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• updating changes from one database to another database in the same server

  - by Pavan Kumar

  I have a copy of client database say 'DBCopy' which already contains modified data. The copy of the client database (DBCopy) is attached to the SQL Server where the Central Database (DBCentral) exists. Then I want to update whatever changes already present in DBCopy to DBCentral. Both DBCopy and DBCentral have same schema. How can i do it programatically using C#.NET maybe with a button click. Can you give me an example code as how to do it?. I am using SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition and VS 2008 SP1. In the actual scenario there are about 7 client database all with same schema as the central database. I am bringing copy of each client database and attach it to Central Server where the central database resides and try to update changes present in each copy of the client database to central database one by one programatically using C# .NET . The clients and the central server are physically seperate machines present in different places. They are not interconnected. I need to only update and insert new data. I am not bothered about deletion of data. Thanks and regards Pavan

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• adding one time options to items

  - by rap-uvic

  Hello, I'm building an Event Registration site. For any given event, we'll have a handful of items to choose from. I have a table for these items. For each event we might have special options for users. For example, for one of the events new users get to buy an item which is not available to other users. This may not apply to all the events. For other events we might have some other restriction on items. I will obviously be checking this programmatically on application side. I would like to though, set up a column containing flag in the items table. But I don't find it feasible because this condition may only apply to one particular event. I don't want all the future items to have this column. What is a good approach to take in such a situation? Should I create a special "restrictions" table and just do a join? How would I handle this on the application side?

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• Python Twitter library: which one?

  - by Parand

  I realize this is a bit of a lazyweb question, but I wanted to see which python library for Twitter people have had good experiences with. I've used Python Twitter Tools and like its brevity and beauty of interface, but it doesn't seem to be one of the popular ones - it's not even listed on the Twitter Libraries page. There are, however, plenty of others listed: oauth-python-twitter2 by Konpaku Kogasa. Combines python-twitter and oauth-python-twitter to create an evolved OAuth Pokemon. python-twitter by DeWitt Clinton. This library provides a pure Python interface for the Twitter API. python-twyt by Andrew Price. BSD licensed Twitter API interface library and command line client. twitty-twister by Dustin Sallings. A Twisted interface to Twitter. twython by Ryan McGrath. REST and Search library inspired by python-twitter. Tweepy by Josh Roesslein. Supports OAuth, Search API, Streaming API. My requirements are fairly simple: Be able to use OAuth Be able to follow a user Be able to send a direct message Be able to post Streaming API would be nice Twisted one aside (I'm not using twisted in this case), have you used any of the others, and if so, do you recommend them? [Update] FWIW, I ended up going with Python Twitter Tools again. The new version supported OAuth nicely, and it's a very clever API, so I stuck to it.

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• Loading one page inside another

  - by Robin I Knight

  User 'Citizen' provided an answer to the iframe situation with the ajax script from dynamic drive. As I predicted it although it loads one page inside another it does not work with the calculation scripts, collapsible panels, validation form. All of it simply not working. I have set up a test page that has the exact same HEAD section as the page that is loaded inside it, so it is not s problem of script location. Take a look and see if you can tell me what is going on. Baring in mind this is just a test page. On the test page the entire page is loaded from another and as you can see all the collapsible panels are open, all calculations except the duration are not working because another file that is loaded by ajax on the original page is not loading in this one, the accordion menu us not working and the validation form is not validating. It is as if all script triggers have been removed and left behind but like I said the HEAD section of the parent page contains all of the scripts as well. Any ideas http://www.divethegap.com/scuba-diving-programmes-dive-the-gap/programme-pages/dahab-divemaster/test.php

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• batch file to merge .js files from subfolders into one combined file

  - by Andrew Johns

  I'm struggling to get this to work. Plenty of examples on the web, but they all do something just slightly different to what I'm aiming to do, and every time I think I can solve it, I get hit by an error that means nothing to me. After giving up on the JSLint.VS plugin, I'm attempting to create a batch file that I can call from a Visual Studio build event, or perhaps from cruise control, which will generate JSLint warnings for a project. The final goal is to get a combined js file that I can pass to jslint, using: cscript jslint.js < tmp.js which would validate that my scripts are ready to be combined into one file for use in a js minifier, or output a bunch of errors using standard output. but the js files that would make up tmp.js are likely to be in multiple subfolders in the project, e.g: D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\somefile.debug.js D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\jquery\plugins\jquery.plugin.js The ideal solution would be to be able to call a batch file along the lines of: jslint.bat %ProjectPath% and this would then combine all the js files within the project into one temp js file. This way I would have flexibility in which project was being passed to the batch file. I've been trying to make this work with copy, xcopy, type, and echo, and using a for do loop, with dir /s etc, to make it do what I want, but whatever I try I get an error.

