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  • XSL unique values per node

    - by Nathan
    ok i have this xml <roots> <root> <name>first</name> <item type='test'><something>A</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='test'><something>C</something></item> <item type='test'><something>A</something></item> <item type='other'><something>A</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='other'><something>D</something></item> </root> <root> <name>second</name> <item type='test'><something>E</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='test'><something>F</something></item> <item type='test'><something>A</something></item> <item type='other'><something>A</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='other'><something>D</something></item> </root> </roots> now i need to get the unique values of each root node so far i have <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output indent="yes" method="text"/> <xsl:key name="item-by-value" match="something" use="."/> <xsl:key name="rootkey" match="root" use="name"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:for-each select="key('rootkey','second')"> <xsl:for-each select="item/something"> <xsl:if test="generate-id() = generate-id(key('item-by-value', normalize-space(.)))"> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </xsl:if> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> if i use "First" as the key to get only the first root i get a good result ABCD how ever if i use "second" i only get EF but i need the result to be ABDFE

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  • Why is a fixed size buffers (arrays) must be unsafe?

    - by brickner
    Let's say I want to have a value type of 7 bytes (or 3 or 777). I can define it like that: public struct Buffer71 { public byte b0; public byte b1; public byte b2; public byte b3; public byte b4; public byte b5; public byte b6; } A simpler way to define it is using a fixed buffer public struct Buffer72 { public unsafe fixed byte bs[7]; } Of course the second definition is simpler. The problem lies with the unsafe keyword that must be provided for fixed buffers. I understand that this is implemented using pointers and hence unsafe. My question is why does it have to be unsafe? Why can't C# provide arbitrary constant length arrays and keep them as a value type instead of making it a C# reference type array or unsafe buffers?

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  • iPhone OS: KVO: Why is my Observer only getting notified at applicationDidfinishLaunching

    - by nickthedude
    I am basically trying to implement an achievement tracking setup in my app. I have a managedObjectModel class called StatTracker to keep track of all sorts of stats and I want my Achievement tracking class to be notified when those stats change so I can check them against a value and see if the user has earned an achievement. I've tried to impliment KVO and I think I'm pretty close to making it happen but the problem I'm running into is this: So in the appDelegate i have an Ivar for my Achievement tracker class, I attach it as an observer to a property value of my statTracker core data entity in the applicationDidFinishLaunching method. I know its making the connection because I've been able to trigger a UIAlert in my AchievementTracker instance, and I've put several log statements that should be triggered whenever the value on the StatTracker's property changes. the log statement appears only once at the application launch. I'm wondering if I'm missing something in the whole object lifecycle scheme of things, I just don't understand why the observer stops getting notified of changes after the applicationDidFinishLaunching method has run. Does it have something to do with the scope of the AchievementTracker reference or more likely the reference to my core data StatTracker is going away once that method finishes up. I guess I'm not sure the right place to place these if that is the case. Would love some help. Here is the code where I add the observer in my appDidFinishLaunching method: [[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] incrementStatTrackerStat:@"timesLaunched"]; achievementsObserver = [[AchievementTracker alloc] init]; StatTracker *object = nil; object = [[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] getStatTracker] objectAtIndex:0]; NSLog(@"%@",[object description]); [[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] addObserver:achievementsObserver toStat:@"refreshCount"]; here is the code in my core data singleton: -(void) addObserver:(id)observer toStat:(NSString *) statToObserve { NSLog(@"observer added"); NSArray *array = [[NSArray alloc] init]; array = [self getStatTracker]; [[array objectAtIndex:0] addObserver:observer forKeyPath:statToObserve options:NSKeyValueObservingOptionNew | NSKeyValueObservingOptionOld context:NULL]; } and my AchievementTracker: - (void)observeValueForKeyPath:(NSString *)keyPath ofObject:(id)object change:(NSDictionary *)change context:(void *)context { NSLog(@"achievemnt hit"); //NSLog("%@", [change description]); if ([keyPath isEqual:@"refreshCount"] && ((NSInteger)[change valueForKey:@"NSKeyValueObservingOptionOld"] == 60) ) { NSLog(@"achievemnt hit inside"); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"title" message:@"achievement unlocked" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"cancel" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; } }

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  • How does NSValue do its magic?

