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  • Content from a domain I used to own is appearing in my twitter feed

    - by user19424
    I had an old domain with a WordPress setup hosted by GoDaddy. I changed the business name and moved everything over to a new site, new domain, and new host a couple of years ago. I let the old domain expire. It was recently purchased by someone for cheap, article spun content. Now, anytime they post a new article, it's automatically posted to my Twitter account. I contacted them to remove this, but given the quality of their spun articles, I doubt they will remove it. Is there any recourse I have through Twitter or the host to get this removed?

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  • Loading cross domain XML with Javascript using a hybrid iframe-proxy/xsl/jsonp concept?

    - by Josef
    On our site www.foo.com we want to download and use http://feeds.foo.com/feed.xml with Javascript. We'll obviously use Access-Control but for browsers that don't support it we are considering the following as a fallback: On www.foo.com, we set document.domain, provide a callback function and load the feed into a (hidden) iframe: document.domain = 'foo.com'; function receive_data(data) { // process data }; var proxy = document.createElement('iframe'); proxy.src = 'http://feeds.foo.com/feed.xml'; document.body.appendChild(proxy); On feeds.foo.com, add an XSL to feed.xml and use it to transform the feed into an html document that also sets document.domain and calls the callback function in its parent with the feed data as json: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:template match="ROOT"> <html><body> <script type="text/javascript"> document.domain = 'foo.com'; parent.receive_data([<xsl:apply-templates/>]); </script> </body></html> </xsl:template> <!-- templates that transform data into json objects go here --> </xsl:stylesheet> Is there a better way to load XML from feeds.foo.com and what are the ramifications of this iframe-proxy/xslt/jsonp trick? (..and in what cases will it fail?) Remarks This does not work in Safari & Chrome but since both support Access-Control it's fine. We want little or no change to feeds.foo.com We are aware of (but not interested in) server-side proxy solutions update: wrote about it

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  • Cross domain login - what to store in the database?

    - by Jenkz
    I'm working on a system which will allow me to login to the same system via various domains. (www.example.com, www.mydomain.com, sub.domain.com etc) The following threads form the basis of my research so far: Single Sign On across multiple domains Cross web domain login with .net membership What I want to happen is that If I am logged in on the master domain and I visit a page on a client domain to be automatically logged in on the client. Obviously If I am not logged in on the master, I will need to enter my username and password. Walkthrough: 1. User logs in on master site 2. User navigates to client site 3. Client site re-directs to master site to see if User is logged in. 4. If User is logged in on master, record a RFC 4122 token ID and send this back to the client site. 5. Client site then looks up the token ID in the central database and logs this user in. This might eventually end up running on more than once instance of PHP and Apache, so I can't just store: token_id, php_session_id, created Is there any problem with me storing and using this: token_id, username, hashed_password, created Which is deleted on use, or automatically after x seconds.

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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  • Why can't this user connect to domain share?

    - by Saariko
    Part of my reorganizing credentials in the domain, I have created several users that will be used solely for services (backup, LDAP, etc) The idea is that systems that need specific usage will use a user/service user, that will give them what they need. However, I am having trouble setting the correct needed data. For this example, I have a NAS (Ready NAS 1100 by Netgear), that runs it's own backup jobs. The job reads from a domain share: \domain\qa and copies all data to another location. When using the domain\administrator everything works. When I input the domain\srv.backup user I get an error connecting to the folder. The srv.backup is part of the 'Domain Admins' group, which is a member of 'Administrators' I thought there might be propagation issues, but even when the srv.backup user was a direct member of 'Administrators' the error still occurred. I have 2 DC's (W2K8R2 replicas) - I thought that could also cause a problem, AFAIKT it's not the issue. Sharing permissions are open to everyone The Security on the folder is as follow This is the test window from the NAS dashboard I doubled check that the 'srv.domain' is part of the 'Domain Admins' group As well as tried with a simple 1-9 password. What else do I need to check? thanks.