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• JS encodeURIComponent result different from the one created by FORM

  - by Marco Demaio

  I thought values entered in forms are properly encoded by browsers. But this simple test shows it's not true: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=windows-1252"> <title></title> </head><body> <form id="test" action="test_get_vs_encodeuri.html" method="GET" onsubmit="alert(encodeURIComponent(this.one.value));"> <input name="one" type="text" value="Euro-€"> <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT"> </form> </body></html> When hitting submit button: encodeURICompenent encodes input value into "Euro-%E2%82%AC" while browser into the GET query writes only a simple "Euro-%80" Could somone explain? Or is encodeURIComponent doing unnecessary conversions?

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• Help with php code - need to add condition to make one link https

  - by Kaskade

  Hi, I have a wordpress blog and I need to make one of the pages secure. I have been told to make the link to that page point to https://claimpage.html as opposed to http://claimpage.html. The problem is I don't actually create the menu that links the user to the individual pages. This is done automatically by the code in the background. I think I need to put in some sort of an IF statement, saying, if the title of the page is "claim now" then use https otherwise use http. I found this code in the header.php so I think my changes need to go in here but I'm not really sure what to do. <div id="navbar"> <ul class="menu"> <li class="<?php if ( is_home() ) { ?>current_page_item<?php } else { ?>page_item<?php } ?>"><a href="<?php echo get_settings('home'); ?>"><?php _e('Home'); ?></a></li> <?php wp_list_pages('sort_column=id&depth=1&title_li='); ?> <?php wp_register('<li>','</li>'); ?> </ul> </div> <!-- end of #navbar --> Any suggestions as to how I can make one page that I know the title and url or https while the others are kept using normal http? The site is hosted on a secure server so I do have an ssl certificate.

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• Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

  - by Harel Moshe

  Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

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• Toggle row visibility one at a time

  - by kuswantin

  I have a couple of tables with similar structures like this: <table> <tbody> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> ..etc --- The fake button is added here <div class="addrow">Add another</div> </tbody> </table> Since this is a long list, I have a need to toggle the rows one at a time. I just need to show the first row, of course, the rest should be toggled. The action is when I click a dynamic fake button, it will show row no. 2, and clicking again will show another next row. This is what I have done so far: $("table#field_fruit_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("table#field_vegetables_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("body.form table.content-multiple-table tbody").append('<div class="addrow">Add</div>'); $(".addrow").click(function() { var hiddenRow = $(this).prev('tr.draggable'); $(this).prev(hiddenRow + 1).show(); //if (hiddenRow + ':last').length) { // <= silly logic // $(this).hide(); //} }); The button only works for one row. I must have done something wrong :) When the final is reached, I also want the button to disappear. Sorry if this question sound silly. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• i want to search in sql server with must have parameter in one colunm

  - by sherif4csharp

  hello i am usning c# and ms SQL server 2008 i have table like this id | propertyTypeId | FinishingQualityId | title | Description | features 1 1 2 prop1 propDEsc1 1,3,5,7 2 2 3 prop2 propDEsc2 1,3 3 6 5 prop3 propDEsc3 1 4 5 4 prop4 propDEsc4 3,5 5 4 6 prop5 propDEsc5 5,7 6 4 6 prop6 propDEsc6 and here is my stored code (search in the same table) create stored procdures propertySearch as @Id int = null, @pageSize float , @pageIndex int, @totalpageCount int output, @title nvarchar(150) =null , @propertyTypeid int = null , @finishingqualityid int = null , @features nvarchar(max) = null , -- this parameter send like 1,3 ( for example) begin select row_number () as TempId over( order by id) , id,title,description,propertyTypeId,propertyType.name,finishingQualityId,finishingQuality.Name,freatures into #TempTable from property join propertyType on propertyType.id= property.propertyTypeId join finishingQuality on finishingQuality.id = property.finishingQualityId where property.id = isnull(@id,property.id ) and proprty.PropertyTypeId= isnull(@propertyTypeid,property.propertyTypeId) select totalpageconunt = ((select count(*) from #TempTable )/@pageSize ) select * from #TempTable where tempid between (@pageindex-1)*@pagesize +1 and (@pageindex*@pageSize) end go i can't here filter the table by feature i sent. this table has to many rows i want to add to this stored code to filter data for example when i send 1,3 in features parameter i want to return row number one and two in the example table i write in this post (want to get the data from table must have the feature I send) many thanks for every one helped me and will help

