Search Results

Search found 52729 results on 2110 pages for 'net'.

Page 91/2110 | < Previous Page | 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98  | Next Page >

  • RSACryptoServiceProvider CryptographicException System Cannot Find the File Specified under ASP.NET

    - by Will Hughes
    I have an application which is making use of the RSACryptoServiceProvider to decrypt some data using a known private key (stored in a variable). When the IIS Application Pool is configured to use Network Service, everything runs fine. However, when we configure the IIS Application Pool to run the code under a different Identity, we get the following: System.Security.Cryptography.CryptographicException: The system cannot find the file specified. at System.Security.Cryptography.Utils.CreateProvHandle(CspParameters parameters, Boolean randomKeyContainer) at System.Security.Cryptography.RSACryptoServiceProvider.ImportParameters(RSAParameters parameters) at System.Security.Cryptography.RSA.FromXmlString(String xmlString) The code is something like this: byte[] input; byte[] output; string private_key_xml; var provider = new System.Cryptography.RSACryptoServiceProvider(this.m_key.Key_Size); provider.FromXmlString(private_key_xml); // Fails Here when Application Pool Identity != Network Service ouput = provider.Decrypt(input, false); // False = Use PKCS#1 v1.5 Padding There are resources which attempt to answer it by stating that you should give the user read access to the machine key store - however there is no definitive answer to solve this issue. Environment: IIS 6.0, Windows Server 2003 R2, .NET 3.5 SP1

    Read the article

  • Where does lucene .net cache the search results?

    - by Lanceomagnifico
    Hi, I'm trying to figure out where Lucene stores the cached query results, and how it's configured to do so - and how long it caches for. This is for an ASP.NET 3.5 solution. I'm getting this problem: If I run a search and sort the result by a particular product field, it seems to work the very first time each search and sort combination is used. If I then go in and change some product attributes, reindex and run the same search and sort, I get the products returned in the same order as the very first result. example Product A is named: foo Product B is named: bar For the first search, sort by name desc. This results in: Product A Product B Now mix up the data a bit: Change names to: Product A named: bar Product B named: foo reindex verify that the index contains the changes for these two products. search Result: Product A Product B Since I changed the alphabetical order of the names, I expected: Product B Product A So I think that Lucene is caching the search results. (Which, btw, is a very good thing.) I just need to know where/how to clear these results. I've tried deleting the index files and doing an IISreset to clear the memory, but it seems to have no effect. So I'm thinking there is another set of Lucene files outside of the indexes that Lucene uses for caching. EDIT I just found out that you must create the index for field you wish to sort on as un-tokenized. I had the field as tokenized, so sorting didn't work.

    Read the article

  • Problem binding action parameters using FCKeditor, AJAX and ASP.NET MVC

    - by TonE
    I have a simple ASP.Net MVC View which contains an FCKeditor text box (created using FCKeditor's Javascript ReplaceTextArea() function). These are included within an Ajax.BeginForm helper: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("AddText", "Letters", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "addTextResult" })) {%> <div> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextArea("testBox", "Content", new { @name = "testBox" })%> <script type=""text/javascript""> window.onload = function() { var oFCKeditor = new FCKeditor('testBox') ; var sBasePath = '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/FCKeditor/") %>'; oFCKeditor.BasePath = sBasePath; oFCKeditor.ToolbarSet = "Basic"; oFCKeditor.Height = 400; oFCKeditor.ReplaceTextarea() ; } </script> <div id="addTextResult"> </div> <%} %> The controller action hanlding this is: [ValidateInput(false)] public ActionResult AddText(string testBox) { return Content(testBox); } Upon initial submission of the Ajax Form the testBox string in the AddText action is always "Content", whatever the contents of the FCKeditor have been changed to. If the Ajax form is submitted again a second time (without further changes) the testBox paramater correctly contains the actual contents of the FCKeditor. If I use a Html.TextArea without replacing with FCKeditor it works correctly, and if I use a standard Post form submit inplace of AJAX all works as expected. Am I doing something wrong? If not is there a suitable/straight-forward workaround for this problem?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Update Panel with CheckBox - Not Working Properly

