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  • What is `objc_msgSend_fixup`, exactly?

    - by Luis Antonio Botelho O. Leite
    I'm messing around with the Objective-C runtime, trying to compile objective-c code without linking it against libobjc, and I'm having some segmentation fault problems with a program, so I generated an assembly file from it. I think it's not necessary to show the whole assembly file. At some point of my main function, I've got the following line (which, by the way, is the line after which I get the seg fault): callq *l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc and here is the definition for l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc: .hidden l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc # @"\01l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc" .type l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc,@object .section "__DATA, __objc_msgrefs, coalesced","aw",@progbits .weak l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc .align 16 l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc: .quad objc_msgSend_fixup .quad L_OBJC_METH_VAR_NAME_ .size l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc, 16 I've reimplemented objc_msgSend_fixup as a function (id objc_msgSend_fixup(id self, SEL op, ...)) which returns nil (just to see what happens), but this function isn't even being called (the program crashes before calling it). So, my question is, what is callq *l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc supposed to do and what is objc_msgSend_fixup (after l_objc_msgSend_fixup_alloc:) supposed to be (a function or an object)? Edit To better explain, I'm not linking my source file against the objc library. What I'm trying to do is implement some parts of the libray, just to see how it works. Here is an approach of what I've done: #include <stdio.h> #include <objc/runtime.h> @interface MyClass { } +(id) alloc; @end @implementation MyClass +(id) alloc { // alloc the object return nil; } @end id objc_msgSend_fixup(id self, SEL op, ...) { printf("Calling objc_msgSend_fixup()...\n"); // looks for the method implementation for SEL in self's vtable return nil; // Since this is just a test, this function doesn't need to do that } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { MyClass *m; m = [MyClass alloc]; // At this point, according to the assembly code generated // objc_msgSend_fixup should be called. So, the program should, at least, print // "Calling objc_msgSend_fixup()..." on the screen, but it crashes before // objc_msgSend_fixup() is called... return 0; } If the runtime needs to access the object's vtable to find the correct method to call, what is the function which actually does this? I think it is objc_msgSend_fixup, in this case. So, when objc_msgSend_fixup is called, it receives an object as one of its parameters, and, if this object hasn't been initialized, the function fails. So, I've implemented my own version of objc_msgSend_fixup. According to the assembly source above, it should be called. It doesn't matter if the function is actually looking for the implementation of the selector passed as parameter. I just want objc_msgSend_lookup to be called. But, it's not being called, that is, the function that looks for the object's data is not even being called, instead of being called and cause a fault (because it returns a nil (which, by the way, doesn't matter)). The program seg fails before objc_msgSend_lookup is called...

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  • Recommended textbook for machine-level programming?

    - by Norman Ramsey
    I'm looking at textbooks for an undergraduate course in machine-level programming. If the perfect book existed, this is what it would look like: Uses examples written in C or assembly language, or both. Covers machine-level operations such as two's-complement integer arithmetic, bitwise operations, and floating-point arithmetic. Explains how caches work and how they affect performance. Explains machine instructions or assembly instructions. Bonus if the example assembly language includes x86; triple bonus if it includes x86-64 (aka AMD64). Explains how C values and data structures are represented using hardware registers and memory. Explains how C control structures are translated into assembly language using conditional and unconditional branch instructions. Explains something about procedure calling conventions and how procedure calls are implemented at the machine level. Books I might be interested in would probably have the words "machine organization" or "computer architecture" in the title. Here are some books I'm considering but am not quite happy with: Computer Systems: A Programmer's Perspective by Randy Bryant and Dave O'Hallaron. This is quite a nice book, but it's a book for a broad, shallow course in systems programming, and it contains a great deal of material my students don't need. Also, it is just out in a second edition, which will make it expensive. Computer Organization and Design: The Hardware/Software Interface by Dave Patterson and John Hennessy. This is also a very nice book, but it contains way more information about how the hardware works than my students need. Also, the exercises look boring. Finally, it has a show-stopping bug: it is based very heavily on MIPS hardware and the use of a MIPS simulator. My students need to learn how to use DDD, and I can't see getting this to work on a simulator. Not to mention that I can't see them cross-compiling their code for the simulator, and so on and so forth. Another flaw is that the book mentions the x86 architecture only to sneer at it. I am entirely sympathetic to this point of view, but news flash! You guys lost! Write Great Code Vol I: Understanding the Machine by Randall Hyde. I haven't evaluated this book as thoroughly as the other two. It has a lot of what I need, but the translation from high-level language to assembler is deferred to Volume Two, which has mixed reviews. My students will be annoyed if I make them buy a two-volume series, even if the price of those two volumes is smaller than the price of other books. I would really welcome other suggestions of books that would help students in a class where they are to learn how C-language data structures and code are translated to machine-level data structures and code and where they learn how to think about performance, with an emphasis on the cache.

