions belonging to each customer. As each new customer is added, the next id is assigned to that customer, but new customers dont show up in alphabetical order. I experimented using id joins and confirmed the decrease in performance. How can I use id joins instead of name joins and still preserve the clustered transaction order by name if transactions has no name column?

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  • jquery draggable/droppable issue

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a drag and drop function that does not fully work. What I want to do is be able to drag and drop a picture into a div and have that picture pop up in the div. I have a list of 2 pictures right now, so I have the following function echoed for each picture. Both pictures are draggable and droppable, but the first one is the only one that appears in the div, regardless of which picture gets dragged in. I am not sure what is wrong because the jquery function seems to be unique to each picture. If any one has any suggestions I would appreciate it greatly. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $image=htmlentities($row['image']); //image name $uniqid=uniqid(); //unique id for jquery functions $dirname = "usercontent/$user/images/$image"; echo "<img id=\"$uniqid\" src=\"$dirname\" width=\"75\" height=\"75\"/>"; echo "<script> $(function() { $(\"#$uniqid\").draggable({ scroll: true, scrollSensitivity: 10, scrollSpeed: 10, revert: true, helper: 'clone', cursorAt: { cursor: 'move', top: 27, left: 27 } }); $(\"#droppable2, #droppable-background , #droppable2-innerer\").droppable({ greedy: true, activeClass: 'ui-state-hover', hoverClass: 'ui-state-active', drop: function(event, ui) { $(this).addClass('ui-state-highlight').find('> p').html('Dropped!'); $('#droppable-background').css(\"background-image\",\"url($dirname)\"); } }); }); </script>"; }

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  • SharePoint webpart with button to auto-login to 3rd party website

    - by JCdowney
    I have been tasked with creating a SharePoint 2007 webpart that logs the user directly into our website (which uses forms authentication). Most likely the username and password will be same in the SharePoint account as in our website. Ideally we would like it to be fully integrated in that the webpart looks up the SP login & password, somehow encodes that using SHA1, MD5 or similar encryption, then passes that along to our login page on the query string. However given we have little experience with SharePoint, and that it's probably impossible to programmatically access the SP username/password from a webpart we realize this isn't very likely to be possible and if so would probably require a lot of development time. Another option would be to load a login form from the website within an iframe in the webpart, which would show the login & password first but store a "remember me" cookie after the first login, and on each subsequent load display just a button that logs them in directly using the cookie. Has anyone done something similar before? I'm in over my head, any guidance would be much appreciated! :)

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  • Running OpenMPI on Windows XP

    - by iamweird
    Hi there. I'm trying to build a simple cluster based on Windows XP. I compiled OpenMPI-1.4.2 successfully, and tools like mpicc and ompi_info work too, but I can't get my mpirun working properly. The only output I can see is Z:\orterun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname [host0:04728] Failed to initialize COM library. Error code = -2147417850 [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\mca\ess\hnp\ess_hnp_module.c at line 218 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_plm_init failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\runtime\orte_init.c at line 132 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_ess_set_name failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\..\..\openmpi -1.4.2\orte\tools\orterun\orterun.c at line 543 Where z:\hosts.txt appears as follows: host0 host1 Z: is a shared network drive available to both host0 and host1. What my problem is and how do I fix it? Upd: Ok, this problem seems to be fixed. It seems to me that WideCap driver and/or software components causes this error to appear. A "clean" machine runs local task successfully. Anyway, I still cannot run a task within at least 2 machines, I'm getting following message: Z:\mpirun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname connecting to host1 username:cluster password:******** Save Credential?(Y/N) y [host0:04728] This feature hasn't been implemented yet. [host0:04728] Could not connect to namespace cimv2 on node host1. Error code =-2147024891 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- mpirun was unable to start the specified application as it encountered an error. More information may be available above. -------------------------------------------------------------------------- I googled a little and did all the things as described here: http://www.open-mpi.org/community/lists/users/2010/03/12355.php but I'm still getting the same error. Can anyone help me? Upd2: Error code -2147024891 might be WMI error WBEM_E_INVALID_PARAMETER (0x80041008) which occures when one of the parameters passed to the WMI call is not correct. Does this mean that the problem is in OpenMPI source code itself? Or maybe it's because of wrong/outdated wincred.h and credui.lib I used while building OpenMPI from the source code?

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  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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  • Apache Lucene: Is Relevance Score Always Between 0 and 1?