    - by rwponu
    I'm working on a simple demo project so that I can learn some things about ASP.NET's AJAX capabilities. My problem is that I can't seem to get an UpdatePanel to work properly with a CheckBox inside of it. Here is the markup I'm using in my .aspx file: <asp:ScriptManager ID="SM1" runat="server" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <tr> <td><asp:CheckBox ID="chkPaypal" runat="server" Text="Paypal" OnCheckedChanged="PayPal_CheckedChanged" AutoPostBack="true" /></td> </tr> <asp:Panel ID="pnlPayPal" runat="server" Visible="false"> <tr> <td>&nbsp;&nbsp;<asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblPaypalEmail" Text="Email:" /></td> <td><asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="tbPaypalEmail" Text="" Width="250px" /></td> </tr> <tr><td>&nbsp;</td></tr> </asp:Panel> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:ASyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="chkPayPal" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> In my code behind, I'm simply saying: protected void PayPal_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { pnlPayPal.Visible = true; } Instead of making the panel visible as I anticipate, it is adding another "PayPal" checkbox at the top of the page. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Display ASP.NET GridView inside a selected row in another GridView

    - by Justin C
    I have been given a mockup that I do not know is possible to code in ASP.NET without being a real html and javascript wizard. I want a GridView that when a row is selected, the selected row expands and below the selected row a panel of additional information is shown, which would also include another small GridView. The idea is this would all be in-line. So if the user selected row 4, then the additional information would appear below row 4 and then after the additional information the parent GridView would continue with row 5. Ultimately I would want to do a multi-select type of set up, but first I need to figure out if this is even possible. Also, the solution must be 508 Compliant The one solution I considered was using only one "column". Then I would put all my fields in the ItemTemplate, and my detail panel content in the EditItemTemplate and instead of selecting the row, set it to edit mode. The problem with this solution is I lose the functionality of multiple columns if I throw everything in one huge ItemTemplate. Any and all suggestions or ideas are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Merge Word Documents (Office Interop & .NET), Keeping Formatting

    - by mbmccormick
    I'm having some difficulty merging multiple word documents together using Microsoft Office Interop Assemblies (Office 2007) and ASP.NET 3.5. I'm able to merge the documents, but some of my formatting is missing (namely the fonts and images). My current merge code is shown below. private void CombineDocuments() { object wdPageBreak = 7; object wdStory = 6; object oMissing = System.Reflection.Missing.Value; object oFalse = false; object oTrue = true; string fileDirectory = @"C:\documents\"; Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Document wDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing); string[] wordFiles = Directory.GetFiles(fileDirectory, "*.doc"); for (int i = 0; i < wordFiles.Length; i++) { string file = wordFiles[i]; wDoc.Application.Selection.Range.InsertFile(file, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oFalse); wDoc.Application.Selection.Range.InsertBreak(ref wdPageBreak); wDoc.Application.Selection.EndKey(ref wdStory, ref oMissing); } string combineDocName = Path.Combine(fileDirectory, "Merged Document.doc"); if (File.Exists(combineDocName)) File.Delete(combineDocName); object combineDocNameObj = combineDocName; wDoc.SaveAs(ref combineDocNameObj, ref m_WordDocumentType, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing); } I don't care necessarily how this is accomplished. It could output via PDF if it had to. I just want the formatting to carry over. Any help or hints that you could provide me with would be appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Uploadify not working with ASP.NET WebForms

    - by João Guilherme
    Hi ! I'm trying to use Uploadify in a ASP.NET webforms project. The problem is that my script is not calling the generic handler. Here is the script. <input id="fileInput" name="fileInput" type="file" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileInput').uploadify({ 'uploader': '/Ferramenta/Comum/Uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script': 'UploadTest.ashx', 'cancelImg': '/Ferramenta/Comum/Uploadify/cancel.png', 'folder': "/Ferramenta/Geral/", 'auto': true, 'onError': function(event, queueID, fileObj, errorObj) { alert('error'); }, 'onComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { alert('complete'); }, 'buttonText' : 'Buscar Arquivos' }); }); </script> This is the code of the generic handler (just to test) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.IO; namespace Tree.Ferramenta.Geral { public class UploadTest : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.Write("1"); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } } Any ideas ? Thanks !

