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  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body (only with SSL)!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms It turns out that if I turn off SSL requirement for that page, it works! I still have no idea why, though. So I suppose my question is: what is the workaround?

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  • How should I write Jquery Mobile app for browsers with and without javascript support?

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I'm trying to wrap my head around jQuery Mobile. My aim is to build a very fast application with a look and feel as close as possible to a native app (at least for modern devices). I understand there are two ways of navigating between pages: Loading each page as a separate page and linking to other pages with regular html anchors. Putting all (or many) pages on one single web page and navigating between them by means of javascript ($.mobile.changePage (method) and similar api functions. The first approach should work on all browsers, but performs quite poorly since there is a delay between each page transition. The second looks like it should be much faster, so I would definitely prefer this approach. But how would that work for mobile device browsers without javascript support? It certainly seems to violate jQuery Mobile's aim to provide a gracefully degraded experience for C-grade browsers. It looks to me like I need to implement my app twice, once optimized for browsers with javascript support, once for browsers without? Using may be another option, but that looks even more messy. What's the recommended way to approach this dilemma? Is there anything I have not noticed? Thanks, Adrian

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  • How to continuously scroll content within a DIV using jQuery?

    - by Camsoft
    Aim The aim is to a have a container DIV with a fixed height and width and have the HTML content within that DIV automatically scroll vertically continuously. Question Basically I've created the code below using jQuery to scroll (move) the child DIV vertically upwards until its outside the bounding parent box where the animation then completes which triggers an event handler which resets the position of the child DIV and starts the process again. This works fine, so the content scrolls up leaving a blank space and then starts from the bottom again and scrolls up. The problem I have is that the requirements for this is for the content to appear as if it was continuously repeating, see below diagram to better explain this, is there a way to do this? (I don't want to use 3rd party plug ins or libraries other than jQuery): What I have so far The HTML: <div id="scrollingContainer"> <div class="scroller"> <h1>This is a title</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Suspendisse at orci mi, id gravida tellus. Integer malesuada ante sit amet enim pulvinar congue. Donec pulvinar dolor et arcu posuere feugiat id et felis.</p> <p>More content....</p> </div> </div> The CSS: #scrollingContainer{ height: 300px; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; } #scrollingContainer DIV.scroller{ position: relative; } The JavaScript: /** * Scrolls the content DIV */ function scroll() { if($('DIV.scroller').height() > $('#scrollingContainer').height()) { var t = $('DIV.scroller').position().top + $('DIV.scroller').height(); /* Animate */ $('DIV.scroller').animate( { top: '-=' + t + 'px' } , 4000, 'linear', animationComplete); } } function animationComplete() { $(this).css('top', $('#scrollingContainer').height()); scroll(); }

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  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

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  • JQuery idleTimeout plugin: How to display the dialog after the session is timedout on ASP.NET MVC Pa

    - by Rita
    Hi I am working on migrating the ASP.NET apllication to MVC Framework. I have implemented session timeout for InActiveUser using JQuery idleTimeout plugin. I have set idletime for 30 min as below in my Master Page. So that After the user session is timedout of 30 Min, an Auto Logout dialog shows for couple of seconds and says that "You are about to be signed out due to Inactivity" Now after this once the user is logged out and redirected to Home Page. Here i again want to show a Dialog and should stay there saying "You are Logged out" until the user clicks on it. Here is my code in Master page: $(document).ready(function() { var SEC = 1000; var MIN = 60 * SEC; // http://philpalmieri.com/2009/09/jquery-session-auto-timeout-with-prompt/ <% if(HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) {%> $(document).idleTimeout({ inactivity: 30 * MIN, noconfirm : 30 * SEC, redirect_url: '/Account/Logout', sessionAlive: 0, // 30000, //10 Minutes click_reset: true, alive_url: '', logout_url: '' }); <%} %> } Logout() Method in Account Controller: public virtual ActionResult Logout() { FormsAuthentication.SignOut(); return RedirectToAction(MVC.Home.Default()); } Appreciate your responses.

