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• Authenticated user cannot log in, "The user does not exist or is not unique."

  - by Aquinas

  This is a weird one. I have a WSS3 site, no MOSS, with a custom membership and role provider that authenticates against CRM. All the users have also been added to the site user list so once logged in they have correct display names. On dev and stage everything works fine, but on UAT the users can't get past the login screen. The login screen is working, in that if you type an incorrect password for a user it comes back with the right message, meaning the custom provider is working fine. If you fill the login form in correctly you are immediately redirected straight back to the login screen, with the IIS logs showing that the login screen sent the authenticated user to the site and then was sent back. Setting the site to allow anonymous access shows that the user is not logged in on the site side after authenticating correctly. The ULS logs show: The user does not exist or is not unique. Found 1 trusted forests nzct.local. Found 0 trusted domains Adding logging code to the site I have verified that the membership provider is correctly set, and can find the user when asked. Also, when accessing the site user list, I can find the SP user with the right name. It just refuses to set the current user to be the authenticated user. Weird.

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• Php index page utitlizing an idea for a superswitch...

  - by Matt

  I dont know if this is a great idea...or a crap one. But I was thinking I may use one page to display all my pages using includes. Here is what my index.php would look like...on the functions include there is a function called "superSwitch" which will determine what requested page will be included....for instance if I do a get ?a=a it will goto the function superSwitch(a) superSwitch will take it and associate it with (login.php) then respond with such... here is the code for the index.php...please let me know if this makes sense and might work, or should I just stick to long blocks of code (which is why I am trying this because I hate long pages full of code...) of course as you can tell it is not actually including anything yet...the print is for debugging purposes. :) Thanks, Matt <?php //includes Functions include_once('inc/func.inc.php'); //set superget variable $superget = @$_GET['a']; //check if superget is set or null if (!$superget) { echo "Nothing Requested :)"; } else { //sanitizes the superget request $supergetr = supergetSanitize($superget) //uses the result "good" or "nogood" to determine what happens if ( $supergetr == "good" ) { //pulls superSwitch value of the request $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } //if the sanitize is nogood else { //the superSwitch is instructed to respond with a 404 page $superget = "404" $ssresult = superSwitch($superget); print_r ($ssresult); } } ?>

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• What are the fastest-performing options for a read-only, unordered collection of unique strings?

  - by Dan Tao

  Disclaimer: I realize the totally obvious answer to this question is HashSet<string>. It is absurdly fast, it is unordered, and its values are unique. But I'm just wondering, because HashSet<T> is a mutable class, so it has Add, Remove, etc.; and so I am not sure if the underlying data structure that makes these operations possible makes certain performance sacrifices when it comes to read operations -- in particular, I'm concerned with Contains. Basically, I'm wondering what are the absolute fastest-performing data structures in existence that can supply a Contains method for objects of type string. Within or outside of the .NET framework itself. I'm interested in all kinds of answers, regardless of their limitations. For example I can imagine that some structure might be restricted to strings of a certain length, or may be optimized depending on the problem domain (e.g., range of possible input values), etc. If it exists, I want to hear about it. One last thing: I'm not restricting this to read-only data structures. Obviously any read-write data structure could be embedded inside a read-only wrapper. The only reason I even mentioned the word "read-only" is that I don't have any requirement for a data structure to allow adding, removing, etc. If it has those functions, though, I won't complain.

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• need help fixing unique key in rails. rails is adding id causing duplicate key

  - by railsnew

  I need some help in fixing the below issue. I had transaction blocks in my rails code like below: @sqlcontact = "INSERT INTO contacts (id,\"cid\", \"hphone\", mphone, provider, cemail, email, sms , mail, phone) VALUES ('"+@id1+"','" + @id1 + "', '"+ params[:hphone] + "', '"+params[:mphone]+ "', '" + params[:provider] + "', '" + params[:cemail]+ "', '" + @varemail+ "', '"+@varsms+ "', '"+ @varmail+"', '"+@varphone+"')" my app was deployed to heroku so I was advised by them to remove transaction blocks. So I changed the above to: @cont = Contact.new(:id => @id1, :cid => @id1, :hphone => params[:hphone], :mphone => params[:mphone], :provider => params[:provider], :cemail => params[:cemail], :email => @varemail, :sms => @varsms, :mail => @varmail, :phone => @varphone) @cont.save My app also already had data stored. Now the problem is that when I try to save a record ...I keep getting the error: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "contacts_pkey" The error also shows the sql query trying to insert data ...however, in that sql query i Do not see id value. As you can see from my code that I am passing the id. then why is rails not accepting it? does it always include its own sequential id? can I not overwrite the default rails magic? and if it does that...does it not look at data that is already in the DB?? I am really stuck here. What should I do? should I just go back to my transaction block

