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  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

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  • Overlapping template partial specialization when wanting an "override" case: how to avoid the error?

    - by user173342
    I'm dealing with a pretty simple template struct that has an enum value set by whether its 2 template parameters are the same type or not. template<typename T, typename U> struct is_same { enum { value = 0 }; }; template<typename T> struct is_same<T, T> { enum { value = 1 }; }; This is part of a library (Eigen), so I can't alter this design without breaking it. When value == 0, a static assert aborts compilation. So I have a special numerical templated class SpecialCase that can do ops with different specializations of itself. So I set up an override like this: template<typename T> struct SpecialCase { ... }; template<typename LT, typename RT> struct is_same<SpecialCase<LT>, SpecialCase<RT>> { enum { value = 1 }; }; However, this throws the error: more than one partial specialization matches the template argument list Now, I understand why. It's the case where LT == RT, which steps on the toes of is_same<T, T>. What I don't know is how to keep my SpecialCase override and get rid of the error. Is there a trick to get around this? edit: To clarify, I need all cases where LT != RT to also be considered the same (have value 1). Not just LT == RT.

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  • Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

    - by poijoi
    Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

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  • Macro to improve callback registration readability

    - by Warren Seine
    I'm trying to write a macro to make a specific usage of callbacks in C++ easier. All my callbacks are member functions and will take this as first argument and a second one whose type inherits from a common base class. The usual way to go is: register_callback(boost::bind(&my_class::member_function, this, _1)); I'd love to write: register_callback(HANDLER(member_function)); Note that it will always be used within the same class. Even if typeof is considered as a bad practice, it sounds like a pretty solution to the lack of __class__ macro to get the current class name. The following code works: typedef typeof(*this) CLASS; boost::bind(& CLASS :: member_function, this, _1)(my_argument); but I can't use this code in a macro which will be given as argument to register_callback. I've tried: #define HANDLER(FUN) \ boost::bind(& typeof(*this) :: member_function, this, _1); which doesn't work for reasons I don't understand. Quoting GCC documentation: A typeof-construct can be used anywhere a typedef name could be used. My compiler is GCC 4.4, and even if I'd prefer something standard, GCC-specific solutions are accepted.

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

    - by Craig Walker
    I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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  • Executing untrusted code

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

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  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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  • Dealing with multiple generics in a method call

    - by thaBadDawg
    I've been dealing a lot lately with abstract classes that use generics. This is all good and fine because I get a lot of utility out of these classes but now it's making for some rather ugly code down the line. For example: abstract class ClassBase<T> { T Property { get; set; } } class MyClass : ClassBase<string> { OtherClass PropertyDetail { get; set; } } This implementation isn't all that crazy, except when I want to reference the abstract class from a helper class and then I have to make a list of generics just to make reference to the implemented class, like this below. class Helper { void HelpMe<C, T>(object Value) where C : ClassBase<T>, new() { DoWork(); } } This is just a tame example, because I have some method calls where the list of where clauses end up being 5 or 6 lines long to handle all of the generic data. What I'd really like to do is class Helper { void HelpMe<C>(object Value) where C : ClassBase, new() { DoWork(); } } but it obviously won't compile. I want to reference ClassBase without having to pass it a whole array of generic classes to get the function to work, but I don't want to reference the higher level classes because there are a dozen of those. Am I the victim of my own cleverness or is there an avenue that I haven't considered yet?

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  • How do I use Core Data with the Cocoa Text Input system?

    - by the Joel
    Hobbyist Cocoa programmer here. Have been looking around all the usual places, but this seems relatively under-explained: I am writing something a little out of the ordinary. It is much simpler than, but similar to, a desktop publishing app. I want editable text boxes on a canvas, arbitrarily placed. This is document-based and I’d really like to use Core Data. Now, The cocoa text-handling system seems to deal with a four-class structure: NSTextStorage, NSLayoutManager, NSTextContainer and finally NSTextView. I have looked into these and know how to use them, sort of. Have been making some prototypes and it works for simple apps. The problem arrives when I get into persistency. I don't know how to, by way of Cocoa Bindings or something else, store the contents of NSTextStorage (= the actual text) in my managed object context. I have considered overriding methods pairs like -words, -setWords: in these objects. This would let me link the words to a String, which I know how to store in Core Data. However, I’d have to override any method that affects the text - and that seems a little much. Thankful for any insights.