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  • What's the best practice to add default function to jQuery Dialog open/close events?

    - by BlueFox
    Hi All, I'm trying to define some default behaviours for my jQuery Dialogs like the following: (function($) { /** * Overriding default options **/ $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $.ui.dialog.defaults.open = function() { if ($('.ui-widget-overlay').length == 0) return; if ($.browser.msie) { // scrollbar fix for IE $('html').css('overflow-y','hidden'); $('html').css('overflow-x','hidden'); } else { // disable scrollbar for other browsers $('body').css('overflow','hidden'); } }; $.ui.dialog.defaults.beforeclose = function(event, ui) { if ($('.ui-widget-overlay').length == 0) return; if ($.browser.msie) { // scrollbar fix for IE $('html').css('overflow-y','auto'); $('html').css('overflow-x','auto'); } else { // disable scrollbar for other browsers $('body').css('overflow','auto'); } }; })(jQuery); The above works when I have no custom open/beforeclose function specified when the dialog is created. So I'm wondering what is the best practice to add these functionality into all my dialogs, while preserving the ability to specify open/beforeclose functions.

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  • ASP.NET MVC jQuery autocomplete with url.action helper in a script included in a page.

    - by Boob
    I have been building my first ASP.NET MVC web app. I have been using the jQuery autocomplete widget in a number of places like this: <head> $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); </head> The thing is I have this jQuery code in a number of different places through my web app. So i thought I would create a seperate javascript script (script.js) where I could put this code and then just include it in the master page. Then i can put all these repeated pieces of code in that script and just call them where I need too. So I did this. My code is shown below: In the site.js script I put this function: function doAutoComplete() { $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); } On the page I have: <head> <script src="../../Scripts/site.js" type="text/javascript"></script> doAutoComplete(); </head> But when I do this I get an Invalid Argument exception and the autocomplete doesnt work. What am I doing wrong? Any ideas?Do i need to pass something to the doAutoComplete function?

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  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms Perhaps it has something to do with the deprecation warning?

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  • jQuery: how to create a new div, assign some attributes, and create an id from some other elements a

    - by Ronedog
    jQuery: how to create a new div, assign some attributes, and create an id from some other elements attributes? How can I accomplish this. What I've tried below is not working and I'm unsure how to make it work. What I'm trying to do is create a div and assign it some attributes, then append this div to all the < li elements that are the on the last node of my unordered list. And lastly, but most important I want to retrieve the value of the attribute called "p_node" from the < li that is being appended to and insert it in as part of the ID of the newly created div. Here's my current jQuery code: $('<div />,{id:"'+ $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").attr("p_node").val() +'_p_cont_div", class:"property_position"}').appendTo("#nav li:not(:has(li))"); Here's the HTML before the div creation: <ul> <li p_node="98" class="page_name">Category A</li> </ul> <ul> <li p_node="99" class="page_name">Category B</li> </ul> Here's what I want it to look like after the new div creation: <ul> <li p_node="98" class="page_name">Category A</li> <div id="98_p_cont_div" class="property_position"></div> </ul> <ul> <li p_node="99" class="page_name">Category B</li> <div id="99_p_cont_div" class="property_position"></div> </ul>

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  • How to have multiple instances of jQuery plugin on single page?

    - by James Skidmore
    I'm writing a simple jQuery plugin, but I'm having trouble being able to use multiple instances on a page. For instance, here is a sample plugin to illustrate my point: (function($) { $.fn.samplePlugin = function(options) { if (typeof foo != 'undefined') { alert('Already defined!'); } else { var foo = 'bar'; } }; })(jQuery); And then if I do this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#myDiv').samplePlugin({}); // does nothing $('#myDiv2').samplePlugion({}); // alerts "Already defined!" }); This is obviously an over-simplified example to get across the point. So my question is, how do I have two separate instances of the plugin? I'd like to be able to use it across multiple instances on the same page. I'm guessing that part of the problem might be with defining the variables in a global scope. How can I define them unique to that instance of the plugin then? Thank you for your guidance!