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• How do I relate two models/tables in Django based on non primary non unique keys?

  - by wizard

  I've got two tables that I need to relate on a single field po_num. The data is imported from another source so while I have a little bit of control over what the tables look like but I can't change them too much. What I want to do is relate these two models so I can look up one from the other based on the po_num fields. What I really need to do is join the two tables so I can do a where on a count of the related table. I would like to do filter for all Order objects that have 0 related EDI856 objects. I tried adding a foreign key to the Order model and specified the db_column and to_fields as po_num but django didn't like that the fact that Edi856.po_num wasn't unique. Here are the important fields of my current models that let me display but not filter for the data that I want. class Edi856(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True ) class Order(models.Model): po_num = models.CharField(max_length=90, db_index=True) def in_edi(self): '''Has the edi been processed?''' return Edi856.objects.filter(po_num = self.po_num).count() Thanks for taking the time to read about my problem. I'm not sure what to do from here.

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• Why doesn't java.util.Set have get(int index)?

  - by Marty Pitt

  I'm sure there's a good reason, but could someone please explain why the java.util.Set interface lacks get(int Index), or any similar get() method? It seems that sets are great for putting things into, but I can't find an elegant way of retrieving a single item from it. If I know I want the first item, I can use set.iterator().next(), but otherwise it seems I have to cast to an Array to retrieve an item at a specific index? What are the appropriate ways of retrieving data from a set? (other than using an iterator) I'm sure the fact that it's excluded from the API means there's a good reason for not doing this -- could someone please enlighten me? EDIT: Some extremely great answers here, and a few saying "more context". The specific scneario was a dbUnit test, where I could reasonalby assert that the returned set from a query had only 1 item, and I was trying to access that item. However, the question is more valid without the scenario, as it remains more focussed : What's the difference between set & list. Thanks to all for the fantastic answers below.

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• wordpress generating slow mysql queries - is it index problem?

  - by tash

  Hello Stack Overflow I've got very slow Mysql queries coming up from my wordpress site. It's making everything slow and I think this is eating up CPU usage. I've pasted the Explain results for the two most frequently problematic queries below. This is a typical result - although very occasionally teh queries do seem to be performed at a more normal speed. I have the usual wordpress indexes on the database tables. You will see that one of the queries is generated from wordpress core code, and not from anything specific - like the theme - for my site. I have a vague feeling that the database is not always using the indexes/is not using them properly... Is this right? Does anyone know how to fix it? Or is it a different problem entirely? Many thanks in advance for any help anyone can offer - it is hugely appreciated Query: [wp-blog-header.php(14): wp()] SELECT SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS wp_posts.* FROM wp_posts WHERE 1=1 AND wp_posts.post_type = 'post' AND (wp_posts.post_status = 'publish' OR wp_posts.post_status = 'private') ORDER BY wp_posts.post_date DESC LIMIT 0, 6 id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE wp_posts ref type_status_date type_status_date 63 const 427 Using where; Using filesort Query time: 34.2829 (ms) 9) Query: [wp-content/themes/LMHR/index.php(40): query_posts()] SELECT SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS wp_posts.* FROM wp_posts WHERE 1=1 AND wp_posts.ID NOT IN ( SELECT tr.object_id FROM wp_term_relationships AS tr INNER JOIN wp_term_taxonomy AS tt ON tr.term_taxonomy_id = tt.term_taxonomy_id WHERE tt.taxonomy = 'category' AND tt.term_id IN ('217', '218', '223', '224') ) AND wp_posts.post_type = 'post' AND (wp_posts.post_status = 'publish' OR wp_posts.post_status = 'private') ORDER BY wp_posts.post_date DESC LIMIT 0, 6 id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY wp_posts ref type_status_date type_status_date 63 const 427 Using where; Using filesort 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY tr ref PRIMARY,term_taxonomy_id PRIMARY 8 func 1 Using index 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY tt eq_ref PRIMARY,term_id_taxonomy,taxonomy PRIMARY 8 antin1_lovemusic2010.tr.term_taxonomy_id 1 Using where Query time: 70.3900 (ms)