    - by Paperflyer
    I have an MVC application. The model has a property that is a struct NSSize. It is writable like this: - (void)setSize:(NSSize)aSize; The view sets this NSSize using key-value-coding. However, you can not key-value-code a struct, so I wrapped it in an NSValue-object like this: [theView setValue:[NSValue valueWithSize:mySize] forKey:@"theModel.size"]; To my understanding, this should not work since the accessor expects a struct and not an NSValue. But it works perfectly. Magically. How is this possible?

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  • Is it possible to establish default values for inherited fields in subclasses?

    - by Christian Mann
    I'm trying to establish a default value for inherited fields from superclasses. So, my class hierarchy is thus: Character - Enemy - Boss                 \                   - Hero Each Character has a public static char avatar to represent him on an ASCII playing field. How do I set a default value for the avatar of each class inherited from Character? Thank you!

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  • span tag inside a dynamically generated td - jquery

    - by user1017268
    I have a dynamically generated page of an enterprise application. The data is inside table structure. I need to access a value of span tag inside this table. The page code looks like <td class="dCCItemValue" valign="bottom> <span id="S_0_1_5">Problem type</span> The id of the span tag is also generated dynamically and I have no control over it. So the problem statement becomes: How to get value span inside a td with class "dCCItemValue" I hope I have explained the problem correctly. Please Help

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  • [asp.net-mvc] Html.DropDownList FindByValue in an Edit view?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I have an edit page with a Html.DropDownList in it.... I place the value in textbox but i cant show the dropdownlist value it always shows up with Select... Any suggestion how it can be done... <p> <label for="Mat_Name">Mat_Name:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Mat_Name", Model.Mat_Name) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Mat_Name", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="MeasurementTypeId">MeasurementType:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("MeasurementType", "Select")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("MeasurementTypeId", "*") %> </p>

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  • Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

    - by ilitirit
    This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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  • Is there a way to tell .NET where to look for the user settings file?

    - by Davy8
    Basically multiple instances of our application will be launched but they need to have separate user settings. We currently have use "user settings" for that, and it works fine for a single instance (per windows user) but we would like to be able to launch multiple instances with say a settings path passed in via command line. Is there a way to do this with the built-in .NET settings or will we have to roll our own?

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  • Is it possible to play multiple audio streams from one "jukebox" to multiple Airport Express devices?

    - by Alex Reynolds
    I have set up a Mac mini as a jukebox that streams audio to an Airport Express in another room in the house, using the AirPlay/AirTunes feature in iTunes. I control this with the iOS Remote app, and this works great. At the present time, it looks like the Mac mini's copy of iTunes gets taken over by the Remote app, while streaming. If I set up a second Airport Express in room B, is there a way to set it up (as well as the jukebox) so that it can receive and play its own unique music stream ("stream B"), separate from what's going on at the Mac mini, or in room A, which is playing stream A? To accomplish this, I would be happy to buy a copy of Rogue Amoeba's AirFoil if it will allow sending multiple, separate audio streams from one computer to the multiple wireless bridges, while using the Remote app (or a Rogue Amoeba equivalent for iOS). However, it is unclear to me from their site documentation, whether that is possible or not. I'd prefer to give the points to an answer that solves this problem. If you don't know if it can be done, or do not think it can be done, please allow others to answer. I appreciate your help. Thanks for your advice.