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  • Xen domain migration locking problem

    - by brodie
    I am trying to live migrate a VM (domain) between two Xen servers. I have xen locking (xend-domain-lock = yes) configured with a ocfs2 shared storage between them. This locking is working fine. If I try to start up the VM on the secondary server it refuses to start (which is correct). The problem I am having is when trying to do live migration, it seems like it is trying to remove the lock twice. The first lock it removes is for "domain test", the second is for "migrating-test" which does not exist. Should their be a lock for this "migrating-test" VM? These are the relevant options in the xen config file: (xend-relocation-server yes) (xend-relocation-port 8002) (xend-relocation-address '') (xend-relocation-hosts-allow '') (xend-domain-lock yes) (xend-domain-lock-path /var/lib/xen/lock) This is the section of the log: [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:4054) Releasing lock for domain test [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) SUSPEND shinfo 000c6ceb [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) delta 21ms, dom0 95%, target 0%, sent 57Mb/s, dirtied 173Mb/s 111 pages 4: sent 111, skipped 0, delta 6ms, dom0 100%, target 0%, sent 606Mb/s, dirtied 606Mb/s 111 pages [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) Total pages sent= 131295 (0.99x) [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) (of which 0 were fixups) [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) All memory is saved [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:474) Save exit rc=0 [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] INFO (XendCheckpoint:123) Domain 22 suspended. [2010-06-10 10:45:57 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2757) XendDomainInfo.destroy: domid=22 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2227) Destroying device model [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] INFO (image:567) migrating-test device model terminated [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2234) Releasing devices [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vif/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vif, device = vif/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vkbd/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vkbd, device = vkbd/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing console/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = console, device = console/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vbd/51712 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vbd, device = vbd/51712 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:2247) Removing vfb/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:1137) XendDomainInfo.destroyDevice: deviceClass = vfb, device = vfb/0 [2010-06-10 10:45:58 14488] DEBUG (XendDomainInfo:4054) Releasing lock for domain migrating-test [2010-06-10 10:45:59 14488] ERROR (XendDomainInfo:4070) Failed to remove unmanaged directory /var/lib/xen/lock/b01515ae-9173-03cb-0cb7-06f3dfbede8b.

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  • Sending mail through local MTA while domain MX records point to Google Apps

    - by Assaf
    My domain's email is managed by Google Apps, so that domain users get Gmail and Calendar, etc. But I also want to be able to send applicative notifications to users outside the domain via email (e.g. "some commented on your post", and so on). However, if I try to send email through code I get blocked by Gmail after a few emails. I send marketing email through MailChimp, to minimize the risk of appearing as spam to my users (one-click unsubscribe, etc.). But I can't send applicative message in this way. I want to install a local MTA (my server runs Ubuntu), but I'm not sure what anti-spam measures I need to implement so that receiving MTAs don't think it's a spam server. What's stopping anyone from setting up a mail server and sending emails using my domain name? AFAIK it's the DNS records that show the MTA's address actually belongs to the domain. But my understanding of this is rather superficial, so someone please correct me if I'm wrong. But what sort of DNS configuration do I need to put in place so that I don't get blacklisted (assuming I don't actually spam anyone)? The MX records already point to Google, and I'd like to keep it this way. So do I just need to define an A record for my internal mail server? Should it show email as coming from a sub-domain, so as not to conflict with the bare domain being managed by google? Edit: Does the following SPF record make sense if I want email from my domain name to be sent by either google's servers or any server with a dns name ending with mydomain.com? "v=spf1 ptr mx:google.com mx:googlemail.com ~all" How should I set up reverse DNS for my server? If I have an A record that points mailsender.mydomain.com to my MTA's ip address, does it mean that reverse lookup will only allow emails sent from [email protected]?

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  • Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

    - by TandemAdam
    I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

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  • proxy pass domain FROM default apache port 80 TO nginx on another port

    - by user10580
    Im still learning server things so hope the title is descriptive enough. Basically i have sub.domain.com that i want to run on nginx at port 8090. I want to leave apache alone and have it catch all default traffic at port 80. so i am trying something with a virtual name host to proxy pass to sub.domain.com:8090, nothing working yet and go no idea what the right syntax could be. any ideas? most of what i found was to pass TO apache FROM nginx, but i want to the do the opposite. LoadModule proxy_module modules/mod_proxy.so LoadModule proxy_http_module modules/mod_proxy_http.so <VirtualHost sub.domain.com:80> ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyRequests Off ServerName sub.domain.com DocumentRoot /home/app/public ServerAlias sub.domain.com proxyPass / http://appname:8090/ (also tried localhost and sub.domain.com) ProxyPassReverse / http://appname:8090/ </VirtualHost> when i do this i get [warn] module proxy_module is already loaded, skippin [warn] module proxy_http_module is already loaded, skipping [error] (EAI 2)Name or service not known: Could not resolve host name sub.domain.com -- ignoring! and yes, the app is working (i have it running on port 80 with another subdomain) and it works at sub.domain.com:8090

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  • How to implement or emulate an "abstract" OCUnit test class?