    Read the article

  • How do I encapsulate form/post/validation[/redirect] in ViewUserControl in ASP.Net MVC 2

    - by paul
    What I am trying to achieve: encapsulate a Login (or any) Form to be reused across site post to self when Login/validation fails, show original page with Validation Summary (some might argue to just post to Login Page and show Validation Summary there; if what I'm trying to achieve isn't possible, I will just go that route) when Login succeeds, redirect to /App/Home/Index also, want to: stick to PRG principles avoid ajax keep Login Form (UserController.Login()) as encapsulated as possible; avoid having to implement HomeController.Login() since the Login Form might appear elsewhere All but the redirect works. My approach thus far has been: Home/Index includes Login Form: <%Html.RenderAction("Login","User");%> User/Login ViewUserControl<UserLoginViewModel> includes: <%=Html.ValidationSummary("") % using(Html.BeginForm()){} includes hidden form field "userlogin"="1" public class UserController : BaseController { ... [AcceptPostWhenFieldExists(FieldName = "userlogin")] public ActionResult Login(UserLoginViewModel model, FormCollection form){ if (ModelState.IsValid) { if(checkUserCredentials()) { setUserCredentials() return this.RedirectToAction<Areas.App.Controllers.HomeController>(x = x.Index()); } else { return View(); } } ... } Works great when: ModelState or User Credentials fail -- return View() does yield to Home/Index and displays appropriate validation summary. (I have a Register Form on the same page, using the same structure. Each form's validation summary only shows when that form is submitted.) Fails when: ModelState and User Credentials valid -- RedirectToAction<>() gives following error: "Child actions are not allowed to perform redirect actions." It seems like in the Classic ASP days, this would've been solved with Response.Buffer=True. Is there an equivalent setting or workaround now? Btw, running: ASP.Net 4, MVC 2, VS 2010, Dev/Debugging Web Server I hope all of that makes sense. So, what are my options? Or where am I going wrong in my approach? tia!

    Read the article

  • Delegates in .NET: how are they constructed ?

    - by Saulius
    While inspecting delegates in C# and .NET in general, I noticed some interesting facts: Creating a delegate in C# creates a class derived from MulticastDelegate with a constructor: .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(object 'object', native int 'method') runtime managed { } Meaning that it expects the instance and a pointer to the method. Yet the syntax of constructing a delegate in C# suggests that it has a constructor new MyDelegate(int () target) where I can recognise int () as a function instance (int *target() would be a function pointer in C++). So obviously the C# compiler picks out the correct method from the method group defined by the function name and constructs the delegate. So the first question would be, where does the C# compiler (or Visual Studio, to be precise) pick this constructor signature from ? I did not notice any special attributes or something that would make a distinction. Is this some sort of compiler/visualstudio magic ? If not, is the T (args) target construction valid in C# ? I did not manage to get anything with it to compile, e.g.: int () target = MyMethod; is invalid, so is doing anything with MyMetod, e.g. calling .ToString() on it (well this does make some sense, since that is technically a method group, but I imagine it should be possible to explicitly pick out a method by casting, e.g. (int())MyFunction. So is all of this purely compiler magic ? Looking at the construction through reflector reveals yet another syntax: Func CS$1$0000 = new Func(null, (IntPtr) Foo); This is consistent with the disassembled constructor signature, yet this does not compile! One final interesting note is that the classes Delegate and MulticastDelegate have yet another sets of constructors: .method family hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(class System.Type target, string 'method') cil managed Where does the transition from an instance and method pointer to a type and a string method name occur ? Can this be explained by the runtime managed keywords in the custom delegate constructor signature, i.e. does the runtime do it's job here ?

