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  • Service reference addition issue in visual studio 2010

    - by user293072
    I am currently working on an application that allows reverse geocoding using silverlight + bing maps. The thing is that I want to add a reference to the reverse geocoding service provided in msdn ( http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc879136.aspx) i.e. http:// dev.virtualearth.net/webservices/v1/geocodeservice/geocodeservice.svc?wsdl, but when I try to get a reference in vs2010, I get the following error: The document at the url http:// dev.virtualearth.net/webservices/v1/metadata/geocodeservice/geocodeservice.wsdl was not recognized as a known document type. The error message from each known type may help you fix the problem: Report from 'XML Schema' is ''', hexadecimal value 0x1F, is an invalid character. Line 1, position 1.'. Report from 'DISCO Document' is ''', hexadecimal value 0x1F, is an invalid character. Line 1, position 1.'. Report from 'WSDL Document' is 'There is an error in XML document (1, 1).'. '', hexadecimal value 0x1F, is an invalid character. Line 1, position 1. Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'http://dev.virtualearth.net/webservices/v1/geocodeservice/geocodeservice.svc?wsdl'. Content Type application/soap+xml; charset=utf-8 was not supported by service http: //dev.virtualearth.net/webservices/v1/geocodeservice/geocodeservice.svc?wsdl. The client and service bindings may be mismatched. The remote server returned an error: (415) Unsupported Media Type. If the service is defined in the current solution, try building the solution and adding the service reference again. It is good to mention that I can access the service URL from the browser (with a no style information warning). I am aware that there are other reverse geolocoding services out there, but I am somewhat forced by certain circumstances to use only Microsoft-related components/services. Please help :)

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  • Map tiling - What kind of projection?

    - by ikky
    Hi. I've taken a large image and divided it in to square tiles (256x256). It is made for google maps also, so the whole image is divided into z_x_y.png (Depending on zoom level). z=0 = 1x1 tile z=1 = 2x2 tilesthe z=2 = 4x4 tiles My imageMap is "flat" and is not based on a sphere like the worldmap. I'm gonna use this map on a windows mobile app (which has no google API), and all the "points of interests" is inserted into a database by longitude and latitude. And since i have to make this for the windows mobile, i just have XY coordinate system. Is it enough to just use this: MAP_WIDTH = 256*TILES_W; MAP_HEIGHT = 256*TILES_H; function convert(int lat, int lon) { int y = (int)((-1 * lat) + 90) * (MAP_HEIGHT / 180); int x = (int)(lon + 180) * (MAP_WIDTH / 360); ImagePoint p = new ImagePoint(x,y); // An object which holds the coordinates return p; } Or do i need a projection technique? Thanks in advance. Please ask, if something is unclear.

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  • Atlas style map index for static google map

    - by Ben Holland
    Hello, I'm using a static google map, but really this problem could apply to any maps project. I want to divide a map into multiple quadrants (of say 50x50 pixels) and label the columns as A, B, C.... and the rows as 1, 2, 3... Next I plan to do something like, 1) Find the markers which are the farthest north, east, south, and west 2) Use that info to to define the bounding boxes of each row and column box 3) Classify each marker by its row and column (Example Marker 1 = [A,2]) A few requirements, I don't know the zoom level because I let Google set the zoom level appropriately for me and I would rather not use an algorithm that is dependent on a zoom level. I do however know the locations of all of the markers that are shown on the map. Here is an example of a map that I would like to classify the markers for, static map example link. I found these which look like a good start, Resource 1, Resource 2 But I think I'm still in need of some help getting started. Can anyone help write out some pseudo code or post a few more resources? I'm kind of in a rut at the moment. Thanks! Much appreciated of any help!

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  • Algorithm to determine which points should be visible on a map based on zoom

    - by lgratian
    Hi! I'm making a Google Maps-like application for a course at my Uni (not something complex, it should load the map of a city for example, not the whole world). The map can have many layers, including markers (restaurants, hospitals, etc.) The problem is that when you have many points and you zoom out the map it doesn't look right. At this zoom level only some points need to be visible (and at the maximum map size, all points). The question is: how can you determine which points should be visible for a specified zoom level? Because I have implemented a PR Quadtree to speed up rendering I thought that I could define some "high-priority" markers (that are always visible, defined in the map editor) and put them in a queue. At each step a marker is removed from the queue and all it's neighbors that are at least D units away (D depends on the zoom levels) are chosen and inserted in the queue, and so on. Is there any better way than the algorithm I thought of? Thanks in advance!