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• Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

  - by Scarface

  First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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• Algorithm for assigning a unique series of bits for each user?

  - by Mark

  The problem seems simple at first: just assign an id and represent that in binary. The issue arises because the user is capable of changing as many 0 bits to a 1 bit. To clarify, the hash could go from 0011 to 0111 or 1111 but never 1010. Each bit has an equal chance of being changed and is independent of other changes. What would you have to store in order to go from hash - user assuming a low percentage of bit tampering by the user? I also assume failure in some cases so the correct solution should have an acceptable error rate. I would an estimate the maximum number of bits tampered with would be about 30% of the total set. I guess the acceptable error rate would depend on the number of hashes needed and the number of bits being set per hash. I'm worried with enough manipulation the id can not be reconstructed from the hash. The question I am asking I guess is what safe guards or unique positioning systems can I use to ensure this happens.

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• Within an aray of objects can one create a new instance of an object at an index?

  - by David

  Here's the sample code: class TestAO { int[] x; public TestAO () { this.x = new int[5] ; for (int i = 0; i<x.length; i++) x[i] = i; } public static void main (String[]arg) { TestAO a = new TestAO (); System.out.println (a) ; TestAO c = new TestAO () ; c.x[3] = 35 ; TestAO[] Z = new TestAO[3] ; Z[0] = a ; Z[1] = (TestAO b = new TestAO()) ; Z[2] = c ; } } When i try to compile this i get an error message at the line Z[1] which reads as follows: TestAO.java:22: ')' expected Z[1] = (TestAO b = new TestAO()) ; ^ What i'm trying to do here is create an instance of the object TestAO that i want to be in that index within the assignment of the value at that index instead of creating the instance of the object outside of the array like i did with a. Is this legal and i'm just making some syntax error that i can't see (thus causing the error message) or can what i'm trying to do just not be done?

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• How do I use an index in an array reference as a method reference in Perl?

  - by Robert P

  Similar to this question about iterating over subroutine references, and as a result of answering this question about a OO dispatch table, I was wondering how to call a method reference inside a reference, without removing it first, or if it was even possible. For example: package Class::Foo; use 5.012; #Yay autostrict! use warnings; # a basic constructor for illustration purposes.... sub new { my $class = shift; return bless {}, $class; } # some subroutines for flavor... sub sub1 { say 'in sub 1' } sub sub2 { say 'in sub 2' } sub sub3 { say 'in sub 3' } # and a way to dynamically load the tests we're running... sub sublist { my $self = shift; return [ $self->can('sub1'); $self->can('sub3'}; $self->can('sub2'); ]; } package main; my $instance = Class::Foo->new(a => 1, b => 2, c => 3); my $tests = $instance->sublist(); my $index = int(rand($#{$tests})); # <-- HERE So, at HERE, we could do: my $ref = $tests->{$index}; $instance->$ref(); but how would we do this, without removing the reference first?

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• Performance of a get unique elements/group by operation on an IEnumerable<T>.

  - by tolism7

  I was wondering how could I improve the performance of the following code: public class MyObject { public int Year { get; set; } } //In my case I have 30000 IEnumerable<MyObject> data = MethodThatReturnsManyMyObjects(); var groupedByYear = data.GroupBy(x => x.Year); //Here is the where it takes around 5 seconds foreach (var group in groupedByYear) //do something here. The idea is to get a set of objects with unique year values. In my scenario there are only 6 years included in the 30000 items in the list so the foreach loop will be executed 6 times only. So we have many items needing to be grouped in a few groups. Using the .Distinct() with an explicit IEqualityComparer would be an alternative but somehow I feel that it wont make any difference. I can understand if 30000 items is too much and that i should be happy with the 5 seconds I get, but I was wondering if the above can be imporved performance wise. Thanks.