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  • VRF Internet Gateway Multiple External IP's 1 Internal IP to AWS

    - by user223903
    Trying to setup VRF for the first time and its not working for me even though I keep reading everything online. IP's are different to real life. I have an Internet connection which I can ping to my router in the current setup below 195.45.73.22 I have a block of ip addresses 195.45.121.0/27 I want to setup multiple VPN's to AWS so need to have multiple external ip's thus the block of IP addresses. I have setup the 2nd and 3rd IP address but can not ping them from external. Any help would be grateful. Bryan ip source-route ! ip vrf Internet rd 1:1 route-target export 1:1 route-target import 1:1 ip vrf AWSSydney1 rd 2:2 route-target export 2:2 route-target import 2:2 route-target import 1:1 ip vrf AWSSydney2 rd 3:3 route-target export 3:3 route-target import 3:3 route-target import 1:1 ip cef no ip domain lookup no ipv6 cef multilink bundle-name authenticated interface FastEthernet0/0 description Vocus Internet no ip address speed 100 full-duplex interface FastEthernet0/0.1 encapsulation dot1Q 1 native ip address 195.45.73.22 255.255.255.252 interface FastEthernet0/0.2 encapsulation dot1Q 2 ip vrf forwarding AWSSydney1 ip address 195.45.121.1 255.255.255.224 interface FastEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 ip vrf forwarding AWSSydney2 ip address 195.45.121.2 255.255.255.224 interface FastEthernet0/1 description LAN_SIDE ip address 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.0 speed 100 full-duplex no mop enabled ip forward-protocol nd ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 195.45.73.21 ip route vrf Internet 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 195.45.73.21

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  • Apache directory structure with multiple hosted languages.

    - by anomareh
    I just got a new work machine up and running and I'm trying to decide on how to set everything up directory wise. I've done some digging around and really haven't been able to find anything conclusive. I know it's a question with a variety of answers but I'm hoping there's some sort of general guidelines or best practices to go by. With that said, here are a few things specific to my situation. I will be doing actual development and testing on the same machine as the server. It is a single user machine in the sense that I will be the only one working on the machine. There will be multiple hosted languages, specifically PHP and RoR while possibly expanding later. I'd like the setup to translate well to a production environment. With those 3 things in mind there are a couple of things I've had in the back of mind. Seeing as it's a single user machine I haven't been able to decide whether or not I should be working on things out of my home directory or if they should be located outside of it. I'm feeling that outside of a user directory would be better as it would translate better to a production environment, but I'm also not sure if that will come with any permission annoyances or concerns seeing as I'll be working on the same machine. Hosting multiple languages seems like it may be a bit quirky. With PHP I've found you're generally just dumping the project somewhere in the document root where as something like a Rails app you have the entire project and you only want the public directory in the document root. Thanks for any insight, opinion, or just personal preference from experience anyone can offer.

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  • Debian/Redmine: Upgrade multiple instances at once

    - by Davey
    I have multiple Redmine instances. Let's call them InstanceA and InstanceB. InstanceA and InstanceB share the same Redmine installation on Debian. Suppose I would want to install Redmine 1.3 on both instances, how would I do that? After upgrading the core files I would have to migrate the databases. What I would like to know is: can I migrate all databases in a single action? Normally I would do something like: rake -s db:migrate RAILS_ENV=production X_DEBIAN_SITEID=InstanceA for each instance, but this would get tedious if you have 50+ instances. Thanks in advance! Edit: The README.Debian file that's in the (Debian) Redmine package states: SUPPORTS SETUP AND UPGRADES OF MULTIPLE DATABASE INSTANCES This redmine package is designed to automatically configure database BUT NOT the web server. The default database instance is called "default". A debconf facility is provided for configuring several redmine instances. Use dpkg-reconfigure to define the instances identifiers. But can't figure out what to do with the "debconf facility". Edit2: My environment is a default Debian 6.0 "Squeeze" installation with a default Redmine (aptitude install redmine) installation on a default libapache2-mod-passenger. I have setup two instances with dpkg-reconfigure redmine.

