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• SQL 2005 Express Edition - Install new instance

  - by Douglas Anderson

  Looking for a way to programatically, or otherwise, add a new instance of SQL 2005 Express Edition to a system that already has an instance installed. Traditionally, you run Micrsoft's installer like I am in the command line below and it does the trick. Executing the command in my installer is not the issue, it's more a matter of dragging around the 40 MBs of MS-SQL installer that I don't need if they have SQL Express already installed. This is what my installer currently executes: SQLEXPR32.EXE /qb ADDLOCAL=ALL INSTANCENAME=<instancename> SECURITYMODE=SQL SAPWD=<password> SQLAUTOSTART=1 DISABLENETWORKPROTOCOLS=0 I don't need assistance with launching this command, rather the appropriate way to add a new instance of SQL 2005 Express without actually running the full installer again. I'd go into great detail about why I want to do this but I'd simply bore everyone. Suffice to say, having this ability to create a new instance without the time it takes to reinstall SQL Express etc. would greatly assist me for the deployment of my application and it's installer. If makes any difference to anyone, I'm using a combination of NSIS and Advanced Installer for this installation project.

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• Measuring execution time of selected loops

  - by user95281

  I want to measure the running times of selected loops in a C program so as to see what percentage of the total time for executing the program (on linux) is spent in these loops. I should be able to specify the loops for which the performance should be measured. I have tried out several tools (vtune, hpctoolkit, oprofile) in the last few days and none of them seem to do this. They all find the performance bottlenecks and just show the time for those. Thats because these tools only store the time taken that is above a threshold (~1ms). So if one loop takes lesser time than that then its execution time won't be reported. The basic block counting feature of gprof depends on a feature in older compilers thats not supported now. I could manually write a simple timer using gettimeofday or something like that but for some cases it won't give accurate results. For ex: for (i = 0; i < 1000; ++i) { for (j = 0; j < N; ++j) { //do some work here } } Now here I want to measure the total time spent in the inner loop and I will have to put a call to gettimeofday inside the first loop. So gettimeofday itself will get called a 1000 times which introduces its own overhead and the result will be inaccurate.

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• Execute sybase stored proc from hibernate

  - by Padmanabh

  I am having issues with executing a simple sybase stored proc from hibernate. The procedure takes some input and returns one record. I tried with the following tag in hibernate mappings file and java code. <hibernate-mapping> <sql-query name="sybaseproc" callable="true"> <return class="Myentity"> <return-property name="next" column="next"/> </return> { ? = call nextnum(?,?) } </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> java code is as follows Query q = session.getNamedQuery("sybaseproc"); q.setString(0,"test"); q.setInteger(1,new Integer(10)); Myentity entity = (Myentity) q.uniqueResult(); When I run my test. I get a error saying "Errors in Named Query sybaseproc" and the test does not run. Any help is appreciated. Thanks Padmanabh

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• Why does a conditional not affect query speed?

  - by Telos

  I have a stored procedure that was taking a "long" period of time to execute. The query only needs to return data in one case, so I figured I could check for that case and just return before hitting the actual query. The only problem is that it still takes the same amount of time to execute with an if statement. I have verified that the code inside the if is not executing, and that if I replace the complex query with a simple select the speed is fine... so now I'm confused. Why is the query being slowed down by code that doesn't get executed when the conditional is false? Here's the query itself: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[pr_cbc_GetCokeInfo] @pa_record int, @pb_record int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; declare @ticketRec int SELECT @ticketRec = TicketRecord FROM eservice_live..v_sdticket where TicketRecord=@pa_record AND serviceCompanyID = 1139 AND @pb_record IS NULL if @ticketRec IS NULL return select record = null, doc_ref = @pa_record, memo_type = 'I', memo = 'Bottler: ' + isnull(Bottler, '') + ' ' + 'Sales Loc: ' + isnull(SalesLocation, '') + ' ' + 'Outlet Desc: ' + isnull(OutletDesc, '') + ' ' + 'City: ' + isnull(OutletCity, '') + ' ' + 'EquipNo: ' + isnull(EquipNo, '') + ' ' + 'SerialNo: ' + isnull(SerialNo, '') + ' ' + 'PhaseNo: ' + isnull(cast(PhaseNo as varchar(255)), '') + ' ' + 'StaticIP: ' + isnull(StaticIP, '') + ' ' + 'Air Card: ' + isnull(AirCard, '') FROM eservice_live..v_SDExtendedInfoField ef JOIN eservice_live..CokeSNList csl ON ef.valueText=csl.SerialNo where ef.docType='CLH' AND ef.docref = @ticketRec AND ef.ExtendedDocNumber=5 SET NOCOUNT OFF; END

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• EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

  - by Lorenzo

  In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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• How to set the build.xml for the Groovy Antbuilder?