    Read the article

  • How to publish an ASP.NET MVC website

    - by Luke Puplett
    Hello -- I've a site that I'd like to publish to a co-located live server. I'm finding this simple task quite hard. My problems begin with the Web Deploy tool (1.1) giving me a 401 Unauthorized as the adminstrator because port :8172 comes up in the errors and this port is blocked - but the documentation says "The default ListenURL is http://+:80/MsDeployAgentService"! I'm loathe to open another port and I've little patience these days so I thought bu66er it, I'll create a Web Deploy package and import it into IIS on the server over RDP. I notice first that Visual Studio doesn't use a dialog box to gather settings, or use my Publish profiles but seems to use a tab in the project properties, although I think these are ignored when importing the package anyway? I'm now sitting in the import wizard with Application Path and Connection String. I've cleared the conn string as I think this is for some ASP stuff I don't use but when I enter nothing in the Application Path, the wizard barks at me saying that basically I'm a weirdo because most people publish to folders beneath the root site. Now, I want my site to be site.com/Home/About and not site.com/subfolder/Home/About and I think being an MVC routed site that a subfolder will introduce other headaches. Should I go ahead and use the root? Finally, I also want to publish a web service to www.site.com/services/soap which I think IIS can handle. While typing this question, Amazon have delivered my IIS 7 Resource Kit, and I've been scouring the internet but actually I'm getting more confused. Comment here seems to show consensus opinion that Publish isn't for production sites and that real men roll their own. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/260525/asp-net-website-publish-vs-web-deployment-project ...I guess this was pre- Web Deployment Tool era? I'm going to experiment on a spare box for now but any assistance is welcome. Luke

    Read the article

  • .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

    - by Orborde
    I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

    Read the article

  • Configuring ASP.NET MVC ActionLink format with GoDaddy shared hosting

    - by Maxim Z.
    Background I have a GoDaddy shared Windows hosting plan and I'm running into a small issue with multiple domains. Many people have previously reported such an issue, but I am not interested in trying to resolve that problem altogether; all I want to accomplish is to change the format of my ActionLinks. Issue Let's say the domain that is mapped to my root hosting directory is example.com. GoDaddy forces mapping of other domains to subdirectories of the root. For example, my second domain, example1.com, is mapped to example.com/example1. I uploaded my ASP.NET MVC site to such a subdirectory, only to find that ActionLinks that are for navigation have the following format: http://example1.com/example1/Controller/Action In other words, even when I use the domain that is mapped to the subdirectory, the subdirectory is still used in the URL. However, I noticed that I can also access the same path by going to: http://example1.com/Controller/Action (leaving out the subdirectory) What I want to achieve I want to have my ActionLinks automatically drop the subdirectory, as it is not required. Is this possible without changing the ActionLinks into plain-old URLs?

    Read the article

  • asp.net Dynamic Data Site with own MetaData

    - by loviji
    Hello, I'm searching info about configuring own MetaData in asp.NET Dynamic Site. For example. I have a table in MS Sql Server with structure shown below: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[someTable]( [id] [int] NOT NULL, [pname] [nvarchar](20) NULL, [FullName] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [age] [int] NULL) and I there are 2 Ms Sql tables (I've created), sysTables and sysColumns. sysTables: ID sysTableName TableName TableDescription 1 | someTable |Persons |All Data about Persons in system sysColumns: ID TableName sysColumnName ColumnName ColumnDesc ColumnType MUnit 1 |someTable | sometable_pname| Name | Persona Name(ex. John)| nvarchar(20) | null 2 |someTable | sometable_Fullname| Full Name | Persona Name(ex. John Black)| nvarchar(50) | null 3 |someTable | sometable_age| age | Person age| int | null I want that, in Details/Edit/Insert/List/ListDetails pages use as MetaData sysColumns and sysTableData. Because, for ex. in DetailsPage fullName, it is not beatiful as Full Name . someIdea, is it possible? thanks Updated:: In List Page to display data from sysTables (metaData table) I've modified <h2 class="DDSubHeader"><%= tableName%></h2>. public string tableName; protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { table = DynamicDataRouteHandler.GetRequestMetaTable(Context); //added by me uqsikDataContext sd=new uqsikDataContext(); tableName = sd.sysTables.Where(n => n.sysTableName == table.DisplayName).FirstOrDefault().TableName; //end GridView1.SetMetaTable(table, table.GetColumnValuesFromRoute(Context)); GridDataSource.EntityTypeName = table.EntityType.AssemblyQualifiedName; if (table.EntityType != table.RootEntityType) { GridQueryExtender.Expressions.Add(new OfTypeExpression(table.EntityType)); } } so, what about sysColums? How can I get Data from my sysColumns table?