    - by Eamorr
    Greetings, I have the following Apache Lucene snippet that's giving me some nice results: int numHits=100; int resultsPerPage=100; IndexSearcher searcher=new IndexSearcher(reader); TopScoreDocCollector collector=TopScoreDocCollector.create(numHits,true); Query q=parser.parse(queryString); searcher.search(q,collector); ScoreDoc[] hits=collector.topDocs(0*resultsPerPage,resultsPerPage).scoreDocs; Results r=new Results(); r.length=hits.length; for(int i=0;i<hits.length;i++){ Document doc=searcher.doc(hits[i].doc); double distanceKm=getGreatCircleDistance(lucene2double(doc.get("lat")), lucene2double(doc.get("lng")), Double.parseDouble(userLat), Double.parseDouble(userLng)); double newRelevance=((1/distanceKm)*Math.log(hits[i].score)/Math.log(2))*(0-1); System.out.println(hits[i].doc+"\t"+hits[i].score+"\t"+doc.get("content")+"\t"+"Km="+distanceKm+"\trlvnc="+String.valueOf(newRelevance)); } What I want to know, is hits[i].score always between 0 and 1? It seems that way, but I can't be sure. I've even checked the Lucene documentation (class ScoreDocs) to no avail. You'll see I'm calculating the log of the "newRelevance" value, which is based on hits[i].score. I need hits[i].score to be between 0 and 1, because if it is below zero, I'll get an error; above 1 and the sign will change from negative to positive. I hope some Lucene expert out there can offer me some insight. Many thanks,

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  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

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  • .NET Extension Objects with XSLT -- how to iterate over a collection?

    - by Pandincus
    Help me, Stackoverflow! I have a simple .NET 3.5 console app that reads some data and sends emails. I'm representing the email format in an XSLT stylesheet so that we can easily change the wording of the email without needing to recompile the app. We're using Extension Objects to pass data to the XSLT when we apply the transformation: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:EmailNotification="ext:EmailNotification"> -- this way, we can have statements like: <p> Dear <xsl:value-of select="EmailNotification:get_FullName()" />: </p> The above works fine. I pass the object via code like this (some irrelevant code omitted for brevity): // purely an example structure public struct EmailNotification { public string FullName { get; set; } } // Somewhere in some method ... var notification = new Notification("John Smith"); // ... XsltArgumentList xslArgs = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArgs.AddExtensionObject("ext:EmailNotification", notification); // ... // The part where it breaks! (This is where we do the transformation) xslt.Transform(fakeXMLDocument.CreateNavigator(), xslArgs, XmlWriter.Create(transformedXMLString)); So, all of the above code works. However, I wanted to get a little fancy (always my downfall) and pass a collection, so that I could do something like this: <p>The following accounts need to be verified:</p> <xsl:for-each select="EmailNotification:get_SomeCollection()"> <ul> <li> <xsl:value-of select="@SomeAttribute" /> </li> </ul> <xsl:for-each> When I pass the collection in the extension object and attempt to transform, I get the following error: "Extension function parameters or return values which have Clr type 'String[]' are not supported." or List, or IEnumerable, or whatever I try to pass in. So, my questions are: How can I pass in a collection to my XSLT? What do I put for the xsl:value-of select="" inside the xsl:for-each ? Is what I am trying to do impossible?

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  • XPath: limit scope of result set

    - by Laramie
    Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

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  • how to extract information from JSON using jQuery

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have a JSON response that is formatted from my C# WebMethod using the JavascriptSerializer Class. I currently get the following JSON back from my query: {"d":"[{\"Lat\":\"51.85036\",\"Long\":\"-8.48901\"},{\"Lat\":\"51.89857\",\"Long\":\"-8.47229\"}]"} I'm having an issue with my code below that I'm hoping someone might be able to shed some light on. I can't seem to get at the information out of the values returned to me. Ideally I would like to be able to read in the Lat and Long values for each row returned to me. Below is what I currently have: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "page.aspx/LoadWayPoints", data: "{'args': '" + $('numJourneys').val() + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { if (msg.d != '[]') { var lat = ""; var long = ""; $.each(msg.d, function () { lat = this['MapLatPosition']; long = this['MapLongPosition']; }); alert('lat =' + lat + ', long =' + long); } } }); I think the issue is something to do with how the JSON is formatted but I might be incorrect. Any help would be great. Thanks, Rich