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• Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

  - by Patrik Hägne

  When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

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• Copy vector of values to vector of pairs in one line

  - by Kirill V. Lyadvinsky

  I have the following types: struct X { int x; X( int val ) : x(val) {} }; struct X2 { int x2; X2() : x2() {} }; typedef std::pair<X, X2> pair_t; typedef std::vector<pair_t> pairs_vec_t; typedef std::vector<X> X_vec_t; I need to initialize instance of pairs_vec_t with values from X_vec_t. I use the following code and it works as expected: int main() { pairs_vec_t ps; X_vec_t xs; // this is not empty in the production code ps.reserve( xs.size() ); { // I want to change this block to one line code. struct get_pair { pair_t operator()( const X& value ) { return std::make_pair( value, X2() ); } }; std::transform( xs.begin(), xs.end(), back_inserter(ps), get_pair() ); } return 0; } What I'm trying to do is to reduce my copying block to one line with using boost::bind. This code is not working: for_each( xs.begin(), xs.end(), boost::bind( &pairs_vec_t::push_back, ps, boost::bind( &std::make_pair, _1, X2() ) ) ); I know why it is not working, but I want to know how to make it working without declaring extra functions and structs?

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• mysql: Average over multiple columns in one row, ignoring nulls

  - by Sai Emrys

  I have a large table (of sites) with several numeric columns - say a through f. (These are site rankings from different organizations, like alexa, google, quantcast, etc. Each has a different range and format; they're straight dumps from the outside DBs.) For many of the records, one or more of these columns is null, because the outside DB doesn't have data for it. They all cover different subsets of my DB. I want column t to be their weighted average (each of a..f have static weights which I assign), ignoring null values (which can occur in any of them), except being null if they're all null. I would prefer to do this with a simple SQL calculation, rather than doing it in app code or using some huge ugly nested if block to handle every permutation of nulls. (Given that I have an increasing number of columns to average over as I add in more outside DB sources, this would be exponentially more ugly and bug-prone.) I'd use AVG but that's only for group by, and this is w/in one record. The data is semantically nullable, and I don't want to average in some "average" value in place of the nulls; I want to only be counting the columns for which data is there. Is there a good way to do this? Ideally, what I want is something like UPDATE sites SET t = AVG(a*a_weight,b*b_weight,...) where any null values are just ignored and no grouping is happening.

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• flash creates more than one http request

  - by MilanAleksic

  We are facing one issue directly connected with our Flash API we've given to a 3rd party flash vendor. To make a long story short, our API basically wraps domain logic on client and creates a single POST request towards the server in JSON format. All will be ok except in combination MacOS + Safari we receive double requests on server (?). Even more interesting, we are receiving different agent names - one is expected name/decriptor of the browser and system, other is "CFNetwork". POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 Has anyone encounter anything like this before?

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• iphone - moving from one view to another

  - by codemonkey

  Hi there, I am getting started with iphone development and am trying to move from one view to another. I have a main view (NearestPhotosViewController) which basically acts as a menu for my app. I then have a second view (DisplayNearestPhotos). I come from a web (html) background so what i'm trying to do here in web terms is click a button (link) on the NearestPhotosViewController view to then display the DisplayNearestPhotos view. I have been looking around for some code to do this (I don't think it's as simple as doing the equivelent in html). The following code is hooked up to a button on my menu view. -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { DisplayNearestPhotos *views = [[DisplayNearestPhotos alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:views animated:YES]; views.release; } The above code works (it displays the second view) but what i'd like to know is, is that the correct way to do it? If not, what is the correct way to move from one view to another? Thank you in advance

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• Mono WCF NetTcp service takes only one client at a time