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  • Finding Palindromes in an Array

    - by Jack L.
    For this assignemnt, I think that I got it right, but when I submit it online, it doesn't list it as correct even though I checked with Eclipse. The prompt: Write a method isPalindrome that accepts an array of Strings as its argument and returns true if that array is a palindrome (if it reads the same forwards as backwards) and /false if not. For example, the array {"alpha", "beta", "gamma", "delta", "gamma", "beta", "alpha"} is a palindrome, so passing that array to your method would return true. Arrays with zero or one element are considered to be palindromes. My code: public static void main(String[] args) { String[] input = new String[6]; //{"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} Should return true input[0] = "aay"; input[1] = "bee"; input[2] = "cee"; input[3] = "cee"; input[4] = "bee"; input[5] = "aay"; System.out.println(isPalindrome(input)); } public static boolean isPalindrome(String[] input) { for (int i=0; i<input.length; i++) { // Checks each element if (input[i] != input[input.length-1-i]){ return false; // If a single instance of non-symmetry } } return true; // If symmetrical, only one element, or zero elements } As an example, {"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} returns true in Eclipse, but Practice-It! says it returns false. What is going on?

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  • Would making plain int 64-bit break a lot of reasonable code?

    - by R..
    Until recently, I'd considered the decision by most systems implementors/vendors to keep plain int 32-bit even on 64-bit machines a sort of expedient wart. With modern C99 fixed-size types (int32_t and uint32_t, etc.) the need for there to be a standard integer type of each size 8, 16, 32, and 64 mostly disappears, and it seems like int could just as well be made 64-bit. However, the biggest real consequence of the size of plain int in C comes from the fact that C essentially does not have arithmetic on smaller-than-int types. In particular, if int is larger than 32-bit, the result of any arithmetic on uint32_t values has type signed int, which is rather unsettling. Is this a good reason to keep int permanently fixed at 32-bit on real-world implementations? I'm leaning towards saying yes. It seems to me like there could be a huge class of uses of uint32_t which break when int is larger than 32 bits. Even applying the unary minus or bitwise complement operator becomes dangerous unless you cast back to uint32_t. Of course the same issues apply to uint16_t and uint8_t on current implementations, but everyone seems to be aware of and used to treating them as "smaller-than-int" types.

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  • Any useful suggestions to figure out where memory is being free'd in a Win32 process?

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    An application I am working with is exhibiting the following behaviour: During a particular high-memory operation, the memory usage of the process under Task Manager (Mem Usage stat) reaches a peak of approximately 2.5GB (Note: A registry key has been set to allow this, as usually there is a maximum of 2GB for a process under 32-bit Windows) After the operation is complete, the process size slowly starts decreasing at a rate of 1MB per second. I am trying to figure out the easiest way to quickly determine who is freeing this memory, and where it is being free'd. I am having trouble attaching a memory profiler to my code, and I don't particularly want to override the new/delete operators to track the allocations/deallocations (IOW, I want to do this without re-compiling my code). Can anyone offer any useful suggestions of how I could do this via the Visual Studio debugger? Update I should also mention that it's a multi-threaded application, so pausing the application and analysing the call stack through the debugger is not the most desirable option. I considered freezing different threads one at a time to see if the memory stops reducing, but I'm fairly certain this will cause the application to crash.

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  • how to check null value of Integer type field in ASP.NET MVC view?