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  • Retrieving a specific value from “df -h” using shell

    - by diegodias
    When I use df -h, I get the following output: Filesystem Size Used Avail Use% Mounted on /dev/mapper/VolGroup00-LogVol00 59G 2.2G 54G 4% / /dev/sda1 122M 38M 78M 33% /boot tmpfs 1.1G 0 1.1G 0% /dev/shm 10.10.0.105:/somepath 11T 8.4T 2.1T 81% /storage4 10.11.0.101:/somepath 15T 8.9T 5.9T 61% /storage1 /dev/mapper/patha 5.0T 255G 4.8T 5% /storage5_vol0 /dev/mapper/pathb 5.0T 195G 4.9T 4% /storage5_vol1 /dev/mapper/pathc 5.0T 608G 4.5T 12% /storage5_vol2 I want to write a script that gets the value of Avail column on a specific storage. I used to use df -k /storage_name | tail -1 | awk '{print $3}' But the FileSystem column can have a value or not .. which would change the variable of my script from $3 to $4. How can I get the Avail on a single command line even if there are no values on the previous columns?

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  • Problem with authentication of users via IE when using "host header value"

    - by Richard
    Hi, I'm trying to set multiple web sites up in an IIS 6. I've got a working virtual site residing under the default web site, but if I create a new web site in the IIS and asign it a host header value, let it point to the very same file structure as in the prevoiusly mentioned site and finally asign windows integrated security only to the site - I still cannot log in to the new site using MSIE 6 or 8 but FF 3.5 works fine. In the web log I get these entries if I access the localhost site 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1 127.0.0.1 GET /client/ - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 2 2148074254 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1 127.0.0.1 GET /client/ - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 0 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1 127.0.0.1 GET /client/Default.asp - 80 xxx\Administrator 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 200 0 0 If I however access via the host headre value site I get prompted to login but the login fail and I also get an error "401 1 2148074252" which not present when it succeeds. Can this be the issue? Pre login screen 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 2 2148074254 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 2148074252 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 0 post login screen (note that win credentials have not been submitted) 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 0 2009-11-19 09:15:59 W3SVC1793297778 127.0.0.1 GET / - 80 - 127.0.0.1 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.2;+Trident/4.0;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727) 401 1 2148074252 Firefox will try to access using anonymous access and will prompt for login, after submitting win credentials it all works fine. For what reasoon is the IE so stubornly refusing to submit credentials to the "host header value" site? The site is in the Local intranet Zone and login is ticked for that zone. No teaming NIC's no FW, no nothing, I'm cluless :( /Richard

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  • Can't resolve offline file conflicts

    - by Bryan
    We use roaming profiles on our Server 2008 R2 domain, with folder redirection for 'desktop', 'my documents' and 'application data'. But as our network is split across two sites, we have one file server at each site, which are configured to use domain based DFS namespaces and DFS replication to keep things in sync. The DFS path for the replication folder is as follows: \\domain\folderredirection$\<username>\<redirected-folder-name> The real paths are \\site-1-server\folderredirection$\<username>\<redirected-folder-name> and \\site-2-server\folderredirection$\<username>\<redirected-folder-name> As our users all switch between sites (sometimes several time per day), our folder redirection policy has to redirect to the DFS roots rather than hardcoded to a specific server. Both DFS and DFS-R have been proven to be working perfectly. On our laptops, we use offline files for the redirected folders, and this also works fine, however the problem is as follows: When conflicts occur in offline files, it is impossible to resolve the conflicts. I'm given the usual conflict resolution options (i.e. 'Ignore', 'Keep Both', 'Keep network' and 'Keep local'), however, not one of these options will resolve any conflict, yet no error is produced. We only use offline files on laptops, which have either Windows XP Professional or Windows 7 Professional installed. The problem is not specific to any one laptop, it affects every laptop and every conflicting file in exactly the same way. I would have thought the set up we have is common for companies that have multiple sites, so I'm hoping someone will have seen this before?