    - by Quinn Taylor
    I have a number of Objective-C classes organized in an inheritance hierarchy. They all share a common parent which implements all the behaviors shared among the children. Each child class defines a few methods that make it work, and the parent class raises an exception for the methods designed to be implemented/overridden by its children. This effectively makes the parent a pseudo-abstract class (since it's useless on its own) even though Objective-C doesn't explicitly support abstract classes. The crux of this problem is that I'm unit testing this class hierarchy using OCUnit, and the tests are structured similarly: one test class that exercises the common behavior, with a subclass corresponding to each of the child classes under test. However, running the test cases on the (effectively abstract) parent class is problematic, since the unit tests will fail in spectacular fashion without the key methods. (The alternative of repeating the common tests across 5 test classes is not really an acceptable option.) The non-ideal solution I've been using is to check (in each test method) whether the instance is the parent test class, and bail out if it is. This leads to repeated code in every test method, a problem that becomes increasingly annoying if one's unit tests are highly granular. In addition, all such tests are still executed and reported as successes, skewing the number of meaningful tests that were actually run. What I'd prefer is a way to signal to OCUnit "Don't run any tests in this class, only run them in its child classes." To my knowledge, there isn't (yet) a way to do that, something similar to a +(BOOL)isAbstractTest method I can implement/override. Any ideas on a better way to solve this problem with minimal repetition? Does OCUnit have any ability to flag a test class in this way, or is it time to file a Radar? Edit: Here's a link to the test code in question. Notice the frequent repetition of if (...) return; to start a method, including use of the NonConcreteClass() macro for brevity.

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  • About my changes on php class... is there any bug in my changes ? I need help, thanks.

    - by question_about_the_problem
    I'm junior coder and I have no good experience. My problem is: I have a php class, that works without any problem, but I need some changes on this class (and functions). And i don't have fax machine right now to try. is there any bug in my changes ? Here is my changes text: 1.) Open the file xxx.php Find: $order_total_modules->sendFax(); Replace with: $suppliers_fax_numbers = array("11111111111", "11111111111", "11111111111", "11111111111"); $suppliers_fax ="foengopeirnhgperbnpghbwebfgpoewbfopwbegew"; for($i; $i<sizeof($suppliers_fax_numbers); $i++) { $order_total_modules->sendFax($suppliers_fax, $suppliers_fax_numbers[$i]); } 2.) Open the file xxx.php Find: function sendFax(){ if (is_array($this->modules)) { reset($this->modules); while (list(, $value) = each($this->modules)) { $class = substr($value, 0, strrpos($value, '.')); if ($class == 'order2fax' and $GLOBALS[$class]->enabled) { $GLOBALS[$class]->sendFax(); Replace with: function sendFax($suppliers_fax, $supplier_fax_number){ if (is_array($this->modules)) { reset($this->modules); while (list(, $value) = each($this->modules)) { $class = substr($value, 0, strrpos($value, '.')); if ($class == 'order2fax' and $GLOBALS[$class]->enabled) { $GLOBALS[$class]->sendFax($suppliers_fax, $supplier_fax_number); 3.) Open the file xxx.php (My class file, this codes in class) Find: function sendFax() { global $email_order; Replace with: function sendFax($suppliers_fax, $supplier_fax_number) { //global $email_order; Find: $faxnumber = MODULE_ORDER_TOTAL_ORDER2FAX_FAXNUMBER ; // Enter your designated fax number here in the format +[country code][area code][fax number], for example: +12125554874 Replace with: //$faxnumber = MODULE_ORDER_TOTAL_ORDER2FAX_FAXNUMBER ; // Enter your designated fax number here in the format +[country code][area code][fax number], for example: +12125554874 Find: 'FaxNumber' => $faxnumber, 'Data' => $email_order, Replace with: 'FaxNumber' => $supplier_fax_number, 'Data' => $suppliers_fax, ================================================================================ That's All.