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  • VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

    - by Alexis Abril
    The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

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  • Executing javascript script after ajax-loaded a page - doesn't work

    - by Deukalion
    I'm trying to get a page with AJAX, but when I get that page and it includes Javascript code - it doesn't execute it. Why? Simple code in my ajax page: <script type="text/javascript"> alert("Hello"); </script> ...and it doesn't execute it. I'm trying to use Google Maps API and add markers with AJAX, so whenever I add one I execute a AJAX page that gets the new marker, stores it in a database and should add the marker "dynamically" to the map. But since I can't execute a single javascript function this way, what do I do? Is my functions that I've defined on the page beforehand protected or private? ** UPDATED WITH AJAX FUNCTION ** function ajaxExecute(id, link, query) { if (query != null) { query = query.replace("amp;", ""); } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { if (id != null) { document.getElementById(id).innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } } if (query == null) { xmlhttp.open("GET",link,true); } else { if (query.substr(0, 1) != "?") { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+"?"+query,true); } else { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+query,true); } } xmlhttp.send(); }

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  • Colorizing as SAS Map

    - by user601828
    I'm trying to generate a map in SAS where I would like to to make gradual color changes which correspond to my results. So the higher the counts the more intense the color changes. Also I would like to add state labels to the map. Here is my code, so far it produces a white map with varying degress of blue blocks. I'd like the states colored in intense colors, like red, bright pink,brilliant, blues and greens. Can anyone please help me modify the code to add state labels and colorize the map, and below the map add a table summarizing the statistics, like counts and percentages. Thanks in advance. goptions gunit=pct cback=white htitle=4 htext=3 colors=(PAGY LIY STY DEGY dark_yellow very_dark_yellow ) ; title "My Map Results"; proc gmap map=maps.us data=My_data all; id state; block person_per_event/levels=6; choro person_per_event/levels=6; run; quit; I looked at his page before for example if I wanted to make a map like this one http://robslink.com/SAS/democd61/election_2012.htm with my data. I tried modifying the code that he gives on the link, but wasnt very successful. I would like to use that map along with the state labels and keep the colors and represent my data with blocks in the corresponding locations with city and state, and high level counts. The rest of the summary statistics I would like to summarize in a colorful table next to the map, like a dashboard of sorts. Appreciate any help in advance. Thanks, -rachel

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  • JavaScript: supposed to execute functions sequentially, not actually doing so?

    - by AP257
    I'm seeing a lot of answers on StackOverflow that say that JavaScript executes code sequentially, but I can actually see my own JavaScript not doing so. From the following code: function centre_map(lat, lng, zoom_level) { alert('centre_map'); map = new GMap2(document.getElementById('map_canvas')); var latlng = new GLatLng(lat, lng); map.setCenter(latlng, zoom_level); } function add_markers_within_bounds() { alert('add_markers_within_bounds'); // add numerous BLUE markers within map bounds using MarkerClusterer } function add_marker(lat, lng, place_name, grid, county) { alert('add_marker'); // add one ordinary RED Google Maps marker } centre_map('{{lat}}', '{{lng}}', 12); add_markers_within_bounds('{{grid}}', '{{place_name}}'); add_marker('{{lat}}', '{{lng}}', '{{place_name}}', '{{grid}}', '{{county}}'); I get the following sequence of events: 'centre_map' alert 'add_markers_within_bounds' alert 'add_marker' alert individual RED marker appears on map (i.e. add_marker renders) multiple BLUE markers appear on map (i.e. add_markers_within_bounds renders) Why doesn't add_markers_within_bounds complete before add_marker gets under way: and how can I make it do so? I know that one way might be to call add_marker from within add_markers_within_bounds, but for various reasons I'd rather keep it as a separate function.

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  • Google Maps Developers Live: Ships, Polylines, Symbols, Oh My!