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  • Hide a base class method from derived class, but still visible outside of assembly

    - by clintp
    This is a question about tidyness. The project is already working, I'm satisfied with the design but I have a couple of loose ends that I'd like to tie up. My project has a plugin architecture. The main body of the program dispatches work to the plugins that each reside in their own AppDomain. The plugins are described with an interface, which is used by the main program (to get the signature for invoking DispatchTaskToPlugin) and by the plugins themselves as an API contract: namespace AppServer.Plugin.Common { public interface IAppServerPlugin { void Register(); void DispatchTaskToPlugin(Task t); // Other methods omitted } } In the main body of the program Register() is called so that the plugin can register its callback methods with the base class, and then later DispatchTaskToPlugin() is called to get the plugin running. The plugins themselves are in two parts. There's a base class that implements the framework for the plugin (setup, housekeeping, teardown, etc..). This is where DispatchTaskToPlugin is actually defined: namespace AppServer.Plugin { abstract public class BasePlugin : MarshalByRefObject, AppServer.Plugin.Common.IAppServerPlugin { public void DispatchTaskToPlugin(Task t) { // ... // Eventual call to actual plugin code // } // Other methods omitted } } The actual plugins themselves only need to implement a Register() method (to give the base class the delegates to call eventually) and then their business logic. namespace AppServer.Plugin { public class Plugin : BasePlugin { override public void Register() { // Calls a method in the base class to register itself. } // Various callback methods, business logic, etc... } } Now in the base class (BasePlugin) I've implemented all kinds of convenience methods, collected data, etc.. for the plugins to use. Everything's kosher except for that lingering method DispatchTaskToPlugin(). It's not supposed to be callable from the Plugin class implementations -- they have no use for it. It's only needed by the dispatcher in the main body of the program. How can I prevent the derived classes (Plugin) from seeing the method in the base class (BasePlugin/DispatchTaskToPlugin) but still have it visible from outside of the assembly? I can split hairs and have DispatchTaskToPlugin() throw an exception if it's called from the derived classes, but that's closing the barn door a little late. I'd like to keep it out of Intellisense or possibly have the compiler take care of this for me. Suggestions?

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  • VS2012 - Sync project properties and ClickOnce Build number

    - by Horst Walter
    There is a build / version number automatically increasing with Publish for ClickOnce applications. This version number is different from the assembly version in the project properties (which in turn is automatically displayed in a generated WPF about box). Is there a way to sync the ClickOnce version number and the project number in the assembly properties? Goal is to get an automatically increasing and identical version number for both places.

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  • Maven. How to include specific folder or file when assemblying project depending on is it dev build or production?

    - by user563588
    Using maven-assembly-plugin <plugin> <artifactId>maven-assembly-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.1</version> <configuration> <descriptors> <descriptor>descriptor.xml</descriptor> </descriptors> <finalName>xxx-impl-${pom.version}</finalName> <outputDirectory>target/assembly</outputDirectory> <workDirectory>target/assembly/work</workDirectory> </configuration> in descriptor.xml file we can specify <fileSets> <fileSet> <directory>src/install</directory> <outputDirectory>/</outputDirectory> </fileSet> </fileSets> Is it possible to include specific file from this folder or sub-folder depending on profile? Or some other way... Like this: <profiles> <profile> <id>dev</id> <activation> <activeByDefault>false</activeByDefault> </activation> <build> <resources> <resource> <directory>src/install/dev</directory> <includes> <include>**/*</include> </includes> </resource> </resources> </build> </profile> <profile> <id>prod</id> <build> <resources> <resource> <directory>src/install/prod</directory> <includes> <include>**/*</include> </includes> </resource> </resources> </build> </profile> </profiles> But it puts resources in jar when packaging. But we need to put it in zip when assemblying as I already mentioned above :( Thanks!

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  • Maven. How to include specific folder or file when assemblying project depending on is it dev build or production?