    - by Vikas
    Hi, I have integer type field in database which is having property "Not Null". when i create a view & do a validation, if i left that field blank, it will consider it as 0 so i can not compare it with 0 because if someone insert a value 0 then it will be considered as error! one another problem is that i am using Model error as described in the book "ASP.NET MVC 1.0" @ Scott Gu blog. And I am checking the value in partial class of object (created by LINQ-To-SQL). i.e public partial class Person { public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(Name)) yield return new RuleViolation("Name is Required", "Name"); if (Age == 0) yield return new RuleViolation("Age is Required", "Age"); yield break; } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving"); } } There is also problem with range. Like in database if i declared as smallint i.e. short in c#, now if i exceed that range then it gives error as "A Value is reguired". so finally is there any best way for validation in ASP.NET MVC?

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  • Partial template specialization for more than one typename

    - by Matt Joiner
    In the following code, I want to consider functions (Ops) that have void return to instead be considered to return true. The type Retval, and the return value of Op are always matching. I'm not able to discriminate using the type traits shown here, and attempts to create a partial template specialization based on Retval have failed due the presence of the other template variables, Op and Args. How do I specialize only some variables in a template specialization without getting errors? Is there any other way to alter behaviour based on the return type of Op? template <typename Retval, typename Op, typename... Args> Retval single_op_wrapper( Retval const failval, char const *const opname, Op const op, Cpfs &cpfs, Args... args) { try { CallContext callctx(cpfs, opname); Retval retval; if (std::is_same<bool, Retval>::value) { (callctx.*op)(args...); retval = true; } else { retval = (callctx.*op)(args...); } assert(retval != failval); callctx.commit(cpfs); return retval; } catch (CpfsError const &exc) { cpfs_errno_set(exc.fserrno); LOGF(Info, "Failed with %s", cpfs_errno_str(exc.fserrno)); } return failval; }

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  • Producing a static HTML site from XML content

    - by Skilldrick
    I have a long document in XML from which I need to produce static HTML pages (for distribution via CD). I know (to varying degrees) JavaScript, PHP and Python. The current options I've considered are listed here: I'm not ruling out JavaScript, so one option would be to use ajax to dynamically load the XML content into HTML pages. Learn some basic XSLT and produce HTML to the correct spec this way. Produce the site with PHP (for example) and then generate a static site. Write a script (in Python for example) to convert the XML into HTML. This is similar to the XSLT option but without having to learn XSLT. Useful information: The XML will likely change at some point, so I'd like to be able to easily regenerate the site. I'll have to produce some kind of menu for jumping around the document (so I'll need to produce some kind of index of the content). I'd like to know if anyone has any better ideas that I haven't thought of. If not, I'd like you to tell me which of my options seems the most sensible. I think I know what I'm going to do, but I'd like a second opinion. Thanks.

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • Is www.example.com/post/21/edit a RESTful URI? I think I know the answer, but have another question.

    - by tmadsen
    I'm almost afraid to post this question, there has to be an obvious answer I've overlooked, but here I go: Context: I am creating a blog for educational purposes (want to learn python and web.py). I've decided that my blog have posts, so I've created a Post class. I've also decided that posts can be created, read, updated, or deleted (so CRUD). So in my Post class, I've created methods that respond to POST, GET, PUT, and DELETE HTTP methods). So far so good. The current problem I'm having is a conceptual one, I know that sending a PUT HTTP message (with an edited Post) to, e.g., /post/52 should update post with id 52 with the body contents of the HTTP message. What I do not know is how to conceptually correctly serve the (HTML) edit page. Will doing it like this: /post/52/edit violate the idea of URI, as 'edit' is not a resource, but an action? On the other side though, could it be considered a resource since all that URI will respond to is a GET method, that will only return an HTML page? So my ultimate question is this: How do I serve an HTML page intended for user editing in a RESTful manner?

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  • Silverlight, Flash, or JavaScript for web app that runs client-side, or just stick with C#?