    Google Maps Developers Live: Ships, Polylines, Symbols, Oh My! For the second part of our "A Journey of 245k Points" series, Paul shows some cool tricks for making stunning map visualizations of numerous ship voyages using polylines, making polylines interactive, and animating voyages with symbols. Data Source: CLIWOC (Climatological Database for the World's Oceans, 1750-1850): www.ucm.es From: GoogleDevelopers Views: 0 0 ratings Time: 30:00 More in Education

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  • Android 1.6: "android.view.WindowManager$BadTokenException: Unable to add window -- token null is no

    - by Dan Monego
    I'm trying to open a dialog window, but every time I try to open it it throws this exception: E/AndroidRuntime( 206): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception E/AndroidRuntime( 206): android.view.WindowManager$BadTokenException: Unable to add window -- token null is not for an application E/AndroidRuntime( 206): at android.view.ViewRoot.setView(ViewRoot.java:460) E/AndroidRuntime( 206): at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.addView(WindowManagerImpl.java:177) E/AndroidRuntime( 206): at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.addView(WindowManagerImpl.java:91) E/AndroidRuntime( 206): at android.app.Dialog.show(Dialog.java:238) E/AndroidRuntime( 206): at android.app.Activity.showDialog(Activity.java:2413) I'm creating it by calling showDialog with the display's id. The onCreateDialog handler logs fine and I can step through it without an issue, but I've attached since it seems like I'm missing something in it: @Override public Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { Dialog dialog; Context appContext = this.getApplicationContext(); switch(id) { case RENAME_DIALOG_ID: Log.i("Edit", "Creating rename dialog..."); dialog = new Dialog(appContext); dialog.setContentView(R.layout.rename); dialog.setTitle("Rename " + noteName); break; default: dialog = null; break; } return dialog; } Is there something missing from this? Some questions have talked about having this problem when creating a dialog from onCreate, which happen because the activity isn't created yet, but this is coming from a call from a menu object, and the appContext variable seems like it is correctly populated in the debugger.

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  • In an iPad SplitView, how do I add a Date Picker control to the Root View?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone OS development on the iPad and one of the things I'm playing with is the SplitView template. The template provides a window with a UISplitView view, containing the Root View (on the left of the window) and the Detail View (on the right of the window). The Root View is a subclass of a TableView. Rather than having the entire Root View consist of a TableView, I'd like it to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView under it. When I go into IB and try and drop a DatePicker into the Root View, it won't let me. It will only let me add a DatePicker view to the Detail View. Why wont IB let me drop a DatePicker view into the Root View? How can I add a DatePicker to the RootView in addition to the TableView? I'm still learning this new platform, so I apologize if these questions are absurd in any way. Thanks so much in advance for your help, I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • In the Xcode SplitView template for an iPad app, how do I add a Date Picker control to the Root View

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone OS development on the iPad and one of the things I'm playing with is the SplitView template. The template provides a window with a UISplitView view, containing the Root View (on the left of the window) and the Detail View (on the right of the window). The Root View is a subclass of a TableView. Rather than having the entire Root View consist of a TableView, I'd like it to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView under it. When I go into IB and try and drop a DatePicker into the Root View, it won't let me. It will only let me add a DatePicker view to the Detail View. Why wont IB let me drop a DatePicker view into the Root View? How can I add a DatePicker to the RootView in addition to the TableView? I'm still learning this new platform, so I apologize if these questions are absurd in any way. Thanks so much in advance for your help, I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • Iphone xCode - Navigation Controller on second xib view?

    - by Frames84
    Everything is fine, my navigation controller display's my 'Menu 1' item, but when i click it there appears to be a problem with the: [self.navigationController pushViewController:c animated:YES]; line it doesn't connect to the break point in the myClass file. so I think i've not joined something? but unsure what? my second view with the navigation controller doesn't have direct access to the AppDelegate so can't join it like i see in some tutorials. 1st view is just a button when clicked calls: [self presentModalViewController:mainViewController animated:YES]; my second View 'MainViewController' header looks like: @interface MainViewController :UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *controllers; UINavigationController *navController; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UINavigationController *navControllers; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *controller; Then I have my MainViewController.m @synthesize controllers; @synthesize navController; - (void) viewDidLoad { NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutaleArray alloc] init]; myClass *c = [[myClass alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStylePlain]; c.Title = @"Menu 1"; [array addObject:c]; self.Controllers = array; [array release]; } implemented numberOfRowsInSection and cellForRowAtIndexPath - (void) tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; myClass *c = [self.controllers objectAtIndex:row]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:c animated:YES]; // doesn't load myClass c // [self.navController pushViewController:c animated:YES]; } Also in interface designer I dragged a Navigation Controller onto my new XIB and changed the Root View Controller class to MainViewController and also connected the File Owner connector to the Navigation Controller to connect the navController Outlet. Thanks for you time.