    - by user563588
    Using maven-assembly-plugin <plugin> <artifactId>maven-assembly-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.1</version> <configuration> <descriptors> <descriptor>descriptor.xml</descriptor> </descriptors> <finalName>xxx-impl-${pom.version}</finalName> <outputDirectory>target/assembly</outputDirectory> <workDirectory>target/assembly/work</workDirectory> </configuration> in descriptor.xml file we can specify <fileSets> <fileSet> <directory>src/install</directory> <outputDirectory>/</outputDirectory> </fileSet> </fileSets> Is it possible to include specific file from this folder or sub-folder depending on profile? Or some other way... Like this: <profiles> <profile> <id>dev</id> <activation> <activeByDefault>false</activeByDefault> </activation> <build> <resources> <resource> <directory>src/install/dev</directory> <includes> <include>**/*</include> </includes> </resource> </resources> </build> </profile> <profile> <id>prod</id> <build> <resources> <resource> <directory>src/install/prod</directory> <includes> <include>**/*</include> </includes> </resource> </resources> </build> </profile> </profiles> But it puts resources in jar when packaging. But we need to put it in zip when assemblying as I already mentioned above :( Thanks!

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  • Unable to find assembly, C#

    - by PlasmaCube
    So, here's the deal. I've got two ASP.NET applications, both of which use SQLServer Session State management. They also both use the same server. I've got a custom session class in an external DLL, which fully implements serialization, and which both applications have referenced. Each application, in turn, has a class which inherits from the DLL class, and both applications use their own respective classes for their session state. Now, what I was trying to accomplish was that if you wanted to go to the other application, it could look in the session (they all use the same session key) and treat the existing object there as the base (the one from the DLL), extract whatever login info you need, then overwrite the session object with your own. Unfortunately, when the second application attempts to read the session, it seems that it looks for the DLL of the first application, and when it can't find it, it throws an exception. Is there a flaw in my logic? Here's an example: // Global.asax of the 1st app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session.Add( "UserSessionKey", new FirstUserSession()); // FirstUserSession inherits from BaseUserSession } Now the second application: // Global.asax of 2nd app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Session["UserSessionKey"] != null) { BaseUserSession existing = (BaseUserSession)Session["UserSessionKey"]; SecondUserSession session = new SecondUserSession(); // This also inherits from BaseUserSession session.Authenticated = existing.Authenticated; session.Id = existing.Id; session.Role = existing.Role; Session.Add("UserSessionKey", session); } else { Session.Add("UserSessionKey", new SecondUserSession()); } } Here's the exception stack trace. In this case, "MyCBC" is the real name of the first app, and "ASPTesting" is the second app. [SerializationException: Unable to find assembly 'MyCBC, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.] System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryAssemblyInfo.GetAssembly() +1871092 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.GetType(BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, String name) +7545734 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap..ctor(String objectName, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +120 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap.Create(String name, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +52 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryObjectWithMapTyped record) +190 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryHeaderEnum binaryHeaderEnum) +61 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.Run() +253 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.Deserialize(HeaderHandler handler, __BinaryParser serParser, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +168 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.Deserialize(Stream serializationStream, HeaderHandler handler, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +203 System.Web.Util.AltSerialization.ReadValueFromStream(BinaryReader reader) +788 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.ReadValueFromStreamWithAssert() +55 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.DeserializeItem(String name, Boolean check) +281 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.get_Item(String name) +19 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionStateContainer.get_Item(String name) +13 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionState.get_Item(String name) +13 ASPTesting._Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Documents and Settings\sarsstu\My Documents\Projects\Testing\ASPTesting\ASPTesting\Default.aspx.cs:20 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +627 Thanks to everyone in advance.

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  • C# 'could not found' existing method

    - by shybovycha
    Greetings! I've been fooling around (a bit) with C# and its assemblies. And so i've found such an interesting feature as dynamic loading assemblies and invoking its class members. A bit of google and here i am, writing some kind of 'assembly explorer'. (i've used some portions of code from here, here and here and none of 'em gave any of expected results). But i've found a small bug: when i tried to invoke class method from assembly i've loaded, application raised MissingMethod exception. I'm sure DLL i'm loading contains class and method i'm tryin' to invoke (my app ensures me as well as RedGate's .NET Reflector): The main application code seems to be okay and i start thinking if i was wrong with my DLL... Ah, and i've put both of projects into one solution, but i don't think it may cause any troubles. And yes, DLL project has 'class library' target while the main application one has 'console applcation' target. So, the question is: what's wrong with 'em? Here are some source code: DLL source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ClassLibrary1 { public class Class1 { public void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } } Main application source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Assembly asm = Assembly.LoadFrom(@"a\long\long\path\ClassLibrary1.dll"); try { foreach (Type t in asm.GetTypes()) { if (t.IsClass == true && t.FullName.EndsWith(".Class1")) { object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(t); object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); // Exception is risen from here } } } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } System.Console.ReadKey(); } } } UPD: worked for one case - when DLL method takes no arguments: DLL class (also works if method is not static): public class Class1 { public static void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } Method invoke code: object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, null, null);

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  • .NET & Worflow, SqlTrackingQuery.GetWorkflows() on wire correct - presented object not

    - by UKShots
    With windows workflow when using the tracking service, the SqlTrackingQuery.GetWorkflows() method returns correctly the workflow type and assembly version on the wire from the DB query - but when one comes to query the returned SqlTrackingWorkflowInstance object it's WorkflowType.AssemblyQualifiedName property is returned as the current assembly version of the workflow type (i.e. it looks to matching on FQ type name only and not version). Anyone know how to get to the actual returned data (other than either a custom query or hook)?