  - by vene

  While trying to build a client-server WCF application in Mono we ran into some issues. Reducing it to just a bare example we found that the service only accepts one client at a time. If another client attempts to connect, it hangs until the first one disconnects. Simply changing to BasicHttpBinding fixes it but we need NetTcpBinding for duplex communication. Also the problem does not appear if compiled under MS .NET. EDIT: I doubt (and hope not) that Mono doesn't support what I'm trying to do. Mono code usually throws NotImplementedExceptions in such cases as far as I noticed. I am using Mono v2.6.4 This is how the service is opened in our basic scenario: public static void Main (string[] args) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding (); binding.Security.Mode = SecurityMode.None; var address = new Uri ("net.tcp://localhost:8080"); var host = new ServiceHost (typeof(Hello)); host.AddServiceEndpoint (typeof(IHello), binding, address); ServiceThrottlingBehavior behavior = new ServiceThrottlingBehavior () { MaxConcurrentCalls = 100, MaxConcurrentSessions = 100, MaxConcurrentInstances = 100 }; host.Description.Behaviors.Add (behavior); host.Open (); Console.ReadLine (); host.Close (); } The client channel is obtained like this: var binding = new NetTcpBinding (); binding.Security.Mode = SecurityMode.None; var address = new EndpointAddress ("net.tcp://localhost:8080/"); var client = new ChannelFactory<IHello> (binding, address).CreateChannel (); As far as I know this is a Simplex connection, isn't it? The contract is simply: [ServiceContract] public interface IHello { [OperationContract] string Greet (string name); } Service implementation has no ServiceModel tags or attributes. I'll update with details as required.

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• Replace low level web-service reference call transport with custom one

  - by hoodoos

  I'm not sure if title sounds right actually, so I will give more explanation here. I will begin from very beginning :) I'm using c# and .net for my development. I have an application that makes requests to some soap web-service and for each user request it produces 3 to 10 requests for web-service, they should all run async to finish in one time, so I use Async method of the web-service generated reference and then wait for result on callback. But it seems like it starts a thread (or takes it from pool) for every async call I make, so if I have 10 clients I got to spawn 30 to 100 threads and it sounds terrible even for my 16 cores server :) So i wanted to replace low level transport implementation with my own which uses non-blocking sockets and can handle at least 50 sockets run parallel in one thread with not much overhead. But I actually dunno where to put my override best. I analyzed System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol class and see that it has some GetWebRequest method which I actually could use. If only I could somehow interupt the object it creates and get a http request with all headers and body from there and then send it with my own sockets.. Any ideas what approach to use? Or maybe there's something built in the framework I can use?

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• Common one-to-many table for multiple entities

  - by Ben V

  Suppose I have two tables, Customer and Vendor. I want to have a common address table for customer and vendor addresses. Customers and Vendors can both have one to many addresses. Option 1 Add columns for the AddressID to the Customer and Vendor tables. This just doesn't seem like a clean solution to me. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID AddressID1 AddressID1 Street AddressID2 AddressID2 City... Option 2 Move the foreign key to the Address table. For a Customer, Address.CustomerID will be populated. For a Vendor, Address.VendorID will be populated. I don't like this either - I shouldn't need to modify the address table every time I want to use it for another entity. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID CustomerID VendorID Option 3 I've also seen this - only 1 foreign key column on the Address table with another column to identify which foreign key table the address belongs to. I don't like this one because it requires all the foreign key tables to have the same type of ID. It also seems messy once you start coding against it. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID FKTable FKID So, am I just too picky, or is there something I haven't thought of?

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• django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

  - by Tim

  I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

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• NSIS patching (multiple patches in one file)

  - by Owen

  I'm able to generate patch files from one version to another using NSIS' Vpatch. Let's say I have mydll.dll version 1, and I have a patch to update it to version 2. Then I have a new version again, thus I generate another patch to update it to version 3. What bothers me though is, what if user cancels updating to version 2 and so forth. Then my latest version let's say is version 20. User decides to update to version 20. Is there a way to generate a patch that's like accumulative in nature? whereas user can jump from version any old version to the newest version (i.e ver 3 to ver 20) without passing through the versions in between? I've read this line in vpatch's documentation --- "if you want to be able to upgrade version 1 and 2 to version 3, you can put a 1 3 and 2 3 patch in one file." But how do I that? What if I alread have like 30 versions. Does that mean I have to create a patch whose arguments are old files(versions 1-29) and new file(version20)? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks...