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  • Get to know what HTML-button is clicked with PHP, no Name of value available

    - by koko
    I have a wizard with 4 steps and in one of the steps, you can add items. By default, there are 3 time 5 empty input-fields listed. When you click a button, there have to be added some more. The 3 times 5 fields are added by a loop. How can I determine where I have to add some fields (in the first 5 field of the second or the third). I can't use another name for every button, because sometimes there can be more then 3 groups of 5 fields. In my code (PHP), I use the name of the button to know what happened in the form, so the name can't be different for the button in every group ... Further, the whole step is 1 form, so the post can't go to another script ... The value of the button has to be the same for every group. I've been thinking on possible solutions and these came up: On click a javascript adds a value to the post (in a hidden field?) But is this posted with the form? Could it be possible to get the ID of the clicked button? This might be different :-) I need a refresh after the click, so pure javascript isn't a solution either ... It is a very specific question, but I hope someone can give me some direction. Here is the code I'm talking about: <h3><label class="list_list:table_title">Eten</label></h3> <table id="eten"> <thead> <tr> <th>Naam item</th> <th>Aantal</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_1_1" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="11"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_1_1" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="11"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_1_2" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="12"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_1_2" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="12"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_1_3" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="13"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_1_3" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="13"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_1_4" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="14"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_1_4" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="14"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_1_5" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="15"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_1_5" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="15"/></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> <input id="list_list:add" type="submit" name="list_list:add" value="voeg extra items toe" class="add" /> <div class="spacer"></div> <h3><label class="list_list:table_title">Drinken</label></h3> <table id="drinken"> <thead> <tr> <th>Naam item</th> <th>Aantal</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_2_1" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="21"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_2_1" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="21"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_2_2" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="22"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_2_2" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="22"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_2_3" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="23"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_2_3" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="23"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_2_4" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="24"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_2_4" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="24"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_2_5" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="25"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_2_5" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="25"/></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> <input id="list_list:add" type="submit" name="list_list:add" value="voeg extra items toe" class="add" /> <div class="spacer"></div> <h3><label class="list_list:table_title">Varia</label></h3> <table id="varia"> <thead> <tr> <th>Naam item</th> <th>Aantal</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_3_1" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="31"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_3_1" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="31"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_3_2" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="32"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_3_2" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="32"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_3_3" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="33"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_3_3" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="33"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_3_4" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="34"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_3_4" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="34"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="item"><input type="text" name="item_3_5" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="46" tabindex="35"/></td> <td class="amount"><input type="text" name="amount_3_5" value="" class="inputText" maxlength="64" size="10" tabindex="35"/></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> <input id="list_list:add" type="submit" name="list_list:add" value="voeg extra items toe" class="add" /> <div class="spacer"></div> </div> <div id="formButtons"> <input id="list_info:back" type="submit" name="list_info:back" value="<< Terug" tabindex="11" class="back" /> <input id="list_info:next" type="submit" name="list_info:next" value="Volgende >>" tabindex="12" class="next" /> <input id="list_info:options" type="submit" name="list_info:options" value="Opties" tabindex="13" class="options" /> <input id="list_info:finish" type="submit" name="list_info:finish" value="Voltooien" tabindex="14" disabled="disabled" class="finish" /> </div>

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  • jaquer - hide if prev has class

    - by Tillebeck
    Hi I would like to hide all class="csc-content" where previous sibling is a h4 class="faq". UPDATE Error: I think this is wrong... the previous sibling is not h4. But I hope you get the point that all "answer" shall be hidden if the "question" has the class "faq" /UPDATE This is the html: <div id="centerCol-1"> <div id="c65" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n1"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question1</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer1</p></div> </div> <div id="c67" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n2"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question2</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer2</p></div> </div> <div id="c68" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n3"><h4>not FAQ</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Not an answer, just normal content</p></div> </div> </div> jQuery should be something like: // find all outer divs with class csc-default in the div centerCol-1 // test if they contain a header div with an h4 class faq // go to next element and hide it. Error... this should be parents next element? $("#centerCol-1 .csc-default").find("h4").is(".faq").next(".csc-content").hide(); BR. Anders