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  • Storing a jpa entity where only the timestamp changes results in updates rather than inserts (desire

    - by David Schlenk
    I have a JPA entity that stores a fk id, a boolean and a timestamp: @Entity public class ChannelInUse implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(nullable = false) private Channel channel; private boolean inUse = false; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date inUseAt = new Date(); ... } I want every new instance of this entity to result in a new row in the table. For whatever reason no matter what I do it always results in the row getting updated with a new timestamp value rather than creating a new row. Even tried to just use a native query to run an insert but channel's ID wasn't populated yet so I gave up on that. I've tried using an embedded id class consisting of channel.getId and inUseAt. My equals and hashcode for are: public boolean equals(Object obj){ if(this == obj) return true; if(!(obj instanceof ChannelInUse)) return false; ChannelInUse ciu = (ChannelInUse) obj; return ( (this.inUseAt == null ? ciu.inUseAt == null : this.inUseAt.equals(ciu.inUseAt)) && (this.inUse == ciu.inUse) && (this.channel == null ? ciu.channel == null : this.channel.equals(ciu.channel)) ); } /** * hashcode generated from at, channel and inUse properties. */ public int hashCode(){ int hash = 1; hash = hash * 31 + (this.inUseAt == null ? 0 : this.inUseAt.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (this.channel == null ? 0 : this.channel.hashCode()); if(inUse) hash = hash * 31 + 1; else hash = hash * 31 + 0; return hash; } } I've tried using hibernate's Entity annotation with mutable=false. I'm probably just not understanding what makes an entity unique or something. Hit the google pretty hard but can't figure this one out.

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  • PHP question about global variables and form requests

    - by user220201
    Hi, This is probably a stupid question but will ask anyway sine I have no idea. I have written basic php code which serve forms. Say I have a login page and I serve it using the login.php page and it will be called in the login.html page like this - <form action="login.php" method="post"> By this it is also implied that every POST needs its own php file, doesn't it? This kind of feels weird. Is there a way to have a single file, say code.php, and just have each of the forms as functions instead? EDIT: Specifically, say I have 5 forms that are used one after the other in my application. Say after login the user does A, B, C and D tasks each of which are sent to the server as a POST request. So instead of having A.php, B.php, C.php and D.php I would like to have a single code.php and have A(), B(), C() and D() as functions. Is there a way to do this? Also on the same note, how do I deal with say a global array (e.g. an array of currently logged in users) across multiple forms? I want to do this without writing to a DB. I know its probably better to write to a DB and query but is it even possible to do it with a global array? The reason I was thinking about having all the form functions in one file is to use a global array. Thanks, - Pav

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  • Listen to Response on HTML Form embedded in GWT View?

    - by confile
    I have a HTML like the following: <div> <form> <input type="text" /> <button class="sendForm" value="Send form" /> </form> </div> <script> // post the form with Jquery post // register a callback that handles the response </script> I use this type of form a lot with a JavaScript/JQuery overlay that displays the form. That could be handled for example with plugins like FancyBox. I also want to use this form embedded into a GWT view. Lets assume that the for cannot be created on client side because it has some server based markup language inside to set up some model data. If I want to use this form in GWT I have to do the following. Tell GWT the form request url and use a RequestBuilder to query the html content of this form. Then I can insert it into a div generated by GWT. So far so good. Problem: When the user hits the send button the response is handled my the JQuery callback that is inside the script under the form. Is there a way to access this callback from within GWT? Is there a way to overwrite the JQuery send action? Since, the code is HTML and comes from the server I cannot place ui-binder UiFields inside to get access to these DOM elements. I need to get the response if the submitted form accessible to GWT. Is there a way how I can achieve this with JSNI?

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  • entity framework insert bug

    - by tmfkmoney
    I found a previous question which seemed related but there's no resolution and it's 5 months old so I've opened my own version. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1545583/entity-framework-inserting-new-entity-via-objectcontext-does-not-use-existing-e When I insert records into my database with the following it works fine for a while and then eventually it starts inserting null values in the referenced field. This typically happens after I do an update on my model from the database although not always after I do an update. I'm using a MySQL database for this. I have debugged the code and the values are being set properly before the save event. They're just not getting inserted properly. I can always fix this issue by re-creating the model without touching any of my code. I have to recreate the entire model, though. I can't just dump the relevant tables and re-add them. This makes me think it doesn't have anything to do with my code but something with the entity framework. Does anyone else have this problem and/or solved it? using (var db = new MyModel()) { var stocks = from record in query let ticker = record.Ticker select new { company = db.Companies.FirstOrDefault(c => c.ticker == ticker), price = Convert.ToDecimal(record.Price), date_stamp = Convert.ToDateTime(record.DateTime) }; foreach (var stock in stocks) { if (stock.company != null) { var price = new StockPrice { Company = stock.company, price = stock.price, date_stamp = stock.date_stamp }; db.AddToStockPrices(price); } } db.SaveChanges(); }

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  • How do you lock down & secure files stored on server in ASP.NET?