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  • Migrating a virtual domain controller for DR exercise

    - by Dips
    Hello gurus, I have a question. I have a requirement where I have a virtual domain controller and I have to migrate it to another virtual server in a different location. It is for test purposes to test out a DR scenario and the test will be deemed successful if the users that authenticate using the production DC can do so in the backup DC. I don't know much about this and thus don't know why it was assigned to me. So any assistance will be greatly appreciated. What I had in mind was: 1) Taking a snapshot of the production server and then restoring it in the other server. But I was told that this is not the suggested way of doing it. I was not told why. Is that right?If a snapshot is to be taken then what is the best way to do it. Any ideas on where I can get the documentation for this? 2) Another way would be to build the test DC from ground up, match it to the specs of production DC and then perform the DR test. Is this a better option? What will be needed to perform such an activity? Where can I find documentation on that? I apologise for the length of this query. As I said I am quite a novice and hope to get a better resolution. Any assistance will be greatly appreciated. Regards,

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  • Bad Blocks Exist in Virtual Device PERC H700 Integrated

    - by neoX
    I have a DELL server with PERC H700 Integrated controller. I've made RAID5 with 12 harddrives and the virtual device is in Optimal state, but I receive such errors under linux: sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] Unhandled error code sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] Result: hostbyte=0x07 driverbyte=0x00 sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] CDB: cdb[0]=0x88: 88 00 00 00 00 07 22 50 bd 98 00 00 00 08 00 00 end_request: I/O error, dev sda, sector 30640487832 sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] Unhandled error code sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] Result: hostbyte=0x07 driverbyte=0x00 sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] CDB: cdb[0]=0x88: 88 00 00 00 00 07 22 50 bd 98 00 00 00 08 00 00 end_request: I/O error, dev sda, sector 30640487832 sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] Unhandled error code sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] Result: hostbyte=0x07 driverbyte=0x00 sd 0:2:0:0: [sda] CDB: cdb[0]=0x88: 88 00 00 00 00 07 22 50 bc e0 00 00 01 00 00 00 end_request: I/O error, dev sda, sector 30640487648 But all disk are in Firmware state: Online, Spun Up. Also there is not a single ATA read or write error in any disk in the raid (I check them with smartctl -a -d sat+megaraid,N -H /dev/sda). The only strange thing is in the output in megacli: megacli -LDInfo -L0 -a0 ... Bad Blocks Exist: Yes How could there be bad blocks in a Virtual Drive, which is in optimal state and no disk is broken or even with a single error? I tried "Consistency Check", but it finished successfully and the errors are still in dmesg. Could Someone help me to figure it out what is wrong with my raid?

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  • Setting up ProxyPass for a Virtualmin virtual server

    - by Andy Ibanez
    I am trying to set up my web server so that I can server multiple Ghost.org blogs. I am stuck in one crucial step. To be honest, my knowledge in servers is not so big, so I request your help to do this. Basically, a tutorial I'm reading suggests I set up a VirtualHost in this way: NameVirtualHost *:80 <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName your-url.com ServerAlias www.your-url.com ProxyRequests off ProxyPass / http://127.0.0.1:2368/ ProxyPassReverse / http:/127.0.0.1:2368/ </VirtualHost> So I have gone to the Virtual site on Virtualmin to try to add everything as is. Services Configure Website Edit Directives The problem is, the previous page (Services Configure website) says I can't edit the port: This Apache virtual host belongs to the Virtualmin server linguist.andyibanez.com, so the address, port, base directory and hostname cannot be changed here. And whenever I try to add the ProxyRequests off (the other two can be added fine) directive in Edit Directives manually, I'm simply told that the directive can't be there. So what is the right way to "add" the last three directives in the VirtualHost above to my sub server? Maybe I'm missing a menu item that will help me with this? I request your help as I have looked for a while, Google keeps thinking I want to serve Webmin via Apache when I google "Set up Virtualmin proxypass", and I have no clue what to do.