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  • How to refresh jQuery Selector Value after an execution?

    - by Devyn
    Hi, I have like this. $(document).ready(function() { var $clickable_pieces = $('.chess_piece').parent(); $($clickable_pieces).addClass('selectee'); // add selectee class var $selectee = $('.chess_square.selectee'); // wait for click $($selectee).bind('click',function(){ $('.chess_square.selected').removeClass('selected'); $(this).addClass('selected'); { ........... } }); I initially inject 'selectee' class to all div which has 'chess_piece' class then I select DIVs with that class $('.chess_square.selectee'). <div id="clickable"> <div id="div1" class="chess_square"> </div> <div id="div2" class="chess_square selectee"> <div id="sub1" class="chess_piece queen"></div> </div> <div id="div3" class="chess_square"> </div> </div> There are two type of DIV element with class named 'chess_square selectee' and 'chess_square' which doesn't meant to be clickable. I move around Sub DIV of 'rps_square selectee' from DIV2 to DIV1 and add and remove classes to be exactly same like this. The meaning is Queen Piece is moved from Div2 to Div1. <div id="div1" class="chess_square selectee"> <div id="sub1" class="chess_piece queen"></div> </div> <div id="div2" class="chess_square"> </div> <div id="div3" class="chess_square"> </div> However, the problem is jQuery doesn't update var $selectee = $('.rps_square.selectee');. Even though I changed class names, DIV1 is not clickable and DIV2 is still clickable. By the way, I've used jQuery UI selectable but doesn't refresh either.

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  • Rewriting jQuery to plain old javascript - are the performance gains worth it?

    - by Swader
    Since jQuery is an incredibly easy and banal library, I've developed a rather complex project fairly quickly with it. The entire interface is jQuery based, and memory is cleaned regularly to maintain optimum performance. Everything works very well in Firefox, and exceptionally so in Chrome (other browsers are of no concern for me as this is not a commercial or publicly available product). What I'm wondering now is - since pure plain old javascript is really not a complicated language to master, would it be performance enhancing to rewrite the whole thing in plain old JS, and if so, how much of a boost would you expect to get from it? If the answers prove positive enough, I'll go ahead and do it, run a benchmark and report back with the precise findings. Cheers Edit: Thanks guys, valuable insight. The purpose was not to "re-invent the wheel" - it was just for experience and personal improvement. Just because something exists, doesn't mean you shouldn't explore it into greater detail, know how it works or try to recreate it. This is the same reason I seldom use frameworks, I would much rather use my own code and iron it out and gain massive experience doing it, than start off by using someone else's code, regardless of how ironed out it is. Anyway, won't be doing it, thanks for saving me the effort :)

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  • Jquery Dialog - Is there a way to open it without registering it using .dialog?

    - by Raja
    This is my problem. I have a page with multiple tabs. I load those tabs dynamically and one of those tabs is a message container (mail). Every time I click a folder link (Inbox, Sent Mail etc) I reload just that tab alone with appropriate content. I use Jquery dialog to pick contacts and I have to load contacts everytime. Since I reload the whole tab content every time JQuery Dialog registers (or creates) the whole div content. To avoid this I did this: if ($("#ui-dialog-title-divContacts").length == 0) { //if dialog data is not created then make dialog $("#divContacts").dialog({ bgiframe: true, resizable: false, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 425, modal: true, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { Cancel: function () { //basically do nothing $(this).dialog("close"); }, 'Done': function () { $("#divTo").empty().html($("#divSelectedContacts").html()); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); } I went to generated viewsource in FF and found that only one instance is being created. My problem now is it is not showing the dialog. Is there a way by which I can open this dialog without registering it. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • How to get jQuery to find the first list-item, rather than all list-items?