  - by Jan

  I want to execute a build.xml (Ant buildfile) from using GMaven (Maven Plugin for inline executing of Groovy in a POM). Since I have to execute the buildfile several times using the maven-antrun-plugin is not an option at the moment. I take a list of properties (environment and machine names) from an xml file and want to execute ant builds for each of those machines. I found the executeTarget method in the javadocs but not how to set the location of the buildfile. How can I do that - and is this enough? What I have looks as follows: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.groovy.maven</groupId> <artifactId>gmaven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <id>some ant builds</id> <phase>process-sources</phase> <goals> <goal>execute</goal> </goals> <configuration> <source> def ant = new AntBuilder() def machines = new XmlParser().parse(new File(project.build.outputDirectory + '/MachineList.xml')); machines.children().each { log.info('Creating machine description for ' + it.Id.text() + ' / ' + it.Environment.text()); ant.project.setProperty('Environment',it.Environment.text()); ant.project.setProperty('Machine',it.Id.text()); // What's missing? ant.project.executeTarget('Tailoring'); } log.info('Ant has finished.') </source> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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• Oracle: Insertion on an indexed table, avoiding duplicates. Looking for tips and advice.

  - by Tom

  Hi everyone, Im looking for the best solution (performance wise) to achieve this. I have to insert records into a table, avoiding duplicates. For example, take table A Insert into A ( Select DISTINCT [FIELDS] from B,C,D.. WHERE (JOIN CONDITIONS ON B,C,D..) AND NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM A ATMP WHERE ATMP.SOMEKEY = A.SOMEKEY ) ); I have an index over A.SOMEKEY, just to optimize the NOT EXISTS query, but i realize that inserting on an indexed table will be a performance hit. So I was thinking of duplicating Table A in a Global Temporary Table, where I would keep the index. Then, removing the index from Table A and executing the query, but modified Insert into A ( Select DISTINCT [FIELDS] from B,C,D.. WHERE (JOIN CONDITIONS ON B,C,D..) AND NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM GLOBAL_TEMPORARY_TABLE_A ATMP WHERE ATMP.SOMEKEY = A.SOMEKEY ) ); This would solve the "inserting on an index table", but I would have to update the Global Temporary A with each insertion I make. I'm kind of lost here, Is there a better way to achieve this? Thanks in advance,

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• Objects in JavaScript defined and undefined at the same time (in a FireFox extension)

  - by Alexey Romanov

  I am chasing down a bug in a FireFox extension. I've finally managed to see it for myself (I've only had reports before) and I can't understand how what I saw is possible. One error message from my extension in the Error Console is "gBrowser is not defined". This by itself would be surprising enough, since the overlay is over browser.xul and navigator.xul, and I expect gBrowser to be available from both. Even worse is the actual place where it happens: line 101 of nextplease.js. That is, inside the function isTopLevelDocument, which is only called from onContentLoaded, which is only called from onLoad here: gBrowser.addEventListener(this.loadType, function (event) { nextplease.loadListener.onContentLoaded(event); }, true); So gBrowser is defined in onLoad, but somehow undefined in isTopLevelDocument. When I tried to actually use the extension, I got another error: "nextplease is not defined". The interesting thing is that it happened on lines 853 and 857. That is, inside the functions nextplease.getNextLink = function () { nextplease.getLink(window.content, nextplease.NextPhrasesMap, nextplease.NextImagesMap, nextplease.isNextRegExp, nextplease.NEXT_SEARCH_TYPE); } nextplease.getPrevLink = function () { nextplease.getLink(window.content, nextplease.PrevPhrasesMap, nextplease.PrevImagesMap, nextplease.isPrevRegExp, nextplease.PREV_SEARCH_TYPE); } So nextplease is somehow defined enough to call these functions, but isn't defined inside them. Finally, executing typeof(nextplease) in Execute JS returns "object". Same for gBrowser. How can this happen? Any ideas?