    - by Jon
    How do I go about securing files that are stored on the server? We have an ASP.NET app which generates PDFs. These are not stored in the wwwroot folder but in another folder i.e. C:\inetpub\data. This provides more security but maybe not enough. The ASP.NET/IIS process will need write access to this folder so it generate the PDFs there. Once the pdf is generated, it can be viewed using an ASP.NET form called viewpdf.aspx with the file to be viewed add to the query string like so viewpdf.aspx?FILE=mynewfile.pdf. This is loaded from a gridview. The full path to C:\inetpub\data is resolved and loaded in the Page_load event of the viewer page. Now I'm wondering how to secure this. Anybody could just view the file. Not by entering in the URL, as it won't been seen by IIS (its not in wwwroot), but could change the querystring in the viewpdf page. How do I stop anybody hacking this?

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  • urgent..haskell mini interpreter

    - by mohamed elshikh
    i'm asked to implement this project and i have problems in part b which is the eval function this is the full describtion of the project You are required to implement an interpreter for mini-Haskell language. An interpreter is dened in Wikipedia as a computer program that executes, i.e. performs, instructions written in a programming language. The interpreter should be able to evaluate functions written in a special notation, which you will dene. A function is dened by: Function name Input Parameters : dened as a list of variables. The body of the function. The body of the function can be any of the following statements: a) Variable: The function may return any of the input variables. b) Arithmetic Expressions: The arithmetic expressions include input variables and addition, sub- traction, multiplication, division and modulus operations on arithmetic expressions. c) Boolean Expressions: The Boolean expressions include the ordering of arithmetic expressions (applying the relationships: <, =<, , = or =) and the anding, oring and negation of Boolean expressions. d) If-then-else statements: where the if keyword is followed by a Boolean expression. The then and else parts may be followed by any of the statements described here. e) Guarded expressions: where each case consists of a boolean expression and any of the statements described here. The expression consists of any number of cases. The rst case whose condition is true, its body should be evaluated. The guarded expression has to terminate with an otherwise case. f) Function calls: the body of the function may have a call to another function. Note that all inputs passed to the function will be of type Int. The output of the function can be of type Int or Bool. To implement the interpreter, you are required to implement the following: a) Dene a datatype for the following expressions: Variables Arithmetic expressions Boolean expressions If-then-else statements Guarded expressions Functions b) Implement the function eval which evaluates a function. It takes 3 inputs: The name of a function to be evaluated represented as a string. A list of inputs to that function. The arguments will always be of datatype Int. A list of functions. Each function is represented as instance of the datatype that you have created for functions. c) Implement the function get_type that returns the type of the function (as a string). The input to this function is the same as in part b. here is what i've done data Variable = v(char) data Arth= va Variable | Add Arth Arth | Sub Arth Arth | Times Arth Arth | Divide Arth Arth data Bol= Great Arth Arth | Small Arth Arth | Geq Arth Arth | Seq Arth Arth | And Bol Bol | Or Bol Bol | Neg Bol data Cond = data Guard = data Fun =cons String [Variable] Body data Body= bodycons(String) |Bol |Cond |Guard |Arth

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  • question about MySQL transaction and trigger

    - by WilliamLou
    I quickly browsed MySQL manual but didn't find the exact information about my question. Here is my question: if I have a InnoDB table A with two triggers triggered by 'AFTER INSERT ON A' and 'AFTER UPDATE ON A'. More specifically, For example: one trigger is defined as: CREATE TRIGGER test_trigger AFTER INSERT ON A FOR EACH ROW BEGIN INSERT INTO B SELECT * FROM A WHERE A.col1 = NEW.col1 END; You can ignore the query between BEGIN AND END, basically I mean this trigger will insert several rows into table B which is also a InnoDB table. Now, if I started a transaction and then insert many rows, say: 10K rows, into table A. If there is no trigger associated with table A, all these inserts are atomic, that's for sure. Now, if table A is associated with several insert/update triggers which insert/update many rows to table B and/or table C etc.. will all these inserts and/or updates are still all atomic? I think it's still atomic, but it's kind of difficult to test and I can't find any explanations in the Manual. Anyone can confirm this? Thanks a lot!