    - by ricebowl
    I'm trying to implement a basic jQuery infinite carousel. As much for the learning process as for anything else (as a rule I'm not a fan of re-inventing wheels, but...I have to learn somehow, might as well start with the basics). I've managed to get the list to animate left happily enough, but I'm stuck when it comes to selecting the first element of the list. I've tried to use: $('ul#services > li:first'); $('ul#services > li:first-child'); $('ul#services > li').eq([0]); (xhtml below), In each case a console.log(first) (the var name used) returns all of the list-items. Am I doing something blatantly, and obviously, wrong? The eventual plan is to clone the first li, append it to the parent ul, remove the li from the list and allow the list to scroll infinitely. It's just a list of services rather than links so I'm not -at the moment- planning to have scroll or left/right functionality. Current xhtml: <div class="wrapper"> <ul id="services"> <!-- closing the `</li>` tags on the following line is to remove whitespace in the horizontal list, doesn't seem to make a difference to the jQuery from my own testing. --> <li>one</li ><li>two</li ><li>three</li ><li>four</li ><li>five</li ><li>six</li ><li>seven</li ><li>eight</li ><li>nine</li ><li>ten</li> </ul> </div>

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  • Prevent jQuery Tabs to bind to <ul> elements below the main <ul> element.

    - by Shiki
    Hi, I have this HTML: <div id="mytabs"> <ul id="main-tabs"> <li><a href="">Link</a></li> <li><a href="">Link</a></li> <li class="filter"> <ul id="filter-controls"> <li><a href="">Filter by something</a></li> <li><a href="">Filter by something</a></li> <li><a href="">Filter by something</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> And I set it to a tabbed control: $('#mytabs').tabs(); My problem is jQuery UI also converts the <li> elements in <ul id="filter-controls"> into tabs. Is there a way to instruct jQuery UI to only set the <li> children of <ul id="main-tabs"> as the tabs? Note: I am currently in no position to change <ul id="filter-controls" into a non-ul element.

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  • jQuery Mobile: How to run a callback-function before $.mobile.changePage?

    - by Jugi84
    I'm setting up a mobile app with jQuery Mobile and PhoneGap. What I want to do is that when I click link with id "news_link" I want jQuery to fetch data from database and put it to jQm's collapsible set. In my solution, I've wanted to use $.mobile.changePage inside callback functions because I want to wait until the data has been fetched and put inside the container before the code changes page. Here's the code: $(function() { $('#news_link').click(function(){ loadNewsFromDB(function(){ $.mobile.changePage( $("#news"), { transition: "slideup"} ); }); }); loadNewsFromDB is PhoneGap's SQLite database function which would fetch the data with more callback functions from database. The contents would be put to desired container with .html-function function loadNewsFromDB(){ //some code here theDB.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql(sqlStr, [], onLoadNewsSuccess, onLoadNewsError); },onTxError, onTxSuccess); function onLoadNewsSuccess(tx, results){ //some code here $("#newsSet").html(htmlCodeAndContentToPut); Html is jQm's basic ui-modules: <!-- some html code here --!> <div data-role="page" id="news"> <div data-role="content"> <div id="newsSet" data-role="collapsible-set" data-mini="true"> With debugging I know that the code work up until it works very well unti it arrives to $.mobile.changePage-function. Somehow it doesn't change the page. I've checked the function it works well in other occasions, but not inside callback-functions. I would be very grateful if someone would give me a hand am I not seeing something obviously wrong or is something more specific? What other workarounds there is for fetching the data from SQLite, waiting for data to be fetched, putting the data to container and then changing the pages?

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  • Does a jQuery selector by id always work without quotes and # sign?