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• What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

  - by Michael Steele

  problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

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• SSL certificate pre-fetch .NET

  - by Wil P

  I am writing a utility that would allow me to monitor the health of our websites. This consists of a series of validation tasks that I can run against a web application. One of the tests is to anticipate the expiration of a particular SSL certificate. I am looking for a way to pre-fetch the SSL certificate installed on a web site using .NET or a WINAPI so that I can validate the expiration date of the certificate associated with a particular website. One way I could do this is to cache the certificates when they are validated in the ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback handler and then match them up with configured web sites, but this seems a bit hackish. Another would be to configure the application with the certificate for the website, but I'd rather avoid this if I can in order to minimize configuration. What would be the easiest way for me to download an SSL certificate associated with a website using .NET so that I can inspect the information the certificate contains to validate it? EDIT: To extend on the answer below there is no need to manually create the ServicePoint prior to creating the request. It is generated on the request object as part of executing the request. private static string GetSSLExpiration(string url) { HttpWebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; using (WebResponse response = request.GetResponse()) { } if (request.ServicePoint.Certificate != null) { return request.ServicePoint.Certificate.GetExpirationDateString(); } else { return string.Empty; } }

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• db:migrate creates sequences but doesn't alter table?

  - by RewbieNewbie

  Hello, I have a migration that creates a postres sequence for auto incrementing a primary identifier, and then executes a statement for altering the column and specifying the default value: execute 'CREATE SEQUENCE "ServiceAvailability_ID_seq";' execute <<-SQL ALTER TABLE "ServiceAvailability" ALTER COLUMN "ID" set DEFAULT NEXTVAL('ServiceAvailability_ID_seq'); SQL If I run db:migrate everything seems to work, in that no errors are returned, however, if I run the rails application I get: Mnull value in column "ID" violates not-null constraint I have discovered by executing the sql statement in the migration manually, that this error is because the alter statement isn't working, or isn't being executed. If I manually execute the following statement: CREATE SEQUENCE "ServiceAvailability_ID_seq; I get: error : ERROR: relation "serviceavailability_id_seq" already exists Which means the migration successfully created the sequence! However, if I manually run: ALTER TABLE "ServiceProvider" ALTER COLUMN "ID" set DEFAULT NEXTVAL('ServiceProvider_ID_seq'); SQL It runs successfully and creates the default NEXTVAL. So the question is, why is the migration file creating the sequence with the first execute statement, but not altering the table in the second execute? (Remembering, no errors are output on running db:migrate) Thank you and apologies for tl:dr

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• jQuery event handling with .live() problem with setInterval and clearInterval

  - by Kyle Lafkoff

  jQuery 1.4.2: I have an image. When the mouseover event is triggered, a function is executed that runs a loop to load several images. On the contrary, the mouseout event needs to set the image back to a predetermined image and no longer have the loop executing. These are only for the images with class "thumb": $("img.thumb").live("mouseover mouseout", function(event) { var foo = $(this).attr('id'); var wait; var i=0; var image = document.getElementById(foo); if (event.type == 'mouseover') { function incrementimage() { i++; image.src = 'http://example.com/images/file_'+i+'.jpg'; if(i==30) {i=0;} } wait = setInterval(incrementimage,500); } else if (event.type == 'mouseout') { clearInterval (wait); image.src = 'http://example.com/images/default.jpg'; } return false; }); When I mouseout, the image is set to the default.jpg but the browser continues to loop though the images. It will never stop. Can someone hit me with some knowledge? Thanks.

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• How to properly force a Blackberry Java application to install using Loader.exe

  - by Kevin White

  I want to include the Application Loader process in a software installation, to ensure that users get our software installed on their Blackberry by the time our installer software finishes. I know this is possible, because Aerize Card Loader (http://aerize.com/blackberry/software/loader/) does this. When you install their software, if your Blackberry is connected the Application Loader will come up and force the .COD file to install to the device. I can't make it work. Looking at RIM's own documentation, I need to: Place the ALX and COD files into a subfolder here: C:\Program Files\Common Files\Research In Motion\Shared\Applications\ Add a path to the ALX file in HKCU\Software\Research In Motion\Blackberry\Loader\Packages Index the application, by executing this at the command line: loader.exe /index Start the force load, by doing this: loader.exe /defaultUSB /forceload When I execute that last command, the Application Loader comes up and says that all applications are up to date and nothing needs to be done. If I execute loader.exe by double-clicking on it (or typing in the command with no parameters), I get the regular Application Loader wizard. It shows my program as listed, but un-checked. If I check it and click next, it will install to the Blackberry. (This is the part that I want to avoid, and that Aerize Card Loader's install process avoids.) What am I missing? It appears that the Aerize installer is doing something different but I haven't been able to ascertain what.