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  • collation conflict SQL/SERVER 2008

    - by vikitor
    Hello, I've been going around this but I haven't found a solution for my problem. My sql query is: SELECT dbo.Country.CtyRecID, dbo.Country.CtyShort, dbo.Notification.NotRecID, dbo.Notification.NotName, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCode, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCodeRecID, dbo.TaxPhylum.PhyName AS Taxon, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsNotes, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsRecID, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsKgmRecID, CASE dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsKgmRecID WHEN 1 THEN 'Animals' WHEN 2 THEN 'Plants' ELSE 'All' END AS Kingdom FROM dbo.TemporalSuspension INNER JOIN dbo.Notification ON dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsStartNotRecID = dbo.Notification.NotRecID INNER JOIN dbo.Country ON dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCtyRecID = dbo.Country.CtyRecID INNER JOIN dbo.TaxPhylum ON dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCodeRecID = dbo.TaxPhylum.PhyRecID AND dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCode LIKE 'PHY' UNION ALL SELECT dbo.Country.CtyRecID, dbo.Country.CtyShort, dbo.Notification.NotRecID, dbo.Notification.NotName, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCode, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCodeRecID, dbo.TaxClass.ClaName AS Taxon, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsNotes, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsRecID, dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsKgmRecID, CASE dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsKgmRecID WHEN 1 THEN 'Animals' WHEN 2 THEN 'Plants' ELSE 'All' END AS Kingdom FROM dbo.TemporalSuspension INNER JOIN dbo.Notification ON dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsStartNotRecID = dbo.Notification.NotRecID INNER JOIN dbo.Country ON dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCtyRecID = dbo.Country.CtyRecID INNER JOIN dbo.TaxClass ON dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCodeRecID = dbo.TaxClass.ClaRecID AND dbo.TemporalSuspension.TCtsCode LIKE 'CLA' But I don't understand why it doesn't work, I keep getting this error : Cannot resolve collation conflict for column 7 in SELECT statement. What's wrong? I've used this other times and I never got this problem. thanks

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  • Lucene DuplicateFilter question

    - by chardex
    Hi, Why DuplicateFilter doesn't work together with other filters? For example, if a little remake of the test DuplicateFilterTest, then the impression that the filter is not applied to other filters and first trims results: public void testKeepsLastFilter() throws Throwable { DuplicateFilter df = new DuplicateFilter(KEY_FIELD); df.setKeepMode(DuplicateFilter.KM_USE_LAST_OCCURRENCE); Query q = new ConstantScoreQuery(new ChainedFilter(new Filter[]{ new QueryWrapperFilter(tq), // new QueryWrapperFilter(new TermQuery(new Term("text", "out"))), // works right, it is the last document. new QueryWrapperFilter(new TermQuery(new Term("text", "now"))) // why it doesn't work? It is the third document. }, ChainedFilter.AND)); ScoreDoc[] hits = searcher.search(q, df, 1000).scoreDocs; assertTrue("Filtered searching should have found some matches", hits.length > 0); for (int i = 0; i < hits.length; i++) { Document d = searcher.doc(hits[i].doc); String url = d.get(KEY_FIELD); TermDocs td = reader.termDocs(new Term(KEY_FIELD, url)); int lastDoc = 0; while (td.next()) { lastDoc = td.doc(); } assertEquals("Duplicate urls should return last doc", lastDoc, hits[i].doc); } }

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  • Usage of autorelease pools for fetch method

    - by Matthias
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused regarding the autorelease pools when programming for the iPhone. I've read a lot and the oppionions seem to me from "Do-NOT-use" to "No problem to use". My specific problem is, I would like to have a class which encapsulates the SQLite3 Access, so I have for example the following method: -(User*)fetchUserWithId:(NSInteger)userId Now, within this method a SQL query is done and a new user object is created with the data from the database and then returned. Within this DB Access class I don't need this object anymore, so I can do a release, but since the calling method needs it, I would do an autorelease, wouldn't I? So, is it okay to use autorelease here oder would it gain too much memory, if this method is called quite frequently? Some websites say, that the autorelease pool is released first at the end of the application, some say, at every event (e.g. user touches something). If I should not use autorelease, how can I make sure, that the object is released correctly? Can I do a release in the fetch method and hope, that the object is still there until the calling method can do a retain? Thanks for your help! Regards Matthias