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  • IIS 7 - The virtual path 'null' maps to another application, which is not allowed

    - by Miro
    I have run into issue when set up IIS 7 Farm for Load balancing. Add 4 server to IIS Farm with appropriate ports(8080,8081,8082,8083). Also add Inbound rule for IIS Farm. The Tomcat instances listens these ports. When i'm opening url(which i set on inbound rule), i got the following exception: The virtual path 'null' maps to another application, which is not allowed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The virtual path 'null' maps to another application, which is not allowed.] System.Web.CachedPathData.GetVirtualPathData(VirtualPath virtualPath, Boolean permitPathsOutsideApp) +8839122 System.Web.HttpContext.GetFilePathData() +36 System.Web.HttpContext.GetConfigurationPathData() +26 System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfig.GetConfig(HttpContext context) +43 System.Web.Configuration.CustomErrorsSection.GetSettings(HttpContext context, Boolean canThrow) +41 System.Web.HttpResponse.ReportRuntimeError(Exception e, Boolean canThrow, Boolean localExecute) +101 System.Web.HttpContext.ReportRuntimeErrorIfExists(RequestNotificationStatus& status) +538 How can i solve this issue?

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  • Using virtual IP with stunnel and haproxy

    - by beardtwizzle
    Hi there, We have a load-balancer setup, in which an HTTPS Request flows through the following steps:- Client -> DNS -> stunnel on Load-Balancer -> HAProxy on LB -> Web-Server This setup works perfectly when stunnel is listening to the local IP of the Load-Balancer. However in our setup we have 2 load-balancers and we want to be able to listen to a virtual IP, which only ever exists on one LB at a time (keepalived flips the IP to the second LB if the first one falls over). HAProxy has no problem in doing this (and I can ping the assigned virtual IP on the load-balancer I'm testing), but it seems stunnel hates the concept. Has anyone achieved this before (below is my stunnel config - as you can see I'm actually listening for ALL traffic on 443):- cert= /etc/ssl/certs/mycert.crt key = /etc/ssl/certs/mykey.key ;setuid = nobody ;setgid = nogroup pid = /etc/stunnel/stunnel.pid debug = 3 output = /etc/stunnel/stunnel.log socket=l:TCP_NODELAY=1 socket=r:TCP_NODELAY=1 [https] accept=443 connect=127.0.0.1:8443 TIMEOUTclose=0 xforwardedfor=yes Sorry for the long-winded question!

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  • How to setup a virtual host in Ubuntu?

    - by Rade
    I have an app that's accessible via 1.2.3.4/myapp. The app is installed in /var/www/myapp. I've set up a subdomain(apps.mydomain.com) that points to 1.2.3.4. I want the server to point to var/www/myapp if I type apps.mydomain.com/myapp, how do I do that? I have experience creating virtual hosts(lots of them) locally but I'm lost because it's now in production and it's a little different. Here's my virtual host config: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ServerName apps.mydomain.com/myapp DocumentRoot /var/www/myapp/public <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All </Directory> <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride All Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ <Directory "/usr/lib/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride All Options +ExecCGI -MultiViews +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn CustomLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/access.log combined </VirtualHost> Any idea why I still see the files instead of pointing me to the document root? Just in case someone might ask, the app is based on Laravel 4 framework. It's really bad right now because anyone can access the files from the browser.

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  • Slow upload speeds with pfsense virtual appliance

    - by Justin Shin
    I have a pfSense virtual appliance set up in front of a Windows server. The pfSense appliance has been configured with two L2L IPSec VPN sites and not too much else. The appliance has two vNics which both exist on the same VLAN, but one is "WAN" and the other is "LAN." When I run speedtest.net on my Windows server when I have configured it to use a static WAN address and gateway, I get great speeds - maybe around 50 down, 15 up. However, when I configure it with a private IP address, I get similar download speeds but terrible upload speeds - around 2 or 3 Mbps consistently. I used Wireshark to see what gives but there didn't appear to be too much helpful information there, or I just could not find it. Besides the L2L VPNs, other configurations include: Automatic Outbound NAT Virtual P-ARP IP for the Windows Server WAN Firewall rule to allow * to * on RDP WAN Firewall rule to allow * to * (enabled this just for testing... didn't help!) No DHCP or any other services besides IPSec VPN No Errors LAN or WAN No collisions LAN or WAN I would be happy to post the full config file if it would help. I've been scratching my head at this one all day!