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc cookies not being sent back

    - by brian b
    My application at mysubdomain.mydomain.com needs to set a cookie that contains some user session information. They log in at a https page. We authenticate them and set some session info in a cookie. We do this in a helper library that takes in the controller context contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Value = encryptedTicket; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Expires = cookieExpires; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Domain= ConfigHelper.CookieDomain; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].HttpOnly=true; We do a quick redirect in the controller (to a non https page): this.ControllerContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect(redirectTo, false); return null; The cookie appears in the response (according to firebug's net tab). But neither fireforx nor ie send the cookie on subsequent gets. We are setting the cookie domain to mydomain.com even though the site is mysubdomain.mydomain.com. Skipping the redirect command has no effect, nor does changing the cookie value. I'm baffled. Thanks for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Ajax - Asynch request has separate session???

    - by Marcus King
    We are writing a search application that saves the search criteria to session state and executes the search inside of an asp.net updatepanel. Sometimes when we execute multiple searches successively the 2nd or 3rd search will sometimes return results from the first set of search criteria. Example: our first search we do a look up on "John Smith" - John Smith results are displayed. The second search we do a look up on "Bob Jones" - John Smith results are displayed. We save all of the search criteria in session state as I said, and read it from session state inside of the ajax request to format the DB query. When we put break points in VS everything behaves as normal, but without them we get the original search criteria and results. My guess is because they are saved in session, that the ajax request somehow gets its own session and saves the criteria to that, and then retrieves the criteria from that session every time, but the non-async stuff is able to see when the criteria is modified and saves the changes to state accordingly, but because they are from two different sessions there is a disparity in what is saved and read. EDIT::: To elaborate more, there was a suggestion of appending the search criteria to the query string which normally is good practice and I agree thats how it should be but following our requirements I don't see it as being viable. They want it so the user fills out the input controls hits search and there is no page reload, the only thing they see is a progress indicator on the page, and they still have the ability to navigate and use other features on the current page. If I were to add criteria to the query string I would have to do another request causing the whole page to load, which depending on the search criteria can take a really long time. This is why we are using an ajax call to perform the search and why we aren't causing another full page request..... I hope this clarifies the situation.

    Read the article

  • restart of web dev server every time load ASP.NET MVC application

    - by kjm
    Hi, I continously get this problem (stack trace below) when I start my ASP.NET MVC application and have to restart the web dev server and then it goes away. It appears to be happening on when I make modification in my jquery and then try to restart the application. protected void Application_Start() { InitialiseIocContainer(); RegisterViewEngine(ViewEngines.Engines); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); SetupLogging(); } It appears to get caugth on the Application_start in global.asax. I've done lots of search in google but no luck. ITS DRIVING ME BONKERS!!!! can anyone help please Server Error in '/' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Loading this assembly would produce a different grant set from other instances. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131401) Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.IO.FileLoadException: Loading this assembly would produce a different grant set from other instances. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131401) Source Error: Line 30: RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); Line 31: SetupLogging(); Line 32: } Line 33: Line 34: private void SetupLogging() Source File: C:\UserData\SourceControl\LLNP4\Trunk\Web\Global.asax.cs Line: 32 Stack Trace: [FileLoadException: Loading this assembly would produce a different grant set from other instances. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131401)] LLNP4.MvcApplication.Application_Start() in C:\UserData\SourceControl\LLNP4\Trunk\Web\Global.asax.cs:32

