Search Results

Search found 5189 results on 208 pages for 'foo wei tau'.

Page 9/208 | < Previous Page | 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >

  • Referencing assemblies created with ILMerge in Visual Studio projects

    - by Daniel Schaffer
    I have a solution in Visual Studio with 5 projects. They are: Foo.Core: Core functionality Foo.Api: Generated code built on top of core Foo.Web: Web-specific extensions Foo.Web.Mvc: MVC-specific extensions Newtonsoft.Json: 3rd party library I want to use ILMerge to merge Foo.Core, Foo.Api and Newtonsoft.Json into a single assembly, called Foo. That's the easy part. The problem I'm running into is that Foo.Web and Foo.Web.Mvc both need to reference all three of the merged assemblies. If I reference the original assemblies, they will have invalid references after I do the ILMerge. If I reference the ILMerged assembly, I have to reference a debug assembly and then change it before I package everything up, which doesn't seem ideal. I've tried creating a project called Foo, which references the 3 merged assemblies and replaces its own output with the ILmerged assembly, but that doesn't seem to work at all. Is there a reliable way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Recommended Visual Studio config for referencing an assembly created with ILMerge

    - by Daniel Schaffer
    I have a solution in Visual Studio with 5 projects. They are: Foo.Core: Core functionality Foo.Api: Generated code built on top of core Foo.Web: Web-specific extensions Foo.Web.Mvc: MVC-specific extensions Newtonsoft.Json: 3rd party library I want to use ILMerge to merge Foo.Core, Foo.Api and Newtonsoft.Json into a single assembly, called Foo. That's the easy part. The problem I'm running into is that Foo.Web and Foo.Web.Mvc both need to reference all three of the merged assemblies. If I reference the original assemblies, they will have invalid references after I do the ILMerge. If I reference the ILMerged assembly, I have to reference a debug assembly and then change it before I package everything up, which doesn't seem ideal. I've tried creating a project called Foo, which references the 3 merged assemblies and replaces its own output with the ILmerged assembly, but that doesn't seem to work at all. Is there a reliable way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

    Read the article

  • Case Class naming convention

    - by KChaloux
    In my recent adventures in Scala, I've found case classes to be a really nice alternative to enums when I need to include a bit of logic or several values with them. I often find myself writing structures that look like this, however: object Foo{ case class Foo(name: String, value: Int, other: Double) val BAR = Foo("bar", 1, 1.0) val BAZ = Foo("baz", 2, 1.5) val QUUX = Foo("quux", 3, 1.75) } I'm primarily worried here about the naming of the object and the case class. Since they're the same thing, I end up with Foo.Foo to get to the inner class. Would it be wise to name the case class something along the lines of FooCase instead? I'm not sure if the potential ambiguity might mess with the type system if I have to do anything with subtypes or inheritance.

    Read the article

  • Highlighting in Solr 1.4 - requireFieldMatch

    - by Mark Redding
    I have an object Title : foo Summary : foo bar Body : this is a published story about a foo and a bar All three are set up as fields with stored=true. The user searches across my system for the word "foo" I would like to highlight foo in all three places. The user searches for the word foo in the title "title:foo" I only want to highlight foo within the title. When I added hl.requireFieldMatch=true and hl.usePhraseHighlighter=true as part of my query over to SOLR I am unable to get the highlighting in all three places when doing a generic non fielded search. Is there a way to get both scenarios to work? I had these two items turned off, but I am adding in some fielded portions of the query that the user does not see which only display Published items for instance. the problem is (foo AND status:published) is causing the word published in the body to highlight when the user only searched for the word "foo".