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  • Virtual bridged networking with VLAN, could not ping

    - by v.yegy
    I require a virtual network with VLAN be build between two virtual hosts - which can be (lxc/ vbox -ubuntu or win xp). I tried with lxc and vbox with Ubuntu and was finding difficult to make it work without vlan, but was successful with vbox with xp. vbox-xp1 --- br1 ---------------- br2 ---- vbox-xp2 The config is: brctl addbr br1; brctl addbr br2 ifconfig br1 up; ifconfig br2 up stp br1 off; stp br2 off ip link add name br1-br2-l0 type veth peer name br1-br2-l1 sudo brctl addif br1 br1-br2-l0 sudo brctl addif br2 br1-br2-l1 vbox - xp 1 and 2 with network ; bridged and br1 and br2 respectively. The adapter is intel PRO/1000 MT Server and driver installed in guests. Configured IPs and two hosts pinged! VLAN config: ip link add link br1 name br1-2.5 type vlan id 5 brctl addif br2 br1-2.5 create vlan 5 in xp 1 and 2 and assign ip address Ping on with this config does not work. Wireshark trace on interface br1-br2-l1 / br1-2.5 shows that one ping results in ~240 ping packets and each growing by 4 bytes - first one being correct and 60, ping does not reach other host as I see mac is not learnt[arp -a]. -- if br1-2.5 is not configured, I see untagged packets in br1-br2-l1/0, but still not reaching other host as mac is not learnt. if br1-br2-l0/1 is made down, even if br1-2.5 is up, I count not see any packets. I tried with ebtables, but still could not make a correct config to work. -- If any one here are aware of any configuration, please let me know. I need to make a network of switches. Seems I have a very long way. Sorry for a very long question. Thanks and regards, vy

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  • Where's the Swap File/Partition?

    - by chrisbunney
    I'm investigating the virtual memory configuration of a Debian based Amazon EC2 instance, and as my background isn't in system admin, I'm slightly confused by what I'm seeing. We're using MongoDB, and the monitoring server we have indicates that the Mongo process is using about 20GB of swap space, however I can't figure out where this is located on the server. As far as I can tell from using the various suggested methods from Google, there is either a much smaller amount, or none at all. top indicates that there is 1.8GB of swap memory: top - 15:35:21 up 6 days, 3:23, 1 user, load average: 1.60, 1.43, 1.37 Tasks: 47 total, 2 running, 45 sleeping, 0 stopped, 0 zombie Cpu(s): 0.0%us, 1.3%sy, 0.0%ni, 14.7%id, 83.8%wa, 0.0%hi, 0.0%si, 0.1%st Mem: 3928924k total, 2855572k used, 1073352k free, 640564k buffers Swap: 0k total, 0k used, 0k free, 1887788k cached swapon -s doesn't seem to think there's any swap space: Filename Type Size Used Priority free -m doesn't think there's any swap either: total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 3836 3663 172 0 626 2701 -/+ buffers/cache: 336 3500 Swap: 0 0 0 And neither does vmstat: procs -----------memory---------- ---swap-- -----io---- -system-- ----cpu---- r b swpd free buff cache si so bi bo in cs us sy id wa 0 3 0 66224 641372 2874744 0 0 21 5012 21 33 2 2 76 19 But cat /etc/fstab thinks there is a swap partition: /dev/xvda1 / ext3 defaults 1 1 /dev/xvda2 /mnt ext3 defaults 0 0 /dev/xvda3 swap swap defaults 0 0 none /proc proc defaults 0 0 none /sys sysfs defaults 0 0 However df -k gives no indication of the xvda3 partition: Filesystem 1K-blocks Used Available Use% Mounted on /dev/xvda1 16513960 15675324 0 100% / tmpfs 1964460 8 1964452 1% /lib/init/rw udev 1914148 28 1914120 1% /dev tmpfs 1964460 4 1964456 1% /dev/shm So I really don't know what to make of this, because I appear to have a process using about 10 times more virtual memory than what might be available, and I have no idea where this virtual memory is on the system. I'm probably misinterpreting the output of the tools, so I'd be grateful if someone would be able to set me straight: What have I got wrong, what's the right interpretation, and how do you reach that interpretation? EDIT0: We use 10gen's MMS for monitoring the database, the relevant section for memory from the last data point is: "mem": { "virtual": 20749, "bits": 64, "supported": true, "mappedWithJournal": 20376, "mapped": 10188, "resident": 1219 }, This JSON is specific to the database process (I believe) rather than the system as a whole. fdisk -l /dev/xvda outputs... nothing? I tried each of the 3 xvda entries in /etc/fstab as well: root@ip:~# fdisk -l /dev/xvda1 Disk /dev/xvda1: 34.4 GB, 34359738368 bytes 255 heads, 63 sectors/track, 4177 cylinders Units = cylinders of 16065 * 512 = 8225280 bytes Sector size (logical/physical): 512 bytes / 512 bytes I/O size (minimum/optimal): 512 bytes / 512 bytes Disk identifier: 0x00000000 Disk /dev/xvda1 doesn't contain a valid partition table root@ip:~# fdisk -l /dev/xvda2 root@ip:~# fdisk -l /dev/xvda3 root@ip:~# Edit1: Output of cat /proc/meminfo for the sake of completeness: MemTotal: 3928924 kB MemFree: 726600 kB Buffers: 648368 kB Cached: 2216556 kB SwapCached: 0 kB Active: 1945100 kB Inactive: 994016 kB Active(anon): 60476 kB Inactive(anon): 12952 kB Active(file): 1884624 kB Inactive(file): 981064 kB Unevictable: 0 kB Mlocked: 0 kB SwapTotal: 0 kB SwapFree: 0 kB Dirty: 387180 kB Writeback: 0 kB AnonPages: 73380 kB Mapped: 1188260 kB Shmem: 48 kB Slab: 149768 kB SReclaimable: 146076 kB SUnreclaim: 3692 kB KernelStack: 1104 kB PageTables: 16096 kB NFS_Unstable: 0 kB Bounce: 0 kB WritebackTmp: 0 kB CommitLimit: 1964460 kB Committed_AS: 305572 kB VmallocTotal: 34359738367 kB VmallocUsed: 16760 kB VmallocChunk: 34359721448 kB HardwareCorrupted: 0 kB HugePages_Total: 0 HugePages_Free: 0 HugePages_Rsvd: 0 HugePages_Surp: 0 Hugepagesize: 2048 kB DirectMap4k: 3932160 kB DirectMap2M: 0 kB