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  • How have multiple web servers and IPs on the same physical network

    - by jsigned
    I do web development out of a small office and need to have multiple physical and virtual servers that can be accessed from the internet. I also have a number of devices (computers, laptops, tablets, printers, etc) that need connections as well. I have gotten a subnet of 8 IP's from my ISP and while that is adequate for the web servers its far too small for everything that needs access to the network. My router is an ASUS RT-N16 running DD-WRT. I'm just smart enough about this routing topic to be dangerous, think 2 year old with a magic marker. I would like to keep my internal network NAT'ed on the 192.168.x.x network and route the 68.69.x.x 255.255.255.248 traffic directly to the servers. The physical network consists of the 4 port DD-WRT router and an unmanaged gig switch. I have a fiber connection to the office that works as an Ethernet port. In other words I can plug my laptop directly into it and have access to the internet. There is no login or password and the router is setup to get DHCP from the ISP, and to provide DHCP addresses for the internal network. What I've done so far is google and try different configurations with little success. In the end I decided I didn't even know how to ask the questions needed. My questions are: Is this the best way to configure the network? How do you do it? VLANs? Multiple routers? I've never had to configure a router using anything more than the GUI so if this is command line stuff be gentle.

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  • Conditionally format row based on cell value in Excel 2011 Mac

    - by kojiro
    I'm using Excel Mac 2011. I have read some of the other answers, but this question is different because I want to apply conditional formatting to an entire row when its cell in column B contains the value 'Y'. Simple conditional formatting just formats that one cell. Whenever the field at column B for any given row contains the value 'Y', I'd like to format that row. Using Mac Excel's so-called "classic" conditional formatting, I have this: I would really like to apply that to every row, but it just paints the entire sheet red (because $B$3 contains "Y"). I can't seem to figure out how to get the reference to whatever is in field B for this row in the rule.

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  • AD Custom Attribute with unique value

    - by Zilog
    I have custom AD attribute added to my AD schema. Attribute's syntax is Unicode String. It is added to user class and the purpose of it is to store user ID of corporate ERP system. Problem is, that I can have two or more user objects with the same value stored in that attribute, which is something that I would like to avoid. Is there a way to configure AD attribute so it is unique within the domain boundary? (The same behavior as SAMAccountName attribute.) i.e : If there already exists user object in AD with this attribute set to "JSmith" and I try to set that attribute with the same value for another user, Direcory Services will refuse to update that object and give me "already exists" error. Domain functional level is windows 2003.

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  • One Comcast Business Gateway, One Router, Two Web Servers

    - by Kevin Scheidt
    I have a Comcast business account with a router and a web server (info) attached. behind the router there are multiple computers and a second web server (info) which also serves as a file server. (info) has two nics in it. One direct to comcast and one connected to the router. It needs to serve the world it's websites. It needs however, to also be able to see all the internal computers and (com)'s served files. With just 1 nic (the one connected to the router, not comcast), (info) works fine but no one outside can see it. (com) services port 80 and (info) needs to handle port 80 as well. I have two domain names registered, and 5 static ip's from comcast. right now h t t p: / /www.graceamazing.com handled by (com) works fine and h t t p: / /www.graceamazing.com:1307 handled by (info) works fine. but as soon as I enable the 2nd nic in (info) h t t p: / /www.graceamazing.info runs extremely slow (Horribly slow). however, h t t p: / /www.graceamazing.com:1307 and .com work fine. (com) has an ip address via the router 70.89.233.41 (info) has a ip addy of 70.89.233.46 via comcast (2nd nic) and a internal ip of 192.168.x.100 via static behind the router. Any suggestions or changes to make that will make h t t p: / /www.graceamazing.info perform with the same speed it has when going through h t t p: / /graceamazing.com:1307 is there a setting I should check / could have misssed?