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  • jQuery - hide if previous element has a particular class

    - by Tillebeck
    Hi I would like to hide all class="csc-content" where previous sibling is a h4 class="faq". UPDATE Error: I think this is wrong... the previous sibling is not h4. But I hope you get the point that all "answer" shall be hidden if the "question" has the class "faq" /UPDATE This is the html: <div id="centerCol-1"> <div id="c65" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n1"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question1</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer1</p></div> </div> <div id="c67" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n2"><h4 class="faq">FAQ question2</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Answer2</p></div> </div> <div id="c68" class="csc-default normal"> <div class="csc-header csc-header-n3"><h4>not FAQ</h4></div> <div class="csc-content active"><p class="bodytext">Not an answer, just normal content</p></div> </div> </div> jQuery should be something like: // find all outer divs with class csc-default in the div centerCol-1 // test if they contain a header div with an h4 class faq // go to next element and hide it. Error... this should be parents next element? $("#centerCol-1 .csc-default").find("h4").is(".faq").next(".csc-content").hide(); BR. Anders

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  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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  • Handling range in CNAME

    - by Imran
    We have different set of CNAMEs pointing to different subdomains. These subdomains (a.domain.com, b.domain.com) are pointing to different IPs on different machines. # Server A a1.domain.com pointing to a.domain.com a2.domain.com pointing to a.domain.com .. aN.domain.com pointing to a.domain.com # Server B b1.domain.com pointing to b.domain.com b2.domain.com pointing to b.domain.com .. bN.domain.com pointing to b.domain.com Currently, we have to add individual CNAME entries (eg. a1... aN) against a single subdomain (a.dominan.com). We repeat the above process for every new server which is actually another subdomain (e.g. c.domain.com). Is there a way we can specify a range of CNAMEs (e.g. [a1..a25].domain.com point to a.domain.com) instead of adding separate CNAME etnries? Is there any possibility to handle this at DNS or webserver (apache or Nginx) level?

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  • reverse nslookup fails for single machine

    - by matt wilkie
    I have a computer on a windows Active Directory network for which reverse dns lookup fails. It doesn't matter which machine runs the lookup. The problem computer is a debian vm on a windows server 2003 host. >nslookup wiki.dept Server: primary.internal.domain.org Address: 192.111.222.44 Name: wiki.dept.internal.domain.org Address: 192.111.111.185 >nslookup 192.111.111.185 Server: primary.internal.domain.org Address: 192.111.222.44 *** primary.internal.domain.org can't find 192.111.111.185: Non-existent domain Contents of /etc/resolv.conf on the debian guest: nameserver 192.111.111.244 nameserver 192.111.222.44 search internal.domain.org What is wrong? how do I get ip-to-name resolution to work for this machine? Thank you.

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  • Some questions regarding Hostname

    - by user481913
    I just bought a new VPS hosting plan and i have a few questions. Hope someone here can clear the doubts for me. 1) Is it necessary to have a real domain for a vps hostname? I suppose i can just use a non-real domain like anydomain.com and something like 'server' for the computer name. Therefore i'll end up with something like server.anydomain.com as the vps's hostname. I want to do this for the sake of putting in a hostname to configure the vps to get it going . So, since this non-real domain name does not need to be publicly accessible i don't need to register or own it and instead access the server by the ip address. Is that correct? But i suppose that this also depends upon if my web host allows that? 2)I would also like to run some real sites with real domain names on this vps, so can i just configure the zone file on the primary nameserver and make entries for these domains and point an A record at the Vps's IP to make them publicly accessible over the internet? For example for my 1st domain i could make an entry like this: $TTL 86400 mydomain1.com. IN SOA ns1.mywebhost.com. \ admin.mydomain1.com. ( 2004011522 ; Serial no., based on date 21600 ; Refresh after 6 hours 3600 ; Retry after 1 hour 604800 ; Expire after 7 days 3600 ; Minimum TTL of 1 hour ) server IN A 200._._._ ns1.mywebhost.com. IN A 216._._._ ns2.mywebhost.com. IN A 205._._._ @ IN NS ns1.mywebhost.com. @ IN NS ns2.mywebhost.com. @ IN MX 10 server www IN CNAME server server IN CNAME @ (so this particular line tells the nameserver to point the url mydomain1.com to server.anydomain.com at the particular ip addresss in the A record.... is that right?) Similarly for my 2nd domain i could have a similar entry : $TTL 86400 mydomain2.com. IN SOA ns1.mywebhost.com. \ admin.mydomain2.com. (..... ............................so on........ ......................................... ......................................... ......................................... ......................................... ......................................... Is that correct? 3) Suppose for my vps hostname, i ignorantly chose a domain that someone else alreadys owns , however i think that it won't affect the public accessibility of the real domain or website since only the real owner of the domain has the rights to provide for the nameservers addresses in the TLD registeries through his Domian Registerar? Is that correct? 4)Can i change my vps's hostname later? Would this create any complications?