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  • Networking 2 Virtual PC with one VPC as DHCP server

    - by vivek
    My host OS is Win XP Professional. The host has a real network connection via DSL and I created a second network connection using Microsoft Loopback Adapter. Internet connection sharing is enabled. The Microsoft Loopback adapter has a IP address of 192.168.0.1. I have 1 Virtual PC which has Windows Server 2003. I have setup the network connection on this VPC to use Microsoft Loopback Adapter. I setup this VPC to be the Domain Controller , DNS Server and DHCP Server. I set this to a static IP address 192.168.0.2 (on the same subnet as the MS Loopback adapter) I have a second Virtual PC which also has Windows Server 2003. The network connection on this VPC is set to "Local Only". I want this VPC to get its IP address from the 1st VPC on which I setup as a DHCP server. What i want is the 2 VPC should be in a network with one of the VPC acting as the domain controller, DNS Server and DHCP server. The second VPC shoud get its IP address from the 1st VPC. It should be a part of the domain of the 1st VPC. When i tried to make the second VPC get the IP address from the first VPC I am not succeeding. Can somebody post some suggestions on how to go about this ?

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  • IIS 6 ASP.NET default handler-mappings and virtual directories

    - by mlauter
    I'm having a problem with setting a default mapping in IIS 6. I want to secure *.HTML files with ASP.NET forms authentication. The problem seems to have something to do with using virtual directories to hold the html files. Here's how it's setup: sample directory tree c:/inetpub/ (nothing in here) d:/web_files/my_web_apps d:/web_files/my_web_apps/app1/ d:/web_files/my_web_apps/app2/ d:/web_files/my_web_apps/html_files/ app1 and app2 both access the same html_files directory, so html_files is set as a virtual directory in the web apps in IIS... sample web directory tree //app1/html_files/ (points to physical directory: d:/web_files/my_web_apps/html_files/) //app2/html_files/ (points to physical directory: d:/web_files/my_web_apps/html_files/) If I put a file called test.html in the root of //app1/ and then add the default mapping to the asp.net dll and setup my security on the root folder with deny="?", then accessing test.html works exactly as expected. If I'm not authenticated, it takes me to the login.aspx page, and if I am authenticated then it displays test.html. If I put the test.html file in the html_files directory I get a totally different behavior. Now the login.aspx page loads and I stuck some code in to check if I was still authenticated: <p>autheticated: <%=User.Identity.IsAuthenticated%></p> I figured it would say false because why else would it bother to load the login page? Nope, it says true - so it knows i'm authenticated, but it won't give me access to the test.html file. I've spent several hours on this and haven't been able to solve it. I'm going to spend some more time on google to see if I've missed something. Fingers crossed.