    - by Sootah
    Silverlight, Flash, and JavaScript, oh my.. I have a couple of applications that I need to develop for one of my business partners that will be distributed to dozens of people. These applications will need to be able to query information from the internet (query via Google, grab feeds from our other sites, just general web access) and save files to their computer. The reason I want to host the application is so that it all can be centrally managed, and any updates would be instantly deployed to everyone that uses the service. There always seems to be headaches with developing a pure desktop app in a language like C# with regards to making sure people use the latest version, don't have some odd problem with the installer, etc. Since we don't want to tie up our server's CPU I want effectively all of the processing done client-side. Meaning that they would log into their account, access the app, and then all the work done within the app is all handled by their machine. Only specific data would be sent back to the server. So - which language is best for this? Microsoft's Silverlight, Adobe's Flash, or Sun's JavaScript? I've heard a lot of good things about Silverlight and have wanted to try it for some time. I've only done extremely limited JavaScript programming, and absolutely none with Flash. Or, with my main requirement being that the client does all of its own processing should I just stick with C#? Also, is there any way to integrate a C# app into a webpage? I've never even considered it (or have any idea if it's even possible) until just now. Thanks in advance! -Sootah

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  • Is it possible for two VS2008 C# class library projects to share a single namespace?

    - by jeah
    I am trying to share a common namespace between two projects in a single solution. The projects are "Blueprint" and "Repositories". Blueprint contains Interfaces for the entire application and serves as a reference for the application structure. In the Blueprint project, I have an interface with the following declaration: namespace Application.Repositories{ public interface IRepository{ IEntity Get(Guid id); } } In the Repositories project I have a class the following class: namespace Application.Repositories{ public class STDRepository: IRepository { STD Get(Guid id){ return new SkankyExGirlfriendDataContext() .FirstOrDefault<STD>(x=>x.DiseaseId == id); } } } However, this does not work. The Repositories project has a reference to the Blueprint project. I receive a VS error: "The type or namespace name 'IRepository' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) - Normally, this is easy to fix but adding a using statement doesn't make sense since they have the same namespace. I tried it anyway and it didn't work. The reference has been added, and without the line of code referencing that interface, both projects compile successfully. I am lost here. I have searched all over and have found nothing, so I am assuming that there is something fundamentally wrong with what I'm doing ... but I don't know what it is. So, I would appreciate some explanation or guidance as to how to fix this problem. I hope you guys can help. Note: The reason I want to do it this way and keep the interfaces under the same namespace is because I want a solid project to keep all the interfaces in, in order to have a reference for the full architecture of the application. I have considered work arounds, such as putting all of the interfaces in the Blueprint.Application namespace instead of the application namespace. However, that would require me to write the using statement on virtually every page in the application...and my fingers get tired. Thanks again guys...

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  • Unit testing an MVC action method with a Cache dependency?

    - by Steve
    I’m relatively new to testing and MVC and came across a sticking point today. I’m attempting to test an action method that has a dependency on HttpContext.Current.Cache and wanted to know the best practice for achieving the “low coupling” to allow for easy testing. Here's what I've got so far... public class CacheHandler : ICacheHandler { public IList<Section3ListItem> StateList { get { return (List<Section3ListItem>)HttpContext.Current.Cache["StateList"]; } set { HttpContext.Current.Cache["StateList"] = value; } } ... I then access it like such... I'm using Castle for my IoC. public class ProfileController : ControllerBase { private readonly ISection3Repository _repository; private readonly ICacheHandler _cache; public ProfileController(ISection3Repository repository, ICacheHandler cacheHandler) { _repository = repository; _cache = cacheHandler; } [UserIdFilter] public ActionResult PersonalInfo(Guid userId) { if (_cache.StateList == null) _cache.StateList = _repository.GetLookupValues((int)ELookupKey.States).ToList(); ... Then in my unit tests I am able to mock up ICacheHandler. Would this be considered a 'best practice' and does anyone have any suggestions for other approaches? Thanks in advance. Cheers

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  • How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

    - by Ian
    I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

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  • Querying a 3rd party website's database from my website