    - by anarinsky
    I suddenly found that while using Mozilla / jQuery v1.8.2 I do not need to use the id with quotes and # sign. For example, $(bt2) works the same as $(“#bt2”), see the code below. Will this selector always work and are there any potential drawbacks from using this shorter form of selection? <html> <head> <title>append</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function(){ $(bt2).click(function(){ $(i1).append("<li>a4</li>", "<li>a5</li>"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <button id="Button1">Append List</button> <ul id="i1"> <li>a1</li> </ul> </body> </html>

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  • How to use Jquery UI in my Custom Function? (Autocomplete)

    - by bakazero
    I want to create a function to simplify configuration of jQuery UI AutoComplete. Here is my function code: (function($) { $.fn.myAutocomplete = function() { var cache = {}; var dataUrl = args.dataUrl; var dataSend = args.dataItem; $.autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { if (cache.term == request.term && cache.content) { response(cache.content); } if (new RegExp(cache.term).test(request.term) && cache.content && cache.content.length < 13) { var matcher = new RegExp($.ui.autocomplete.escapeRegex(request.term), "i"); response($.grep(cache.content, function(value) { return matcher.test(value.value) })); } $.ajax({ url: dataUrl, dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: dataSend, success: function(data) { cache.term = request.term; cache.content = data; response(data); } }); }, minLength: 2, }); } }) (jQuery); but when I'm using this function like: $("input#tag").myAutocomplete({ dataUrl: "/auto_complete/tag", dataSend: { term: request.term, category: $("input#category").val() } }); It's give me an error: Uncaught ReferenceError: request is not defined

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  • jQuery validation plugin: valid() does not work with remote validation ?

    - by a-dilla
    I got started by following this awesome tutorial, but wanted to do the validation on on keyup and place my errors somewhere else. The remote validation shows its own error message at the appropriate times, making me think I had it working. But if I ask specifically if a field with remote validation is valid, it says no, actually, its not. In application.js I have this... $("#new_user").validate({ rules: { "user[login]": {required: true, minlength: 3, remote: "/live_validations/check_login"}, }, messages: { "user[login]": {required: " ", minlength: " ", remote: " "}, } }); $("#user_login").keyup(function(){ if($(this).valid()){ $(this).siblings(".feedback").html("0"); }else{ $(this).siblings(".feedback").html("1"); } }) And then this in the rails app... def check_login @user = User.find_by_login(params[:user][:login]) respond_to do |format| format.json { render :json => @user ? "false" : "true" } end end I think that my problem might have everything to do with this ticket over at jQuery, and tried to implement that code, but, being new to jQuery, it's all a bit over my head. When I say bit, I mean way way. Any ideas to fix it, or a new way to look at it, would be a big help.

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  • Event Driven Programming 101

    - by JHarley1
    Good Morning, I previously asked the Q. of how Event Handlers Work (which I got a great answer for). I would now like to understand the basics of how are events are associated with on-screen objects? An explanation of how Events are associated with on Screen Objects: The application registers the Event, the Event Handler and the Component with the GUI Server. When an Event is detected the GUI Server has to link an Event to a Window and then to a Component, it then consults the Event / Component Table to identify which Handler (s) to be executed. I am having problems finding resources/papers that have mention of this process - especially of a Event / Component Table - can anyone clarify?

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  • Binding not writing to datasource on .NET Compact Framework Form -- works on Full Framework