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• PHP: Use a string as an array index path to retreive a value.

  - by Charles

  Say I have an array like: Array ( [0] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Manager [name] => John Smith ) ) [1] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Clerk [name] => ( [first] => Jane [last] => Smith ) ) ) ) I want to be able to build a function that I can pass a string to that will act as the array index path and return the appropriate array value without using eval(). Is that possible? function($indexPath, $arrayToAccess) { //$indexPath would be something like [0]['Data']['name'] which would return //"Manager" or it could be [1]['Data']['name']['first'] which would return //"Jane" but the amount of array indexs that will be in the index path can //change, so there might be 3 like the first example, or 4 like the second. return $arrayToAccess[$indexPath] <-obviously wont work }

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• How can I get a Node adjacent to a unique Node using Scala?

  - by pr1001

  I'm trying to parse an Apple plist file and I need to get an array Node within it. Unfortunately its only unique identifier is sibling Node right before it, <key>ProvisionedDevices</key>. Right now my best thoughts are to use Java's XPATH querying or Node.indexOf. Here is an example: <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>ApplicationIdentifierPrefix</key> <array> <string>RP8CBF4MRE</string> </array> <key>CreationDate</key> <date>2010-05-10T11:44:35Z</date> <key>DeveloperCertificates</key> <array> ... <key>ProvisionedDevices</key> <array> ... // I need the Nodes here </array> </dict> </plist> Thanks!

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• (How) Can I approximate a "dynamic" index (key extractor) for Boost MultiIndex?

  - by Sarah

  I have a MultiIndex container of boost::shared_ptrs to members of class Host. These members contain private arrays bool infections[NUM_SEROTYPES] revealing Hosts' infection statuses with respect to each of 1,...,NUM_SEROTYPES serotypes. I want to be able to determine at any time in the simulation the number of people infected with a given serotype, but I'm not sure how: Ideally, Boost MultiIndex would allow me to sort, for example, by Host::isInfected( int s ), where s is the serotype of interest. From what I understand, MultiIndex key extractors aren't allowed to take arguments. An alternative would be to define an index for each serotype, but I don't see how to write the MultiIndex container typedef ... in such an extensible way. I will be changing the number of serotypes between simulations. (Do experienced programmers think this should be possible? I'll attempt it if so.) There are 2^(NUM_SEROTYPES) possible infection statuses. For small numbers of serotypes, I could use a single index based on this number (or a binary string) and come up with some mapping from this key to actual infection status. Counting is still darn slow. I could maintain a separate structure counting the total numbers of infecteds with each serotype. The synchrony is a bit of a pain, but the memory is fine. I would prefer a slicker option, since I would like to do further sorts on other host attributes (e.g., after counting the number infected with serotype s, count the number of those infected who are also in a particular household and have a particular age). Thanks in advance.

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• Rails: How to name and create unique divs within a loop?

  - by sscirrus

  I have a view with a div that is looped many times. Each of the created divs need to have a unique ID so I can access them specifically (at the moment, all my divs have the same ID specified in html so whenever I try to access a specific div it just finds the first one). This is the version that I currently have (multiple 'rowBox'es are not discernible). <% @customers.each do |customer| %> <div id="customer" class="rowBox"> ... </div> <% end %> I would like to be able to do something like: <% @customers.each do |customer| %> <div id="box<%=customer.id%>"> ... </div> <% end %> This doesn't seem to work. Any ideas on how to accomplish this?

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• C# Method not returning a unique value when it should be.