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  • ISC DHCPD IPv6 for multiple interfaces

    - by Seoman
    I want to assign multiple IPv6 to a server with multiple NIC. As IPv6 RFC defines, each server has a unique DUID that can have one of the 3 formats (LL, LLT or enterprise). And each NIC has an IAID. So a request from NIC1 its the DUID and the IAID of the NIC1 and the request from NIC2 its the same DUID but the IAID its different. The problem is that from a Centos box, when I ask for an IP in 2 different interfaces, I get the same IP. I can't find how to specify host entry based on DUID and the IAID. I see some people generating a unique DUID based on the MAC of the NIC but this is not IPv6 RFC says. What I tried is: host entry1 { host-identifier option dhcp6.client-id 00:01:00:01:19:fc:f8:1c:52:54:00:7e:c9:ec; option dhcp6.ia-na "00:09:40:5d"; fixed-address6 2001:db8:0:1::202; } host entry2 { host-identifier option dhcp6.client-id 00:01:00:01:19:fc:f8:1c:52:54:00:7e:c9:ec; option dhcp6.ia-na "00:7e:c9:ec"; fixed-address6 2001:db8:0:1::201; } This causes a Segmentation Fault in the client (what is scary...). I guess is not the right use for ia-na option but I don't see any other option.

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  • Tie stock quote value to cell in Excel 2011 Mac

    - by vedantchandra
    I've been working on a mock stock portfolio in Excel, and I've been looking for ways to automatically update the data, eg. stock price and P/E ratio. I have tried using a web query to MSN Money, but that just brings up the whole stock quote across multiple cells, I want data to be updated in individual cells only. The only web query solution I can think of is if someone hosted a website where each value in the stock quote was saved on a different HTML file. I could then WebQuery to that file for each cell requiring that value. However, no website offers this. So in essence, is there any tool on Excel 2011 Mac that will let me pull individual values from a stock quote and assign them to a single cell?

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  • How to Log Into a Web App Simultaneously with Different Account?

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I want to log into a web application, using at least ten account names at one single point of time ( I am not trying to do anything illegal, so don't worry). AFAIK, each tab in Chrome will share the same session, therefore, for one machine, one can use Google Chrome to log in at most 2 accounts, one in normal mode, another in Incognito mode. Is there anyway I can log into multiple accounts? I know I can open up IE and Firefox ( probably Safari etc) and login, but this is not really scalable as the number of web browsers is finite. Edit: My application is a localhost application; it resides on my computer. So proxy may not be that useful, and you now probably understand why it's nothing illegal. Edit2: CookieSwap seems like a good idea, but the problem is that once I swap the cookie, all the tabs and the FF apps' cookie are swap as well. Can the swapping be done on a tab basis or on application basis, so that on a dual-monitor, I can see the different login side-by-side?

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  • Multiple static WAN IP addresses to single LAN subnet

    - by Jessy Houle
    Below is my home network topology. I currently have 5 static IP addresses, 3 of which are in use by 3 routers. These routers in-turn subnet internal networks and port forward. I use my SSL VPN appliance to remote home from work or on the road. At this point I can remotely administer my Windows Server. I know the network is setup wrong, I was matching existing hardware the best I knew how. http://storage.jessyhoule.com.s3.amazonaws.com/network_topology.jpg Ok this said, here is the problem... One of my websites on my Windows Server now needs to be secure (SSL using port 443). However, I'm already port forwarding port 443 to my VPN appliance. Furthermore, if I'm going to have to reconfigure the network, I would really like to be able to use the SSL VPN to remotely administer all machines. I mentioned this to a friend of mine, who said that what I was looking for was a firewall. Explaining that a firewall would take in multiple static (WAN) IP addresses, and still allow all internal devices to be on the same network. So, basically, I could supply my SSL VPN appliance it's very own static (WAN) IP address routing, and yet have it on the same internal network (192.168.1.x) as all my other devices. The first question is... Does this sound right? Secondly, would you suggest anything different? And, finally, what is the cheapest way to do this? I am started down the road of downloading/installing untangle and smoothwall to see if they will do the job, hoping they take multiple static (WAN) IP addresses. Thank you in advance for your answers. -Jessy Houle

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