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• UITableView only pushes to one controller

  - by Mitochondria

  So I have my UITableView, with 2 sections and 1 cell in each, and if I click the first one, it works, then the second one, it goes to the first controller. RootViewController is a navigationController, trying to push to ViewControllers. Here's the code for the tableView: // Customize the number of sections in the table view. - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 2; } // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { if(section == 0) return 1; else return 1; } - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section{ if(section == 0){ return @"Terminal/SSH Guides"; }else{ return @"Cydia Tutorials"; } } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Set up the cell... if(indexPath.section == 0){ cell.text = @"Changing Password for root"; } else { cell.text = @"Hiding Sections"; } return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id newController; switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: newController = [[rootpassword alloc] initWithNibName:@"rootpassword" bundle:nil]; break; case 1: newController = [[hidingsections alloc] initWithNibName:@"hidingsections" bundle:nil]; break; default: break; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:newController animated:TRUE]; [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:TRUE]; } I'm also having trouble adding more sections and rows/cells to sections. Thanks.

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• iPhone SDK: Switching to one view then back to previous view errors

  - by Nic Hubbard

  I have a UITabBarConroller that I use to switch between 3 different views. This all works perfectly. On one of my tabs, I added a button at the to called "Add", I have added an outlet to this, as well as an IBAction method which looks like the following: // Method used to load up view where we can add a new ride - (IBAction)showAddNewRideView { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AddNewRide" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end showAddNewRideView This currently works fine, and loads up my AddNewRide nib file. But, once that view loads, I have a cancel button, which, when clicked, I want to return to the previous view. So, I figured I would just do the reverse of the above, using the following method which would load back my previous nib: - (IBAction)cancelAddingNewRide { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainWindow" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end cancelAddingNewRide But, which trying to load the MainWindow nib, the program crashes, and I get the following error: 2010-05-05 20:24:37.211 Ride[6032:207] *** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450 2010-05-05 20:24:37.213 Ride[6032:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450' So, I am a little lost as to why it would work one way, but not the other.

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• How to call a javascript function from one frame to another in Chrome/Webkit

  - by bambax

  I have developped an application that has a list of items in one frame; when one clicks on an item it does something in another frame (loads an image). This used to work fine in all browsers, including Chrome 3; now it still works fine in FF but in recent versions of Chrome (I believe since 4) it throws this error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL (...) from frame with URL (...). Domains, protocols and ports must match. This is obviously a security "feature" but is it possible to get around it? Here is a simple test: index.html: <html> <frameset> <frame src="left.html" name="left"/> <frame src="right.html" name="right"/> </frameset> </html> left.html: <html> <body> <a href="javascript:parent.right.test('hello');">click me</a> </body> </html> right.html: <html> <body> <script> function test(msg) { alert(msg); } </script> </body> </html> The above works in FF 3.6 and Chrome 3 but in Chrome 5 it throws the above error...

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• Spring aop multiple pointcuts & advice but only the last one is working

  - by Jarle Hansen

  I have created two Spring AOP pointcuts that are completely separate and will be woven in for different parts of the system. The pointcuts are used in two different around advices, these around-advices will point to the same Java method. How the xml-file looks: <aop:config> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(......)" id="pointcutOne" /> <aop:pointcut expression="execution(.....)" id="pointcurTwo" /> <aop:aspect id="..." ref="springBean"> <aop:around pointcut-ref="pointcutOne" method="commonMethod" /> <aop:aroung pointcut-ref="pointcutTwo" method="commonMethod" /> </aop:aspect> </aop:config> The problem is that only the last pointcut works (if I change the order "pointcutOne" works because it is last). I have gotten it to work by creating one big pointcut, but I would like to have them separate. Any suggestions to why only one of the pointcuts works at a time?

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• How to take name in one preg_match

  - by Julianto

  Hello guys, I am trying to extract just the names result from the hypothetical HTML file below. <ul class="cat"> <li>sport</li> <li>movie</li> </ul> <ul class="person-list"> <li>name 1</li> <li>name 2</li> <li>name 3</li> <li>name 4</li> <li>name 5</li> <li>name 6</li> </ul> Ideally, the result should come in an array format like the one below: Array( name 1 , name 2 , name 3 , .......... ) OK I can easily do this with 2 regex matches but I was wondering if I can do it with just one. Thanks in advance!

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