  - by Josh King

  I have two methods, generateNounPhrase() and generateVerbPhrase(). VerbPhrase will call on NounPhrase half the time and it's output the output should be something to the effect of: the empty lot re-animates this pyramid (bold indicating where generateNounPhrase() is logically called). The true output however is in the form of: the empty lot re-animates the empty lot At first I thought my randomIndex method wasn't working as I had intended, but if I run the two methods again I do get different noun phrases but they are not unique at the beginning and end of the sentence as they should be. Any idea what I am doing wrong in order to get one method to show the same result? private string generateNounPhrase() { string nounPhraseString = ""; nounPhraseString = nounMarkersStringList[randomIndex(0,nounMarkersStringList.Count-1)]; if (included(1, 4, 2) == true) { nounPhraseString += " " + adjectivesStringList[randomIndex(0, adjectivesStringList.Count - 1)]; } nounPhraseString += " " + nounsStringList[randomIndex(0, nounsStringList.Count - 1)]; return nounPhraseString; } private string generateVerbPhrase() { string verbPhraseString = ""; if (included(1, 4, 2) == true) { verbPhraseString = intransitiveVerbsStringList[randomIndex(0, intransitiveVerbsStringList.Count - 1)]; } else { verbPhraseString = transitiveVerbsStringList[randomIndex(0, transitiveVerbsStringList.Count - 1)] + " " + generateNounPhrase(); } return verbPhraseString; }

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• PHP - How do you secure a unique variable name?

  - by 102319141763223461745

  This function cropit, which I shamelessly stole off the internet, crops a 90x60 area from an existing image. In this code, when I use the function for more than one item (image) the one will display on top of the other (they come to occupy the same output space). I think this is because the function has the same (static) name ($dest) for the destination of the image when it's created (imagecopy). I tried, as you can see to include a second argument to the cropit function which would serve as the "name" of the $dest variable, but it didn't work. In the interest of full disclosure I have 22 hours of PHP experience (incidentally the same number of hours since the last I slept) and I am not that smart to begin with. Even if there's something else at work here entirely, seems to me that generally it must be useful to have a way to secure that a variable is always given a unique name. function cropit($srcimg, $dest) { $im = imagecreatefromjpeg($srcimg); $img_width = imagesx($im); $img_height = imagesy($im); $width = 90; $height = 60; $tlx = floor($img_width / 2) - floor ($width / 2); $tly = floor($img_height / 2) - floor ($height / 2); if ($tlx < 0) { $tlx = 0; } if ($tly < 0) { $tly = 0; } if (($img_width - $tlx) < $width) { $width = $img_width - $tlx; } if (($img_height - $tly) < $height) { $height = $img_height - $tly; } $dest = imagecreatetruecolor ($width, $height); imagecopy($dest, $im, 0, 0, $tlx, $tly, $width, $height); imagejpeg($dest); imagedestroy($dest); } $img = "imagefolder\imageone.jpg"; $img2 = "imagefolder\imagetwo.jpg"; cropit($img, $i1); cropit($img2, $i2); ?

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• Is it possible to get a truly unique id for a particular JVM instance?

  - by Uri

  I need a way to uniquely and permanently identify an instance of the JVM from within Java code running in that JVM. That is, if I have two JVMs running at the same time on the same machine, each is distinguishable. It is also distinguishable from running JVMs on other machines and from future executions on the same machine even if the process id is reused. I figure I could implement something like this by identifying the start time, the machine MAC, and the process id, and combining them in some way. I'm wondering if there is some standard way to achieve this. Update: I see that everyone recommended a UUID for the entire session. That seems like a good idea though possibly a little too heavyweight. Here is my problem though: I want to use the JVM id to create multiple unique identifiers in each JVM execution that somehow incorporate the JVM instance. My understanding is that you shouldn't really mix other numbers into a UUID because uniqueness is no longer guaranteed. An alternative is to make the UUID into a string and chain it, but then it becomes too long. Any ideas on overcoming this?

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• Querying for a unique value based on the aggregate of another value while grouping on a third value