    Read the article

  • Using Constants in Perl

    - by David W.
    I am trying to define constants in Perl using the use Constant pragma: use Constant { FOO => "bar", BAR => "foo" }; I'm running into a bit of trouble, and hoping there's a standard way of handling it. First of all... I am defining a hook script for Subversion. To make things simple, I want to have a single file where the class (package) I'm using is in the same file as my actual script. Most of this package will have constants involved in it: print "This is my program"; package "MyClass"; use constant { FOO => "bar" }; sub new { yaddah, yaddah, yaddah. I would like my constant FOO to be accessible to my main program. I would like to do this without having to refer to it as MyClass::FOO. Normally, when the package is a separate file, I could do this in my main program: use MyClass qw(FOO); but, since my class and program are a single file, I can't do that. What would be the best way for my main program to be able to access my constants defined in my class? The second issue... I would like to use the constant values as hash keys: $myHash{FOO} = "bar"; The problem is that %myHash has the literal string FOO as the key and not the value of the constant. This causes problems when I do things like this: if (defined($myHash{FOO})) { print "Key " . FOO . " does exist!\n"; } I could force the context: if (defined("" . FOO . "")) { I could add parentheses: if (defined(FOO())) { Or, I could use a temporary variable: my $foo = FOO; if (defined($foo)) { None of these are really nice ways of handling this issue. So, what is the best way? Is there one way I'm missing? By the way, I don't want to use Readonly::Scalar because it is 1). slow, and 2). not part of the standard Perl package. I want to define my hook not to require additional Perl packages and to be as simple as possible to work.

    Read the article

  • C#: Problem trying to resolve a class when two namespaces are similar

    - by rally25rs
    I'm running into an issue where I can't make a reference to a class in a different namespace. I have 2 classes: namespace Foo { public class Class1 { ... } } namespace My.App.Foo { public class Class2 { public void SomeMethod() { var x = new Foo.Class1; // compile error! } } } The compile error is: The type or namespace name 'Class1' does not exist in the namespace 'My.App.Foo' In this situation, I can't seem to get Visual Studio to recognize that "Foo.Class1" refers to the first class. If I mouse-over "Foo", it shows that its trying to resolve that to "My.App.Foo.Class1" If I put the line: using Foo; at the top of the .cs file that contains Class2, then it also resolves that to "My.App.Foo". Is there some trick to referencing the right "Foo" namespace without just renaming the namespaces so they don't conflict? Both of these namespaces are in the same assembly.

    Read the article

  • C#: Problem trying to resolve a class when two namespaces are simmilar.

    - by rally25rs
    I'm running into an issue where I can't make a reference to a class in a different namespace. I have 2 classes: namespace Foo { public class Class1 { ... } } namespace My.App.Foo { public class Class2 { public void SomeMethod() { var x = new Foo.Class1; // compile error! } } } The compile error is: The type or namespace name 'Class1' does not exist in the namespace 'My.App.Foo' In this situation, I can't seem to get Visual Studio to recognize that "Foo.Class1" refers to the first class. If I mouse-over "Foo", it shows that its trying to resolve that to "My.App.Foo.Class1" If I put the line: using Foo; at the top of the .cs file that contains Class2, then it also resolves that to "My.App.Foo". Is there some trick to referencing the right "Foo" namespace without just renaming the namespaces so they don't conflict? Both of these namespaces are in the same assembly.

    Read the article

  • How to use a dynamic smarty variable in foreach loop

    - by P Kumar
    Hi, Can anyone tell me how to use dynamic variables in smarty foreach loop. I am trying to create a module in prestashop and m very close to get it done. here's my code: //file name index.php foreach($subCategories as $s) { $foo = intval($s['id_category']); $k = new Category($foo); $var1 = "subSubCategories.$foo"; $var1 = $k-getSubCategories(1); $smarty-assign(array('foo'.$foo = $var1)); } //file name:index.tpl {assign var=foo value=$foo$cat} //where $cat is a variable that counts the number of categories {if isset($foo) AND $foo} {foreach from=$foo item=subCategories name=homesubCategories} <p>{$subCategories.name}</p> {/foreach} {else} <p>{l s='test failed'}</p> {/if} I've exhausted all of my resources and knowledge and feeling quite helpless at this moment. so plz help me out.

    Read the article

  • Need help with this basic Contains<>() extension method and Lambda expressions

    - by Polaris878
    Hi, Say I have the following class: class Foo { // ctor etc here public string Bar { get; } } Now, I have a LinkedList of Foos declared like so: LinkedList<Foo> How would I write a basic Contains<() for this? I want to be able to do this: Foo foo = new Foo(someString); LinkedList<Foo> list = new LinkedList<foo>(); // Populate list with Foos bool contains = list.Contains<Foo>(foo, (x => foo.Bar == x.Bar)); Am I trying to do this correctly? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Automatic initialization routine in C++ library?