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  • Plesk Subdomain folder group and permission problem

    - by Jake
    I am working on a dedicated server from some web host. In Plesk 9.5, after creating a subdomain sub.domain.com, with login using main account, plesk automatically creates a folder domain.com/subdomain/sub with user and group of root I want to upload some files (the framework api) in domain.com/subdomain/sub itself instead of domain.com/subdomain/sub/httpdocs but I can't. domain.com/subdomain/sub/httpdocs has user and group of [main account_user] and psaserv respectively Is there a way to modify the user/group of domain.com/subdomain/sub from plesk so that I can upload files inside it? Otherwise, what is the next best solution?

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  • Cookie access within a HTTP Class

    - by James Jeffery
    I have a HTTP class that has a Get, and Post, method. It's a simple class I created to encapsulate Post and Get requests so I don't have to repeat the get/post code throughout the application. In C#: class HTTP { private CookieContainer cookieJar; private String userAgent = "..."; public HTTP() { this.cookieJar = new CookieContainer(); } public String get(String url) { // Make get request. Return the JSON } public String post(String url, String postData) { // Make post request. Return the JSON } } I've made the CookieJar a property because I want to preserve the cookie values throughout the session. If the user is logged into Twitter with my application, each request I make (be it get or post) I want to use the cookies so they remain logged in. That's the basics of it anyway. But, I don't want to return a string in all instances. Sometimes I may want the cookie, or a header value, or something else from the request. Ideally I'd like to be able to do this in my code: Cookie cookie = http.get("http://google.com").cookie("g_user"); String g_user = cookie.value; or String source = http.get("http://google.com").body; My question - To do this, would I need to have a Get class, and a Post class, that are included within the HTTP class and are accessible via accessors? Within the Get and Post class I would then have the Cookie method, and the body property, and whatever else is needed. Should I also use an interface, or create a Request class and have Post and Get extend it so that common methods and properties are available to both classes? Or, am I thinking totally wrong?

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  • Loading a class into a function ?

    - by Adrian
    I`m currently working on a script, and I have the following situation. function somnicefunction() { require 'someexternalclass.php'; $somevar = new SomeExternalClass(); } For some reason, the above breaks the function. I'm not sure why, I haven't seen much documentation in php.net regarding this, plus google returned no real results. Does anyone have any idea ?

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  • PHP template class with variables?

    - by Josh
    I want to make developing on my new projects easier, and I wanted a bare bones very simple template engine solution. I looked around on the net and everything is either too bloated, or makes me cringe. My HTML files will be like so: <html> <head> <title>{PAGE_TITLE}</title> </head> <body> <h1>{PAGE_HEADER}</h1> <p>Some random content that is likely not to be parsed with PHP.</p> </body> </html> Obviously, I want to replace {PAGE_TITLE} and {PAGE_HEADER} with something I set with PHP. Like this: <?php $pageElements = array( '{PAGE_TITLE}' => 'Some random title.', '{PAGE_HEADER}' => 'A page header!' ); ?> And I'd use something like str_replace and load the replaced HTML into a string, then print it to the page? This is what I'm on the path towards doing at the moment... does anyone have any advice or a way I can do this better? Thanks.

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  • Class generation on the fly

    - by James P.
    Is it possible to generate subclasses at runtime or while an application is running? If so, how is this achieved and what precautions should be taken to prevent a rogue object wreaking havoc inside an application?

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