  - by Justin Swartsel

  So I know this problem isn't a new one, but I'm trying to wrap my head around it and understand the best way to deal with scenarios like this. Say I have a hypothetical table 'X' that looks like this: GroupID ID (identity) SomeDateTime -------------------------------------------- 1 1000 1/1/01 1 1001 2/2/02 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1003 4/4/04 2 1004 5/5/05 I want to query it so the result set looks like this: ---------------------------------------- 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1004 5/5/05 Basically what I want is the MAX SomeDateTime value grouped by my GroupID column. The kicker is that I DON'T want to group by the ID column, I just want to know the 'ID' that corresponds to the MAX SomeDateTime. I know one pseudo-solution would be: ;WITH X1 as ( SELECT MAX(SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime, GroupID FROM X GROUP BY GroupID ) SELECT X1.SomeDateTime, X1.GroupID, X2.ID FROM X1 INNER JOIN X as X2 ON X.DateTime = X2.DateTime But this doesn't solve the fact that a DateTime might not be unique. And it seems sloppy to join on a DateTime like that. Another pseudo-solution could be: SELECT X.GroupID, MAX(X.ID) as ID, MAX(X.SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime FROM X GROUP BY X.GroupID But there are no guarantees that ID will actually match the row that SomeDateTime comes from. A third less useful option might be: SELECT TOP 1 X.GroupID, X.ID, X.SomeDateTime FROM X WHERE X.GroupID = 1 ORDER BY X.SomeDateTime DESC But obviously that only works with a single, known, GroupID. I want to be able to join this result set on GroupID and/or ID. Does anyone know of any clever solutions? Any good uses of windowing functions? Thanks!

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• Retrieving an element by array index in jQuery vs the each() function.

  - by Alex Ciminian

  I was writing a "pluginable" function when I noticed the following behavior (tested in FF 3.5.9 with Firebug 1.5.3). $.fn.computerMove = function () { var board = $(this); var emptySquares = board.find('div.clickable'); var randPosition = Math.floor(Math.random() * emptySquares.length); emptySquares.each(function (index) { if (index === randPosition) { // logs a jQuery object console.log($(this)); } }); target = emptySquares[randPosition]; // logs a non-jQuery object console.log(target); // throws error: attr() not a function for target board.placeMark({'position' : target.attr('id')}); } I noticed the problem when the script threw an error at target.attr('id') (attr not a function). When I checked the log, I noticed that the output (in Firebug) for target was: <div style="width: 97px; height: 97px;" class="square clickable" id="8"></div> If I output $(target), or $(this) from the each() function, I get a nice jQuery object: [ div#8.square ] Now here comes my question: why does this happen, considering that find() seems to return an array of jQuery objects? Why do I have to do $() to target all over again? [div#0.square, div#1.square, div#2.square, div#3.square, div#4.square, div#5.square, div#6.square, div#7.square, div#8.square] Just a curiosity :).

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• How to add a checkbox for each row in Rails 3.2 index page?

  - by user938363

  We would like to add a checkbox to each row on Rails index page to flag for the row. This checkbox is not part of the object (no checkbox boolean in database). When the index page shows, a user can check the box to trigger an event for the row in following process: #objects/checkbox_index.html.erb <table> <tr> <th>CheckBox</th> <th>Object Name</th> <th>Object ID</th> </tr> <%= @objects.each do |obj| %> <tr> <td><%= checkbox %></td> <td><%= obj.name %></td> <td><%= obj.id %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> In controller, the process will be like this: @objects.each do |obj| some_event if obj.checked end There are a couple of questions we don't quite understand: 1. How to declare an array checkbox variable on the form and link it to each row of obj? We have been using `attr_accessor` to declare var for a form. 2. How to retrieve each row on checkbox_index form and pass them back to controller? We are using simple_form for new/edit. Can anyone point me towards any good examples of this sort of behavior, or suggest what we should be thinking about? Many Thanks.

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• Index a set of files to search their text quickly?

  - by Ricket

  I have a unique need: I am frequently searching a large set of text files for a keyword. Right now, I open up Notepad++ and use the "Find in files" feature. It works just fine, but with the amount of files, each search takes several minutes to complete. Is there a good program more suited for this purpose, perhaps that indexes a set of files and then lets you search the set repeatedly and very quickly? It would greatly speed up my workflow.