    - by Dave Welling
    I have a problem with a bound user control writing back to it's datasource on a NetCF forms application. The application is too complex to post code, so I made a toy version to show you. I create a form, usercontrol with a combobox, a class (testBind) and another class (TestLookup). I bind a property of the usercontrol ("value") to a property ("selectedValue") on the testBind class. The testBind class implements INotifyPropertyChanged. I create a few fascade methods on the user control to bind the contained combobox to a BindingList(of TestLookup). I create a button to show the value of the testBind bound property (in a MessageBox). The messagebox returns "-1" every time regardless of the combobox entry selected. I can take the EXACT same code, paste it in a full framework Forms app and it will return the correct value of the selected combobox entry. Imports System.ComponentModel Public Class Form2 Inherits Form Private _testBind1 As testBind Private _testUserControlX As UserControlX Friend WithEvents _buttonX As System.Windows.Forms.Button Public Sub New() _buttonX = New System.Windows.Forms.Button _buttonX.Location = New System.Drawing.Point(126, 228) _buttonX.Size = New System.Drawing.Size(70, 21) _testBind1 = New testBind _testUserControlX = New UserControlX() Dim _lookup As New System.ComponentModel.BindingList(Of TestLookup)() _lookup.Add(New TestLookup(1, "text1")) _lookup.Add(New TestLookup(2, "text2")) _testUserControlX.DataSource = _lookup _testUserControlX.DisplayMember = "Text" _testUserControlX.ValueMember = "ID" _testUserControlX.DataBindings.Add("Value", _testBind1, "SelectedID", False, DataSourceUpdateMode.OnValidation) MinimizeBox = False Controls.Add(_testUserControlX) Controls.Add(_buttonX) End Sub Private Sub ButtonX_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles _buttonX.Click MessageBox.Show(_testBind1.SelectedID.ToString()) End Sub Public Class testBind Implements System.ComponentModel.INotifyPropertyChanged Private _selectedRow As Integer = -1 Public Event PropertyChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs) Implements System.ComponentModel.INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged Protected Sub OnPropertyChanged(ByVal PropertyName As String) RaiseEvent PropertyChanged(Me, New PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)) End Sub Public Property SelectedID() As Integer Get Return _selectedRow End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _selectedRow = value OnPropertyChanged("SelectedID") End Set End Property End Class Public Class TestLookup Private _text As String Private _id As Integer Public Sub New(ByVal id As Integer, ByVal text As String) _text = text _id = id End Sub Public Property ID() As Integer Get Return _id End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _id = value End Set End Property Public Property Text() As String Get Return _text End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _text = value End Set End Property End Class End Class Public Class UserControlX Inherits System.Windows.Forms.UserControl Friend WithEvents ComboBox1 As System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox Public Sub New() Me.ComboBox1 = New System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox Me.Controls.Add(Me.ComboBox1) End Sub Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return ComboBox1.SelectedValue End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) ComboBox1.SelectedValue = value End Set End Property Public Property DataSource() As Object Get Return ComboBox1.DataSource End Get Set(ByVal value As Object) ComboBox1.DataSource = value End Set End Property Public Property ValueMember() As String Get Return ComboBox1.ValueMember End Get Set(ByVal value As String) ComboBox1.ValueMember = value End Set End Property Public Property DisplayMember() As String Get Return ComboBox1.DisplayMember End Get Set(ByVal value As String) ComboBox1.DisplayMember = value End Set End Property End Class

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  • Java, Jacob and Microsoft Outlook events: Receiving "Can't find event iid" Error

    - by Adam Paynter
    I am writing a Java program that interacts with Microsoft Outlook using the Jacob library (bridges COM and Java). This program creates a new MailItem, displaying its Inspector window to the user. I wish to subscribe to the inspector's Close event to know when the user is finished editing their mail item. To subscribe to the event, I followed the instructions in Jacob's documentation (about 2⁄3 down the page): The current [event] model is conceptually similar to the Visual Basic WithEvents construct. Basically, I provide a class called com.jacob.com.DispatchEvents which has a constructor that takes a source object (of type com.jacob.com.Dispatch) and a target object (of any type). The source object is queried for its IConnectionPointContainer interface and I attempt to obtain an IConnectionPoint for its default source interface (which I obtain from IProvideClassInfo). At the same time, I also create a mapping of DISPID's for the default source interface to the actual method names. I then use the method names to get jmethodID handles from the target Java object. All event methods currently must have the same signature: one argument which is a Java array of Variants, and a void return type. Here is my InspectorEventHandler class, conforming to Jacob's documentation: public class InspectorEventHandler { public void Activate(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeMaximize(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeMinimize(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeMove(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeSize(Variant[] arguments) { } public void Close(Variant[] arguments) { System.out.println("Closing"); } public void Deactivate(Variant[] arguments) { } public void PageChange(Variant[] arguments) { } } And here is how I subscribe to the events using this InspectorEventHandler class: Object outlook = new ActiveXComponent("Outlook.Application"); Object mailItem = Dispatch.call(outlook, "CreateItem", 0).getDispatch(); Object inspector = Dispatch.get(mailItem, "GetInspector").getDispatch(); InspectorEventHandler eventHandler = new InspectorEventHandler(); // This supposedly registers eventHandler with the inspector new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler); However, the last line fails with the following exception: Exception in thread "main" com.jacob.com.ComFailException: Can't find event iid at com.jacob.com.DispatchEvents.init(Native Method) at com.jacob.com.DispatchEvents.(DispatchEvents.java) at cake.CakeApplication.run(CakeApplication.java:30) at cake.CakeApplication.main(CakeApplication.java:15) couldn't get IProvideClassInfo According to Google, a few others have also received this error. Unfortunately, none of them have received an answer. I am using version 1.7 of the Jacob library, which claims to prevent this problem: Version 1.7 also includes code to read the type library directly from the progid. This makes it possible to work with all the Microsoft Office application events, as well as IE5 events. For an example see the samples/test/IETest.java example. I noticed that the aforementioned IETest.java file subscribes to events like this: new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) ieo, ieE,"InternetExplorer.Application.1"); Therefore, I tried subscribing to my events in a similar manner: new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler, "Outlook.Application"); new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler, "Outlook.Application.1"); new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler, "Outlook.Application.12"); All these attempts failed with the same error.