    Read the article

  • Simulate Windows Service with ASP.NET

    - by Bayonian
    Hi, I have small web app that generate PDF files as a report. I'm trying to delete those generated PDF files after 10 sec that they are generated. What I want to do is to read a folder with PDF files every 10 sec, and delete all the PDF files inside that folder. I read this post of Easy Background Tasks in ASP.NET. The following code is the VB version. Protected Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) AddTask("DoStuff", 10) End Sub Private Sub AddTask(ByVal name As String, ByVal seconds As Integer) OnCacheRemove = New CacheItemRemovedCallback(CacheItemRemoved) HttpRuntime.Cache.Insert(name, seconds, Nothing, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(seconds), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration, CacheItemPriority.NotRemovable, _ OnCacheRemove) End Sub Public Sub CacheItemRemoved(ByVal k As String, ByVal v As Object, ByVal r As CacheItemRemovedReason) ' do stuff here if it matches our taskname, like WebRequest DeletePDFilesInFoler() ' re-add our task so it recurs AddTask(k, Convert.ToInt32(v)) End Sub But I got this error Delegate 'System.Web.Caching.CacheItemRemovedCallback' requires an 'AddressOf' expression or lambda expression as the only argument to its constructor. If this code works, where I should put it. Right, now I'm putting it in the master page. How to get this error out? Thank you

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC OutputCache with POST Controller Actions

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm fairly new to using the OutputCache attribute in ASP.NET MVC. Static Pages I've enabled it on static pages on my site with code such as the following: [OutputCache(Duration = 7200, VaryByParam = "None")] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { //... If I understand correctly, I made the whole controller cache for 7200 seconds (2 hours). Dynamic Pages However, how does it work with dynamic pages? By dynamic, I mean where the user has to submit a form. As an example, I have a page with an email form. Here's what that code looks like: public class ContactController : Controller { // // GET: /Contact/ public ActionResult Index() { return RedirectToAction("SubmitEmail"); } public ActionResult SubmitEmail() { //In view for CAPTCHA: <%= Html.GenerateCaptcha() %> return View(); } [CaptchaValidator] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SubmitEmail(FormCollection formValues, bool captchaValid) { //Validate form fields, send email if everything's good... if (isError) { return View(); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } } public void SendEmail(string title, string name, string email, string message) { //Send an email... } } What would happen if I applied OutputCache to the whole controller here? Would the HTTP POST form submission work? Also, my form has a CAPTCHA; would that change anything in the equation? In other words, what's the best way to approach caching with dynamic pages? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • This 404 seems unavoidable - what am I doing wrong? [Ninject 2.0 with ASP.NET MVC 2 on .NET 4]

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I downloaded the fairly new Ninject 2.0 and Ninject.Web.Mvc (targeting mvc2) sources today, and successfully built them against .NET 4 (release configuration). When trying to run an application using Ninject 2.0, i keep getting 404 errors and I can't figure out why. This is my global.asax.cs (slightly shortified, for brevity): using ... using Ninject; using Ninject.Web.Mvc; using Ninject.Modules; namespace Booking.Web { public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { Booking.Models.AutoMapperBootstrapper.Initialize(); RegisterAllControllersIn(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); base.OnApplicationStarted(); } protected void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { ... routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Entry", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { INinjectModule[] mods = new INinjectModule[] {...}; return new StandardKernel(mods); } } } The EntryController exists, and has an Index method that simply does a return View(). I have debugged, and verified that the call to RegisterAllControllersIn() is executed. I have also tried to use Phil Haacks Routing debugger but I still get a 404. What do I do to find the cause of this?

    Read the article

  • oRecordset in ASP.NET mySQL problem

    - by StealthRT
    I have this mySQL code that connects to my server. It connects just fine: Dim MyConString As String = "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=xxx.com;" & _ "DATABASE=xxx;" & _ "UID=xxx;" & _ "PASSWORD=xxx;" & _ "OPTION=3;" Dim conn As OdbcConnection = New OdbcConnection(MyConString) conn.Open() Dim MyCommand As New OdbcCommand MyCommand.Connection = conn MyCommand.CommandText = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'"" MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() conn.Close() However, i have an old Classic ASP page that uses "oRecordset" to get the data from the mySQL server: Set oConnection = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set oRecordset = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oConnection.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 3.51 Driver}; SERVER=xxx.com; PORT=3306; DATABASE=xxx; USER=xxx; PASSWORD=xxx; OPTION=3;" sqltemp = "select * from userinfo WHERE emailAddress = '" & theUN & "'" oRecordset.Open sqltemp, oConnection,3,3 And i can use oRecordset as follows: if oRecordset.EOF then.... or strValue = oRecordset("Table_Name").value or oRecordset("Table_Name").value = "New Value" oRecordset.update etc... However, for the life of me, i can not find any .net code that is simular to that of my Classic ASP page!!!!! Any help would be great! :o) David