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• Apache mod_rewrite driving me mad

  - by WishCow

  The scenario I have a webhost that is shared among multiple sites, the directory layout looks like this: siteA/ - css/ - js/ - index.php siteB/ - css/ - js/ - index.php siteC/ . . . The DocumentRoot is at the top level, so, to access siteA, you type http://webhost/siteA in your browser, to access siteB, you type http://webhost/siteB, and so on. Now I have to deploy my own site, which was designed with having 3 VirtualHosts in mind, so my structure looks like this: siteD/ - sites/sitename.com/ - log/ - htdocs/ - index.php - sites/static.sitename.com - log/ - htdocs/ - css - js - sites/admin.sitename.com - log/ - htdocs/ - index.php As you see, the problem is that my index.php files are not at the top level directory, unlike the already existing sites on the webhost. Each VirtualHost should point to the corresponding htdocs/ folder: http://siteD.com -> siteD/sites/sitename.com/htdocs http://static.siteD.com -> siteD/sites/static.sitename.com/htdocs http://admin.siteD.com -> siteD/sites/admin.sitename.com/htdocs The problem I cannot have VirtualHosts on this host, so I have to emulate it somehow, possibly with mod_rewrite. The idea Have some predefined parts in all of the links on the site, that I can identify, and route accordingly to the correct file, with mod_rewrite. Examples: http://webhost/siteD/static/js/something.js -> siteD/sites/static.sitename.com/htdocs/js/something.js http://webhost/siteD/static/css/something.css -> siteD/sites/static.sitename.com/htdocs/css/something.css http://webhost/siteD/admin/something -> siteD/sites/admin.sitename.com/htdocs/index.php http://webhost/siteD/admin/sub/something -> siteD/sites/admin.sitename.com/htdocs/index.php http://webhost/siteD/something -> siteD/sites/sitename.com/htdocs/index.php http://webhost/siteD/sub/something -> siteD/sites/sitename.com/htdocs/index.php Anything that starts with http://url/sitename/admin/(.*) will get rewritten, to point to siteD/sites/admin.sitename.com/htdocs/index.php Anything that starts with http://url/sitename/static/(.*) will get rewritten, to point to siteD/sites/static.sitename.com/htdocs/$1 Anything that starts with http://url/sitename/(.*) AND did not have a match already from above, will get rewritten to point to siteD/sites/sitename.com/htdocs/index.php The solution Here is the .htaccess file that I've come up with: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/siteD/static/(.*)$ [NC] RewriteRule ^siteD/static/(.*)$ siteD/sites/static/htdocs/$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/siteD/admin/(.*)$ [NC] RewriteRule ^siteD/(.*)$ siteD/sites/admin/htdocs/index.php [L,QSA] So far, so good. It's all working. Now to add the last rule: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/siteD/(.*)$ [NC] RewriteRule ^siteD/(.*)$ siteD/sites/public/htdocs/index.php [L,QSA] And it's broken. The last rule catches everything, even the ones that have static/ or admin/ in them. Why? Shouldn't the [L] flag stop the rewriting process in the first two cases? Why is the third case evaluated? Is there a better way of solving this? I'm not sticking to rewritemod, anything is fine as long as it does not need access to server-level config. I don't have access to RewriteLog, or anything like that. Please help :(

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• How can I edit an entity in MVC4 with EF5 which has a unique constraint?

  - by Yoeri

  [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(car).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(car); } This is a controller method scaffolded by MCV 4 My "car" entity has a unique field: LicensePlate. I have custom validation on my Entity: Validation: public partial class Car { partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults) { using (var db = new GarageIncEntities()) { if (db.Cars.Any(c => c.LicensePlate.Equals(this.LicensePlate))) { validationResults.Add( new ValidationResult("This licenseplate already exists.", new string[]{"LicensePlate"})); } } } } should it be usefull, my car entity: public partial class Car:IValidatableObject { public int Id { get; set; } public string Color { get; set; } public int Weight { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public string LicensePlate { get; set; } public System.DateTime DateOfSale { get; set; } public int Type_Id { get; set; } public int Fuel_Id { get; set; } public virtual CarType Type { get; set; } public virtual Fuel Fuel { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) { var result = new List<ValidationResult>(); ValidateObject(ref result); return result; } partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults); } QUESTION: Everytime I edit a car, it raises an error: Validation failed for one or more entities. See 'EntityValidationErrors' property for more details. The error is the one raised by my validation, saying it can't edit because there is already a car with that license plate. If anyone could point me in the right direction to fix this, that would be great! I searched but couldn't find anything, so even related posts are welcome!

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