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  • What is the standard convention for defining nested view:viewmodel mapping in MVVM Light

    - by firoso
    so in classic MVVM examples ive seen DataTemplate definitions are used to map up View Models to Views, what is the standard way to do this in MVVM Light framework, and where should the mappings be located? Following are examples of what I'm doing now and what I'm talking about, blendability is important to me! Main Window: <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Class="STS2Editor.MainWindow" Title="{Binding ApplicationTitle, Mode=OneWay}" DataContext="{Binding RootViewModel, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <Window.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Skins/ApplicationSkin.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources/ViewMappings.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <ContentControl Content="{Binding ApplicationManagementViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top"/> </Grid> </Window> In the above code, my RootViewModel class has an instance of the class ApplicationManagementViewModel with the same property name: public ApplicationManagementViewModel ApplicationManagementViewModel {get {...} set {...} } I reference the ResourceDictionary "ViewMappings.xaml" to specify how my view model is represented as a view. <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:STS2Editor.ViewModel"> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ApplicationManagementViewModel}"> <local:ApplicationManagementView/> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> should I be doing things like this using ViewModelLocator? what about collections of view models?

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  • Custom ViewModel with MVC 2 Strongly Typed HTML Helpers return null object on Create ?

    - by Barbaros Alp
    Hi, I am having a trouble while trying to create an entity with a custom view modeled create form. Below is my custom view model for Category Creation form. public class CategoryFormViewModel { public CategoryFormViewModel(Category category, string actionTitle) { Category = category; ActionTitle = actionTitle; } public Category Category { get; private set; } public string ActionTitle { get; private set; } } and this is my user control where the UI is <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CategoryFormViewModel>" %> <h2> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.ActionTitle) %></span> </h2> <%=Html.ValidationSummary() %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <p> <span class="bold block">Baslik:</span> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => Model.Category.Title, new { @class = "width80 txt-base" })%> </p> <p> <span class="bold block">Sira Numarasi:</span> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => Model.Category.OrderNo, new { @class = "width10 txt-base" })%> </p> <p> <input type="submit" class="btn-admin cursorPointer" value="Save" /> </p> <% } %> When i click on save button, it doesnt bind the category for me because of i am using custom view model and strongly typed html helpers like that <%=Html.TextBoxFor(model => Model.Category.OrderNo) %> How can i fix this ? Thanks in advance

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  • Notifying view controller when subview touch events occur.

    - by Nebs
    I have a UIViewController whose view has a custom subview. This custom subview needs to track touch events and report swipe gestures. Currently I put touchesBegan, touchesMoved, touchesEnded and touchesCancelled in the subview class. With some extra logic I am able to get swipe gestures and call my handleRightSwipe and handleLeftSwipe methods. So now when I swipe within the subview it calls its local swipe handling methods. This all works fine. But what I really need is for the handleRightSwipe and handleLeftSwipe methods to be in the view controller. I could leave them in the subview class but then I'd have to bring in all the logic and data as well and that kind of breaks the MVC idea. So my question is is there a clean way to handle this? Essentially I want to keep my touch event methods in the subview so that they only trigger for that specific view. But I also want the view controller to be informed when these touch events (or in this case swipe gestures) occur. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • How to Put Javascript into an ASP.NET MVC View

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm really new to ASP.NET MVC, and I'm trying to integrate some Javascript into a website I'm making as a test of this technology. My question is this: how can I insert Javascript code into a View? Let's say that I start out with the default ASP.NET MVC template. In terms of Views, this creates a Master page, a "Home" View, and an "About" view. The "Home" View, called Index.aspx, looks like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Home Page </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2><%= Html.Encode(ViewData["Message"]) %></h2> <p> To learn more about ASP.NET MVC visit <a href="http://asp.net/mvc" title="ASP.NET MVC Website">http://asp.net/mvc</a>. </p> <p>Welcome to this testing site!</p> </asp:Content> Adding a <script> tag here didn't work. Where and how should I do it? P.S.: I have a feeling I'm missing something very basic... Thanks in advance!

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  • iphone app scroll view is horizontal but i want it vertical - how do i change this?