    Read the article

  • Unusual request URL in ASP.NET health monitoring event

    - by Troy Hunt
    I’m seeing a rather strange occurrence in the request information section of an ASP.NET health monitoring email I hope someone can shed some light on. This is a publicly facing website which runs on infrastructure at an Indian hosting provider. Health monitoring is notifying us of server errors via automated email but every now and then the requested URL appears as a totally different website. For example: Request information: Request URL: http://www.baidu.com/Default.aspx Request path: /Default.aspx User host address: 221.13.128.175 User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Obviously the site in question is not Baidu and obviously this attribute is not the referrer either; the “Request URL” value is the path which has generated the error. The IP address is located in Beijing (coincidental given the Baidu address?) and in this instance it looks like the SQL server backend was not accessible (I haven't included the entire error message for security's sake). What would cause the request URL attribute to be arbitrarily changed to that of another site? I’ve never seen this occur in a health monitoring event before. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC and WCF

    - by Michael Stum
    I'm working my way into MVC at the moment, but on my "To learn at some point" list, I also have WCF. I just wonder if WCF is something that should/could be used in an MVC Application or not? The Background is that I want a Desktop Application (.NET 3.5, WPF) interact with my MVC Web Site, and I wonder what the best way to transfer data between the two is. Should I just use special Views/have the controllers return JSON or XML (using the ContentResult)? And maybe even more important, for the other way round, could I just call special controllers? Not sure how Authorization would work in such a context. I can either use Windows Authentication or (if the Site is running forms authentication) have the user store his/her credentials in the application, but I would then essentially create a HTTP Client in my Application. So while MVC = Application seems really easy, Application = MVC does seem to be somewhat tricky and a possible use for WCF? I'm not trying to brute-force WCF in this, but I just wonder if there is indeed a good use case for WCF in an MVC application.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Model Binding into a List

    - by Maxim Z.
    In my ASP.NET MVC site, part of a feature allows the user to enter the hours when a certain venue is open. I've decided to store these hours in a VenueHours table in my database, with a FK-to-PK relationship to a Venues table, as well as DayOfWeek, OpeningTime, and ClosingTime parameters. In my View, I want to allow the user to only input the times they know about; in other words, some days may not be filled in for a Venue. I'm thinking of creating checkboxes that the user can check to enable the OpeningTime and ClosingTime fields for the DayOfWeek that the checkbox belongs to. My question relates to how to pass this information to my HttpPost Controller Action. As I know the maximum amount of Days that can be passed in (7), I could of course just write 7 nullable VenueHour parameters into my Action, but I'm sure there's a better way. Can I somehow bind the View information into a List that is passed to my Action? This will also help me if I run into a scenario where there is no limit to how much information the user can fill in.

    Read the article

  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

    Read the article

  • How to test views in ASP.NET MVC2 (ala RSpec)

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, I am really missing heavily the ability to test Views independently of controllers. The way RSpec allows to do it. What I want to do is to perform assertions on the rendered view (where no controller is involved!). In order to do so I should provide required Model, ViewData and maybe some details from HttpContextBase (when will we get rid of HttpContext!). So far I have not found anything that allows doing it. Also it might heavily depend on the ViewEngine being used. List of things that views might contain are: Partial views (may be nested deeply). Master pages (or similar in other view engines). Html helpers generating links and other elements. Generally almost anything in a range of common sense :) . Also please note that I am not talking about client-side testing and thus Selenium is just not related to it at all. It is just plain .NET testing. So are there any options to actually do the testing of views? Thanks, Dmitriy.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98  | Next Page >