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  • Using ms: xpath functions inside XPathExpression

    - by Filini
    I am trying to use Microsoft XPath Extension Functions (such as ms:string-compare http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms256114.aspx) inside an XPathExpression object. These functions are extensions inside the MSXML library, and if I use them in an XslCompiledTransform (simply adding the "ms" namespace) they work like a charm: var xsl = @" <?xml version=""1.0"" encoding=""UTF-8""?> <xsl:stylesheet version=""2.0"" xmlns:xsl=""http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"" xmlns:xs=""http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"" xmlns:fn=""http://www.w3.org/2005/xpath-functions"" xmlns:ms=""urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt""> <xsl:output method=""xml"" version=""1.0"" encoding=""UTF-8"" indent=""yes""/> <xsl:template match=""/Data""> <xsl:element name=""Result""> <xsl:value-of select=""ms:string-compare(@timeout1, @timeout2)""/> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>"; var xslDocument = new XmlDocument(); xslDocument.LoadXml(xsl); var transform = new XslCompiledTransform(); transform.Load(xslDocument); Then I tried using them in an XPathExpression: XPathNavigator nav = document.DocumentElement.CreateNavigator(); XPathExpression expr = nav.Compile("ms:string-compare(/Data/@timeout1, /Data/@timeout2)"); XmlNamespaceManager manager = new XmlNamespaceManager(document.NameTable); manager.AddNamespace("ms", "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt"); expr.SetContext(manager); nav.Evaluate(expr); But I get an exception "XsltContext is needed for this query because of an unknown function". XsltContext is a specific XmlNamespaceManager, but I don't know if it's possible to instantiate it without an actual XslCompiledTransform (it's abstract) and use it as my expression context. Is there any way to do this (or any other way to use ms: extensions inside an XPathExpression)?

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  • How does DATEDIFF calculate week differences in SQL Server 2005?

    - by eksortso
    I would like to calculate the difference in weeks between two dates, where two dates are considered part of the same week if their preceding Sunday is the same. Ideally, I'd like to do this using DATEDIFF, instead of learning an elaborate idiom to calculate the value. But I can't tell how it works when weeks are involved. The following query returns 1 and 2. This might make sense if your calendar week begins with a Sunday, i.e. if you run SET DATEFIRST 7 beforehand or if @@DATEFIRST is 7 by default. SET DATEFIRST 7; -- SET DATEFIRST 1; DECLARE @d1 DATETIME, @d2a DATETIME, @d2b DATETIME ; SELECT @d1 = '2010-04-05', -- Monday @d2a = '2010-04-16', -- Following Friday @d2b = '2010-04-18' -- the Sunday following ; SELECT DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2a) AS weekdiff_a -- returns 1 ,DATEDIFF(week, @d1, @d2b) AS weekdiff_b -- returns 2 ; So I expected different results if SET DATEFIRST 1 is executed instead of SET DATEFIRST 7. But the return values are the same, regardless! What is going on here? What should I do to get the correct week differences?

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  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

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  • Open-sourcing a web site with active users?

    - by Lars Yencken
    I currently run several research-related web-sites with active users, and these sites use some personally identifying information about these users (their email address, IP address, and query history). Ideally I'd release the code to these sites as open source, so that other people could easily run similar sites, and more importantly scrutinise and replicate my work, but I haven't been comfortable doing so, since I'm unsure of the security implications. For example, I wouldn't want my users' details to be accessed or distributed by a third party who found some flaw in my site, something which might be easy to do with full source access. I've tried going half-way by refactoring the (Django) site into more independent modules, and releasing those, but this is very time consuming, and in practice I've never gotten around to releasing enough that a third party can replicate the site(s) easily. I also feel that maybe I'm kidding myself, and that this process is really no different to releasing the full source. What would you recommend in cases like this? Would you open-source the site and take the risk? As an alternative, would you advertise the source as "available upon request" to other researchers, so that you at least know who has the code? Or would you just apologise to them and keep it closed in order to protect users?

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