    - by Billy Jones
    Hi Folks, Got this code for a viewscroller from the apple developers site. @synthesize scrollView1, scrollView2; const CGFloat kScrollObjHeight = 467.0; const CGFloat kScrollObjWidth = 320.0; const NSUInteger kNumImages = 6; (void)layoutScrollImages { UIImageView *view = nil; NSArray *subviews = [scrollView1 subviews]; // reposition all image subviews in a horizontal serial fashion CGFloat curXLoc = 0; for (view in subviews) { if ([view isKindOfClass:[UIImageView class]] && view.tag 0) { CGRect frame = view.frame; frame.origin = CGPointMake(curXLoc, 0); view.frame = frame; curXLoc += (kScrollObjWidth); } } // set the content size so it can be scrollable [scrollView1 setContentSize:CGSizeMake((kNumImages * kScrollObjWidth), [scrollView1 bounds].size.height)]; } it works brilliantly the images are rotated by pulling them left or right. but I want to pull the images up and down to change them. Can anyone help me out with this? this part in the code looks as if it controls the direction but i'm not sure how to change it. // reposition all image subviews in a horizontal serial fashion CGFloat curXLoc = 0; for (view in subviews) { if ([view isKindOfClass:[UIImageView class]] && view.tag 0) { CGRect frame = view.frame; frame.origin = CGPointMake(curXLoc, 0); view.frame = frame; curXLoc += (kScrollObjWidth); } } Any help most appreciated, thanks! Billy

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  • Presenting UINavigationController modally -- problem setting up tool and nav bar items in root view controller viewDidLoad

    - by Bogatyr
    In my iOS app I'm creating and presenting a UINavigationController modally like so: MyViewController *myvc = [[[MyViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MyViewController" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UINavigationController *navVC = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:myvc] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:navVC animated:YES]; In the MyViewController viewDidLoad I'm creating and setting toolbar items for the navigation controller's toolbar, like so: self.navigationController.toolbar.items = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:(items...), nil]; the problem I'm having is that the items don't show up. If instead I call a method from MyViewController's viewDidLoad method that adds the toolbar items via performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:0, then it works perfectly. So there's obviously some race condition going on here with the initial presentation of the UINavigationController, initialization of its toolbar/navbar, and the initialization of the nav bar's specified initial root view controller. I verified in the debugger that the root view controller's viewDidLoad is called after the UINavigationController's viewDidLoad method. In fact, the root view controller's viewDidLoad method is not called until presentModalViewController: is called, and the UINavigationController's viewDidLoad is called within initWithRootViewController, so doesn't that imply that the UINavigationController object should be "all ready to go", including its nav bar and toolbars? I thought at first that the navigation controller's toolbar object may not exist yet at MyViewController's viewDidLoad time, but it clearly does. At least, NSLog shows that it is not nil during MyViewController's viewDidLoad method. In fact, the UINavigationController's toolbar object is identical at both times: in the root view controller's viewDidLoad, and in the "setupToolbar" method that I called with performSelector:withObject:afterDelay, so it's not getting "re-initialized" somehow. So, what's going on here? Why aren't my toolbar modifications "sticking" in MyViewController's viewDidLoad, and why does performing them in the next iteration of the runloop (performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:0) make it work? What is the "right" way of setting up initial navbar / toolbar items in code from the rootViewController of the UINavigationController?

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  • WPF Usercontrol interaction with parent view / viewmodel

    - by obaylis
    Hi I have a mainView window which has its dataContext set to it's own viewModel. On that viewModel is a DateTime property which in turn is bound to a datepicker on my main view using 2 way binding. <toolkit:DatePicker DateSelected="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" /> This is all fine so far. On the change of my datetime property I create a list which is then bound to a datagrid elsewhere on the mainview. This all works fine. My question is to do with a usercontrol I want to add to the main view. I want this usercontrol to be self contained so have created it with it's own viewmodel but it does also need access to mainDateTimeProperty I thought that best way to go would be to create a dependencyProperty on the usercontrol and when I create my control in the main view I bind the dp to the datetime as follows. <uc:MyNewUserControl DateProperty="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty}" /> Trouble is how do I have the usercontrol maintain datacontext with it's viewmodel and yet still have the dependency property bound to a property on the main view model? Hope this is clear. Can post some more code if necessary. Looking for a best practice approach if possible. Thanks very much for any advice.