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  • Dynamic virtual host configuration in Apache

    - by Kostas Andrianopoulos
    I want to make a virtual host in Apache with dynamic configuration for my websites. For example something like this would be perfect. <VirtualHost *:80> AssignUserId $domain webspaces ServerName $subdomain.$domain.$tld ServerAdmin admin@$domain.$tld DocumentRoot "/home/webspaces/$domain.$tld/subdomains/$subdomain" <Directory "/home/webspaces/$domain.$tld/subdomains/$subdomain"> .... </Directory> php_admin_value open_basedir "/tmp/:/usr/share/pear/:/home/webspaces/$domain.$tld/subdomains/$subdomain" </VirtualHost> $subdomain, $domain, $tld would be extracted from the HTTP_HOST variable using regex at request time. No more loads of configuration, no more apache reloading every x minutes, no more stupid logic. Notice that I use mpm-itk (AssignUserId directive) so each virtual host runs as a different user. I do not intend to change this part. Since now I have tried: - mod_vhost_alias but this allows dynamic configuration of only the document root. - mod_macro but this still requires the arguments of the vhost to be declared explicitly for each vhost. - I have read about mod_vhs and other modules which store configuration in a SQL or LDAP server which is not acceptable as there is no need for configuration! Those 3 necessary arguments can be generated at runtime. - I have seen some Perl suggestions like this, but as the author states $s->add_config would add a directive after every request, thus leading to a memory leak, and $r->add_config seems not to be a feasible solution.

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  • Use shared 404 page for virtual hosts in Nginx

    - by Choy
    I'd like to have a shared 404 page to use across my virtual hosts. The following is my setup. Two sites, each with their own config file in /sites-available/ and /sites-enabled/ www.foo.com bar.foo.com The www directory is set up as: www/ foo.com/ foo.com/index.html bar.foo.com/ bar.foo.com/index.html shared/ shared/404.html Both config files in /sites-available are the same except for the root and server name: root /var/www/bar.foo.com; index index.html index.htm index.php; server_name bar.foo.com; location / { try_files $uri $uri/ /index.php; } error_page 404 /404.html; location = /404.html { root /var/www/shared; } I've tried the above code and also tried setting error_page 404 /var/www/shared/404.html (without the following location block). I've also double checked to make sure my permissions are set to 775 for all folders and files in www. When I try to access a non-existent page, Nginx serves the respective index.php of the virtual host I'm trying to access. Can anyone point out what I'm doing wrong? Thanks!

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  • IIS6 Virtual SMTP server isn't coming back up automatically after a system restart

    - by Julian James
    I've got a virtual server running Win2008 RC2. I've set up IIS6 with a virtual SMTP server on it to be the mail provider for the websites I'm hosting there. It all works great, but if for some reason the server reboots (auto updates are still enabled - I'm trying to make this as little work as possible as we've got a Lot of clients), the IIS6 doesn't restart the SMTP server. The failure causes 500 errors on the current setup, so I'm spending half the day apologising. Any ideas? In Services I've set everything to come back up automatically, but still no dice. As soon as I restart the SMTP, no problems, all the mail gets sent. It's working perfectly, it just won't restart on it's own. I'd really rather not turn auto updates off as we're such a small company I just can't spare the time to be manually updating 15 copies of windows every time MS decide there's a security patch. All advice appreciated! BTW, I am a complete newb to these forums. I searched but couldn't find an answer, so please be nice. But firm. I've got to learn here.

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  • ServerName wildcards in Apache name-based virtual hosts?

    - by Martijn Heemels
    On our LAN I've set up several 'fake' TLDs in the DNS server, with the intention of using them for Apache name-based virtual hosting. I'd like to combine this with mass-virtual-hosting (i.e. VirtualDocumentRoot) on an Ubuntu 10.04 LAMP server. However, I can't get it to select the right vhost! Here is a summary of the Apache config: NameVirtualHost 10.10.0.205 <VirtualHost 10.10.0.205> ServerName *.test VirtualDocumentRoot /var/www/%-3.0.%-2/test/%1/ CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.log vhost_combined </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 10.10.0.205> ServerName *.dev VirtualDocumentRoot /var/www/%-3.0.%-2/dev/%1/ CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.log vhost_combined </VirtualHost> A hostname such as www.domain.com.dev, correctly resolves to 10.10.0.205, but always selects the top vhost, instead of the bottom one, which matches more closely. I was under the impression that Apache would first try to match the ServerName before defaulting to the top vhost for a given IP. What am I doing wrong? Or is this not possible and must I use another IP for each TLD? apachectl -S outputs (trimmed): 10.10.0.205:* is a NameVirtualHost default server *.test port * namevhost *.test port * namevhost *.dev

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