    - by Robert Mason
    If i have a header file foo.h and a source file foo.cpp, and foo.cpp contains something along the lines of: #ifdef WIN32 class asdf { asdf() { startup_code(); } ~asdf() { cleanup_code(); } }; asdf __STARTUP_HANDLE__ #else //unix does not require startup or cleanup code in this case #endif but foo.h does not define class asdf, say i have an application bar.cpp: #include "foo.h" //link in foo.lib, foo.dll, foo.so, etc int main() { //do stuff return 0; } If bar.cpp is compiled on a WIN32 platform, will the asdf() and ~asdf() be called at the appropriate times (before main() and at program exit, respectively) even though class asdf is not defined in foo.h, but is linked in through foo.cpp?

    Read the article

  • Path with no slash after drive letter and colon - what does it point to?

    - by ya23
    I have mistyped a path and instead of c:\foo.txt wrote c:foo.txt. I expected it to either fail or to resolve to c:\foo.txt, but instead it seems to be resolved to foo.txt in a current user's home folder. Powershell returns: PS C:\> [System.IO.Path]::GetFullPath("c:\foo.txt") c:\foo.txt PS C:\> [System.IO.Path]::GetFullPath("c:foo.txt") C:\Users\Administrator\foo.txt PS C:\> [System.IO.Path]::GetFullPath("g:foo.txt") G:\foo.txt Running explorer.exe from commandline and passing it any of the above results in C:\Users\Administrator\Documents to be opened. I haven't found any documentation of that and I'm utterly confused, please explain the behaviour.

    Read the article

  • Strings in array are no longer strings after jQuery.each()

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm pretty confused with the behaviour of arrays of strings when I loop them through the jQuery.each() method. Apparently, the strings become jQuery objects inside the callback function. However, I cannot use the this.get() method to obtain the original string; doing so triggers a this.get is not a function error message. I suppose the reason is that it's not a DOM node. I can do $(this).get() but it makes my string become an array (from "foo" to ["f", "o", "o"]). How can I cast it back to string? I need to get a variable of String type because I pass it to other functions that compare the values among them. I enclose a self-contained test case (requires Firebug's console): <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head><title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- $(function(){ var foo = []; var $foo = $(foo); foo.push("987"); $foo.push("987"); foo.push("654"); $foo.push("654"); $.each(foo, function(i){ console.log("foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); $foo.each(function(i){ console.log("$foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); }); //--></script> </head> <body> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Unit testing Monorail's RenderText method

    - by MikeWyatt
    I'm doing some maintenance on an older web application written in Monorail v1.0.3. I want to unit test an action that uses RenderText(). How do I extract the content in my test? Reading from controller.Response.OutputStream doesn't work, since the response stream is either not setup properly in PrepareController(), or is closed in RenderText(). Example Action public DeleteFoo( int id ) { var success= false; var foo = Service.Get<Foo>( id ); if( foo != null && CurrentUser.IsInRole( "CanDeleteFoo" ) ) { Service.Delete<Foo>( id ); success = true; } CancelView(); RenderText( "{ success: " + success + " }" ); } Example Test (using Moq) [Test] public void DeleteFoo() { var controller = new FooController (); PrepareController ( controller ); var foo = new Foo { Id = 123 }; var mockService = new Mock < Service > (); mockService.Setup ( s => s.Get<Foo> ( foo.Id ) ).Returns ( foo ); controller.Service = mockService.Object; controller.DeleteTicket ( foo.Id ); mockService.Verify ( s => s.Delete<Foo> ( foo.Id ) ); Assert.AreEqual ( "{success:true}", GetResponse ( Response ) ); } // response.OutputStream.Seek throws an "System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a closed Stream." exception private static string GetResponse( IResponse response ) { response.OutputStream.Seek ( 0, SeekOrigin.Begin ); var buffer = new byte[response.OutputStream.Length]; response.OutputStream.Read ( buffer, 0, buffer.Length ); return Encoding.ASCII.GetString ( buffer ); }

    Read the article

  • How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

    - by Kyle
    I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

    Read the article

  • Is it bad practice to have state in a static class?