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  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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  • A script that writes errors and should create a event-error

    - by helmich
    this if it works should check the internet connection if there is a connection it does nothing. if there isn't a connection it should write a error in a txtfile if that happend 5 times it should create a error but it doesn't I will show you the whole code that i have now and the piece of code that i want in a loop. I can't get it in the way i want. I want it to creat 1 Event-error after 5 times writing to the file. this is the whole code i will put the code i want in a loop under it strDirectory = "Z:\text2" strFile = "\foutmelding.txt" strText = "De connectie is verbroken" strWebsite = "www.helmichbeens.com" If PingSite(strWebsite) Then WScript.Quit 'Website is pingable - no further action required Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") RecordSingleEvent Dim fout For fout = 1 To 5 : Do If fout = 5 Then Exit Do Set WshShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") Call WshShell.LogEvent(1, "Test Event") Loop While False : next '------------------------------------ 'Record a single event in a text file '------------------------------------ Sub RecordSingleEvent If Not objFSO.FolderExists(strDirectory) Then objFSO.CreateFolder(strDirectory) Set objTextFile = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile, 8, True) objTextFile.WriteLine(Now & strText) objTextFile.Close End sub '---------------- 'Ping my web site '---------------- Function PingSite( myWebsite ) Set objHTTP = CreateObject( "WinHttp.WinHttpRequest.5.1" ) objHTTP.Open "GET", "http://" & myWebsite & "/", False objHTTP.SetRequestHeader "User-Agent", "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MyApp 1.0; Windows NT 5.1)" On Error Resume Next objHTTP.Send PingSite = (objHTTP.Status = 200) On Error Goto 0 End Function '----------------------------------------------- 'Counts the number of lines inside the text file '----------------------------------------------- Function EventCount(fout) strData = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile,ForReading).ReadAll arrLines = Split(strData,vbCrLf) EventCount = UBound(arrLines) End Function This is the whole code, and it doesnt work correctly becaus it creats a event-log rightaway and it should do that after the script has written 5 times to the textfile here is the code that writes to a textfile Sub RecordSingleEvent If Not objFSO.FolderExists(strDirectory) Then objFSO.CreateFolder(strDirectory) Set objTextFile = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile, 8, True) objTextFile.WriteLine(Now & strText) objTextFile.Close End sub and here is the code but this part doesnt not work or atleast i think it is this part Dim fout For fout = 1 To 5 : Do If fout = 5 Then Exit Do Set WshShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") Call WshShell.LogEvent(1, "Test Event") Loop While False : next Function EventCount(fout) strData = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile,ForReading).ReadAll arrLines = Split(strData,vbCrLf) EventCount = UBound(arrLines) End Function this is the not working part and I don't know what to do anymore so can you please take a look at it tank you very much. btw: this code can be very usefull for a network administrator

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