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  • Strange UIKit bug, table view row stays selected

    - by Can Berk Güder
    I'm facing what appears to be a UIKit bug, and it takes the combination of two less commonly used features to reproduce it, so please bear with me here. I have quite the common view hierarchy: UITabBarController -> UINavigationController -> UITableViewController and the table view controller pushes another table view controller onto the navigation controller's stack when a row is selected. There's absolutely nothing special or fancy in the code here. However, the second UITableViewController, the "detail view controller" if you will, does two things: It sets hidesBottomBarWhenPushed to YES in its init method, so the tab bar is hidden when this controller is pushed: - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle)style { if(self = [super initWithStyle:style]) { self.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; } return self; } It calls setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES and setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES on self.navigationController in viewWillAppear: and viewWillDisappear: respectively, causing the UIToolbar provided by UINavigationController to be displayed and hidden with animations: - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES]; } - (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillDisappear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES]; } Now, if the second UITableViewController was pushed by selecting the row at the bottom of the screen (it doesn't have to be the last row) in the first controller, this row does not automatically get deselected when the user immediately or eventually returns to the first controller. Further, the row cannot be deselected by calling deselectRowAtIndexPath:animated: on self.tableView in viewWillAppear: or viewDidAppear: in the first controller. I'm guessing this is a bug in UITableViewController's drawing code which of course only draws visible rows, but unfortunately fails to determine correctly if the bottommost row will be visible in this case. I failed to find anything on this on Google or OpenRadar, and was wondering if anyone else on SO had this problem or knew a solution/workaround.

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  • Data Transfer Objects VS Domain/ActiveRecord Entities in the View in RoR

    - by leypascua
    I'm coming from a .NET background, where it is a practice to not bind domain/entity models directly to the view in not-so-basic CRUD-ish applications where the view does not directly project entity fields as-is. I'm wondering what's the practice in RoR, where the default persistence mechanism is ActiveRecord. I would assert that presentation-related info should not be leaked to the entities, not sure though if this is how real RoR heads would do it. If DTOs/model per view is the approach, how will you do it in Rails? Your thoughts? EDIT: Some examples: - A view shows a list of invoices, with the number of unique items in one column. - A list of credit card accounts, where possibly fraudulent transactions were executed. For that, the UI needs to show this row in red. For both scenarios, The lists don't show all of the fields of the entities, just a few to show in the list (like invoice #, transaction date, name of the account, the amount of the transaction) For the invoice example, The invoice entity doesn't have a field "No. of line items" mapped on it. The database has not been denormalized for perf reasons and it will be computed during query time using aggregate functions. For the credit card accounts example, surely the card transaction entity doesn't have a "Show-in-red" or "IsFraudulent" invariant. Yes it may be a business rule, but for this example, that is a presentation concern, so I would like to keep it out of my domain model.

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  • Adding a UITapGestureRecognizer to a view then removing seems to short circuit button events

    - by heymon
    In the code below I am popping up a ImageView as the result of a users touchUpInside on a simple info button. There are other buttons on the view. To dismiss the info I added a UITapGestureRecognizer to my controllers view, and hide the view when the tap is detected. If I don't remove the tapGestureRecognizer, the action is called every time some. Even when I do remove the gesture action, no bottons receive touchUpInside events once this gesture recognizer is added. Why? Code from my MainViewController (void) dismissInfo: (UITapGestureRecognizer *)gesture { [kInfoView setHidden: YES]; [gesture removeTarget: self action: NULL]; } (IBAction) displayInfo { CGRect startFrame = CGRectMake(725, 25, 0, 0), origFrame; CGFloat yCenter = [kInfoView frame].size.height/2 + 200; CGPoint startCenter = CGPointMake(724, 25), displayCenter = CGPointMake(384, yCenter); UITapGestureRecognizer *g = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget: self action: @selector(dismissInfo:)]; [self.view addGestureRecognizer: g]; origFrame = [kInfoView frame]; [kInfoView setCenter: startCenter]; [kInfoView setHidden: NO]; [kInfoView setFrame: startFrame]; [UIView beginAnimations: @"info" context: nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration: .5]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate: self]; [kInfoView setFrame: origFrame]; [kInfoView setCenter: displayCenter]; [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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  • MVC View Model Intellisense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

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