    - by Mong134
    The Goal: To retrieve information from a 3rd party database based off of a user's query on my ASP.NET website The Details: I need to be able to search 3rd-party websites for information relating to pharmaceutical drugs. Basically, here's what I've been tasked with: a user starts entering the name of a drug they're using in their experiments, and while they're typing a 3rd party website (e.g., here or here) is queried and suggestions are made based based off of what they've typed. Once they've made a selection, certain properties (molecular weight, chemical structure, etc) are retrieved from the 3rd party database and stored in our database. PharmaGKB.org's search bar is pretty much what I need to implement, but I need to access a 3rd party db. The site that I'm working on is ASP.NET/C#. The Problem: I don't really know where to start with this. There's a downloadable Perl example at the bottom of the page here, but it didn't really help me all that much. I'm at a loss as to how to implement this, or even find information about how to do it. The AJAX toolkit was suggested, but I'm not sure if that will solve the issue. JavaScript is also being considered, but again, I'm not sure if that will be sufficient, either. Perl Example Connection As a mentioned, here is a snippet from the Perl example given on the Pharmgkb.org site: my $call = SOAP::Lite -> readable (1) -> uri('SearchService') -> proxy('http://www.pharmgkb.org/services/SearchService') -> search ($ARGV[0]); However, I'm not sure how to implement this is C#/ASP.NET/JavaScript. There's a question on Stack Overflow about embedding Perl in C#, but it require a C wrapper as well, and I don't think that three languages is necessary or wise to solve this issue.

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  • Calling delegate methods and calling selectors

    - by Crystal
    I'm new to the concept of delegates and selectors when used with notifications. So my first question is, 1) Let's say you have a button that has a delegate that implements some doWork method. If you want the same functionality that's in the method, is it 'ok' to just call that method? I didn't know if that was considered good coding practices and/or if you should do that, or do something different in getting that type of functionality. Like if that is ok architecture? 2) Similarly, with NSNotificationCenter, I see some code that posts a notification. Then there's a HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification method. If I want to manually have that functionality, but without pressing the segment control, is it 'ok' to just take that functionality out of that method and put it in a new method so it would look like this: Original: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; // do stuff with the dictionary } New: - (void)HandleSegmentedControl:(NSNotification *)notification { NSDictionary *dict = [userInfo notification]; [self newMethod:dict]; } - (void)newMethod:(NSDictionary *)dict { // do stuff with the dictionary } - (void)myOtherMethodThatNeedsTheSameFunctionality { NSDictionary *dict = // create some dictionary [self newMethod:dict]; } Sorry if these are basic questions. I'm not sure what the best practices are for things like this and wanted to start the right way. Thanks.

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  • Groovy as a substitute for Java when using BigDecimal?

    - by geejay
    I have just completed an evaluation of Java, Groovy and Scala. The factors I considered were: readability, precision The factors I would like to know: performance, ease of integration I needed a BigDecimal level of precision. Here are my results: Java void someOp() { BigDecimal del_theta_1 = toDec(6); BigDecimal del_theta_2 = toDec(2); BigDecimal del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = abs(del_theta_1.subtract(del_theta_2)) .divide(log(del_theta_1.divide(del_theta_2))); } Groovy void someOp() { def del_theta_1 = 6.0 def del_theta_2 = 2.0 def del_theta_m = 0.0 del_theta_m = Math.abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / Math.log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2); } Scala def other(){ var del_theta_1 = toDec(6); var del_theta_2 = toDec(2); var del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = ( abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2) ) } Note that in Java and Scala I used static imports. Java: Pros: it is Java Cons: no operator overloading (lots o methods), barely readable/codeable Groovy: Pros: default BigDecimal means no visible typing, least surprising BigDecimal support for all operations (division included) Cons: another language to learn Scala: Pros: has operator overloading for BigDecimal Cons: some surprising behaviour with division (fixed with Decimal128), another language to learn

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