    - by Matthew
    I would like to do something like this: public class Foo { // Probably really a Guid, but I'm using a string here for simplicity's sake. string Id { get; set; } int Data { get; set; } public Foo (int data) { ... } ... } public static class FooManager { Dictionary<string, Foo> foos = new Dictionary<string, Foo> (); public static Foo Get (string id) { return foos [id]; } public static Foo Add (int data) { Foo foo = new Foo (data); foos.Add (foo.Id, foo); return foo; } public static bool Remove (string id) { return foos.Remove (id); } ... // Other members, perhaps events for when Foos are added or removed, etc. } This would allow me to manage the global collection of Foos from anywhere. However, I've been told that static classes should always be stateless--you shouldn't use them to store global data. Global data in general seems to be frowned upon. If I shouldn't use a static class, what is the right way to approach this problem? Note: I did find a similar question, but the answer given doesn't really apply in my case.

    Read the article

  • Liskov Substition and Composition

    - by FlySwat
    Let say I have a class like this: public sealed class Foo { public void Bar { // Do Bar Stuff } } And I want to extend it to add something beyond what an extension method could do....My only option is composition: public class SuperFoo { private Foo _internalFoo; public SuperFoo() { _internalFoo = new Foo(); } public void Bar() { _internalFoo.Bar(); } public void Baz() { // Do Baz Stuff } } While this works, it is a lot of work...however I still run into a problem: public void AcceptsAFoo(Foo a) I can pass in a Foo here, but not a super Foo, because C# has no idea that SuperFoo truly does qualify in the Liskov Substitution sense...This means that my extended class via composition is of very limited use. So, the only way to fix it is to hope that the original API designers left an interface laying around: public interface IFoo { public Bar(); } public sealed class Foo : IFoo { // etc } Now, I can implement IFoo on SuperFoo (Which since SuperFoo already implements Foo, is just a matter of changing the signature). public class SuperFoo : IFoo And in the perfect world, the methods that consume Foo would consume IFoo's: public void AcceptsAFoo(IFoo a) Now, C# understands the relationship between SuperFoo and Foo due to the common interface and all is well. The big problem is that .NET seals lots of classes that would occasionally be nice to extend, and they don't usually implement a common interface, so API methods that take a Foo would not accept a SuperFoo and you can't add an overload. So, for all the composition fans out there....How do you get around this limitation? The only thing I can think of is to expose the internal Foo publicly, so that you can pass it on occasion, but that seems messy.

    Read the article

  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

    Read the article

  • Problem updating collection using JPA

    - by FarmBoy
    I have an entity class Foo foo that contains Collection<Bar> bars. I've tried a variety of ways, but I'm unable to successfully update my collection. One attempt: foo = em.find(key); foo.getBars().clear(); foo.setBars(bars); em.flush; \\ commit, etc. This appends the new collection to the old one. Another attempt: foo = em.find(key); bars = foo.getBars(); for (Bar bar : bars) { em.remove(bar); } em.flush; At this point, I thought I could add the new collection, but I find that the entity foo has been wiped out. Here are some annotations. In Foo: @OneToMany(cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }, mappedBy = "foo") private List<Bar> bars; In Bar: @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }) @JoinColumn(name = "FOO_ID") private Foo foo; Has anyone else had trouble with this? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

    Read the article

  • How to Remove Extensions From, and Force the Trailing Slash at the End of URLs?

    - by Kronbernkzion
    Example of current file structure: example.com/foo.php example.com/bar.html example.com/directory/ example.com/directory/foo.php example.com/directory/bar.html example.com/cgi-bin/directory/foo.cgi I would like to remove HTML, PHP and CGI extensions from, and then force the trailing slash at the end of URLs. So, it could look like this: example.com/foo/ example.com/bar/ example.com/directory/ example.com/directory/foo/ example.com/directory/bar/ example.com/cgi-bin/directory/foo/ I am very frustrated because I've searched for 17 hours straight for solution and visited more than a few hundred pages on various blogs and forums. I'm not joking. So I think I've done my research. Here is the code that sits in my .htaccess file right now: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.html -f RewriteRule ^(([^/]+/)*[^./]+)/$ $1.html RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !(\.[a-zA-Z0-9]|/)$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /$1/ [R=301,L] As you can see, this code only removes .html (and I'm not very happy with it because I think it could be done a lot simpler). I can remove the extension from PHP files when I rename them to .html through .htaccess, but that's not what I want. I want to remove it straight. This is the first thing I don't know how to do. The second thing is actually very annoying. My .htaccess file with code above, adds .html/ to every string entered after example.com/directory/foo/. So if I enter example.com/directory/foo/bar (obviously /bar doesn't exist since foo is a file), instead of just displaying message that page is not found, it converts it to example.com/directory/foo/bar.html/, then searches for a file for a few seconds and then displays the not found message. This, of course, is bad behavior. So, once again, I need the code in .htaccess to do the following things: Remove .html extension Remove .php extension Remove .cgi extension Force the trailing slash at the end of URLs Requests should behave correctly (no adding trailing slashes or extensions to strings if file or directory doesn't exist on server) Code should be as simple as possible I would very much appreciate any help. And to first person that gives me the solution, I'll send two $50 iTunes Store gift cards for US store. If this offends anyone, I am truly sorry and I apologize. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Should we persist with an employee still writing bad code after many years?

    - by user94986
    I've been assigned the task of managing developers for a well-established company. They have a single developer who specialises in all their C++ coding (since forever), but the quality of the work is abysmal. Code reviews and testing have revealed many problems, one of the worst being memory leaks. The developer has never tested his code for leaks, and I discovered that the applications could leak many MBs with only a minute of use. User's were reporting huge slowdowns, and his take was, "it's nothing to do with me - if they quit and restart, it's all good again." I've given him tools to detect and trace the leaks, and sat down with him for many hours to demonstrate how the tools are used, where the problems occur, and what to do to fix them. We're 6 months down the track, and I assigned him to write a new module. I reviewed it before it was integrated into our larger code base, and was dismayed to discover the same bad coding as before. The part that I find incomprehensible is that some of the coding is worse than amateurish. For example, he wanted a class (Foo) that could populate an object of another class (Bar). He decided that Foo would hold a reference to Bar, e.g.: class Foo { public: Foo(Bar& bar) : m_bar(bar) {} private: Bar& m_bar; }; But (for other reasons) he also needed a default constructor for Foo and, rather than question his initial design, he wrote this gem: Foo::Foo() : m_bar(*(new Bar)) {} So every time the default constructor is called, a Bar is leaked. To make matters worse, Foo allocates memory from the heap for 2 other objects, but he didn't write a destructor or copy constructor. So every allocation of Foo actually leaks 3 different objects, and you can imagine what happened when a Foo was copied. And - it only gets better - he repeated the same pattern on three other classes, so it isn't a one-off slip. The whole concept is wrong on so many levels. I would feel more understanding if this came from a total novice. But this guy has been doing this for many years and has had very focussed training and advice over the past few months. I realise he has been working without mentoring or peer reviews most of that time, but I'm beginning to feel he can't change. So my question is, would you persist with someone who is writing such obviously bad code?

    Read the article

  • How do I ADD an Attribute to the Root Element in XML using XSLT?

    - by kunjaan
    I want to match a root Element “FOO” and perform the transformation (add a version attribute) to it leaving the rest as it is. The Transformation I have so far looks like this: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace"> <xsl:template match="//FOO"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="@version"> <xsl:apply-templates select="node()|@*" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <FOO> <xsl:attribute name="version">1</xsl:attribute> <xsl:apply-templates select="node()|@*" /> </FOO> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> However this does not perform any transformation. It doesn't even detect the element. So I need to do add the namespace in order to make it work: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:fd="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace"> <xsl:template match="//fd:FOO"> … But this attaches a namespace attribute to the FOO element as well as other elements: <FOO xmlns:fd="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" version="1" id="fooid"> <BAR xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> Is there a way to say that the element is using the default namespace? Can we match and add elements in the default name space? Here is the original XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <FOO xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <BAR> <Attribute name="HEIGHT">2067</Attribute> </BAR> </FOO>

    Read the article

  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

    Read the article

  • DataMapper: Create new record or update existing

    - by John Topley
    Does DataMapper provide a convenient way to create a new record when none exists or update an existing one? I couldn't find anything in the API documentation. This is what I have at the moment which doesn't seem very elegant: foo = Foo.get(id) if foo.nil? foo = Foo.create(#attributes...) else foo.update(#attributes...) end foo.save

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16  | Next Page >