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• Security implications of writing files using PHP

  - by susmits

  I'm currently trying to create a CMS using PHP, purely in the interest of education. I want the administrators to be able to create content, which will be parsed and saved on the server storage in pure HTML form to avoid the overhead that executing PHP script would incur. Unfortunately, I could only think of a few ways of doing so: Setting write permission on every directory where the CMS should want to write a file. This sounds like quite a bad idea. Setting write permissions on a single cached directory. A PHP script could then include or fopen/fread/echo the content from a file in the cached directory at request-time. This could perhaps be carried out in a Mediawiki-esque fashion: something like index.php?page=xyz could read and echo content from cached/xyz.html at runtime. However, I'll need to ensure the sanity of $_GET['page'] to prevent nasty variations like index.php?page=http://www.bad-site.org/malicious-script.js. I'm personally not too thrilled by the second idea, but the first one sounds very insecure. Could someone please suggest a good way of getting this done?

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• Return and Save XML Object From Sharepoint List Web Service

  - by HurnsMobile

  I am trying to populate a variable with an XML response from an ajax call on page load so that on keyup I can filter through that list without making repeated get requests (think very rudimentary autocomplete). The trouble that I am having seems to be potentially related to variable scoping but I am fairly new to js/jQuery so I am not quite certain. The following code doesn't do anything on key up and adding alerts to it tells me that it is executing leadResults() on keyup and that the variable is returning an XML response object but it appears to be empty. The strange bit is that if I move the leadResults() call into the getResults() function the UL is populated with the results correctly. Im beating my head against the wall on this one, please help! var resultsXml; $(document).ready( function() { var leadLookupCaml = "<Query> \ <Where> \ <Eq> \ <FieldRef Name=\"Lead_x0020_Status\"/> \ <Value Type=\"Text\">Active</Value> \ </Eq> \ </Where> \ </Query>" $().SPServices({ operation: "GetListItems", webURL: "http://sharepoint/departments/sales", listName: "Leads", CAMLQuery: leadLookupCaml, CAMLRowLimit: 0, completefunc: getResults }); }) $("#lead_search").keyup( function(e) { leadResults(); }) function getResults(xData, status) { resultsXml = xData; } function leadResults() { xData = resultsXml; $("#lead_results li").remove(); $(xData.responseXML).find("z\\:row").each(function() { var selectHtml = "<li>" + "<a href=\"http://sharepoint/departments/sales/Lists/Lead%20Groups/DispForm.aspx?ID=" + $(this).attr("ows_ID") + ">" + $(this).attr("ows_Title")+" : " + $(this).attr("ows_Phone") + "</a>\ </li>"; $("#lead_results").append(selectHtml); }); }

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• Is it safe to reuse javax.xml.ws.Service objects

  - by Noel Ang

  I have JAX-WS style web service client that was auto-generated with the NetBeans IDE. The generated proxy factory (extends javax.xml.ws.Service) delegates proxy creation to the various Service.getPort methods. The application that I am maintaining instantiates the factory and obtains a proxy each time it calls the targetted service. Creating the new proxy factory instances repeatedly has been shown to be expensive, given that the WSDL documentation supplied to the factory constructor, an HTTP URI, is re-retrieved for each instantiation. We had success in improving the performance by caching the WSDL. But this has ugly maintenance and packaging implications for us. I would like to explore the suitability of caching the proxy factory itself. Is it safe, e.g., can two different client classes, executing on the same JVM and targetting the same web service, safely use the same factory to obtain distinct proxy objects (or a shared, reentrant one)? I've been unable to find guidance from either the JAX-WS specification nor the javax.xml.ws API documentation. The factory-proxy multiplicity is unclear to me. Having Service.getPort rather than Service.createPort does not inspire confidence.

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• Problems when handling orientation changes

  - by nixau

  Hi all, I need to handle orientation changes in my Android application. For this purpose I decided to use OrientationEventListener convenience class. But his callback method is given somewhat strange behavior. My application starts in the portrait mode and then eventually switches to the lanscape one. I have some custom code executing in the callback onOrientationChanged method that provides some additional UI handling logic - it has a few calls to findViewById. What is strange is that when switching back from landscape to portrait mode onOrientationChanged callback is called twice, and what's even worse - the second call is dealing with bad Context - findViewById method starts returning null. These calls are made right from the MainThread @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); listener = new OrientationListener(); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); // enabling listening listener.enable(); } @Override protected void onPause() { super.onPause(); // disabling listening listener.disable(); } I've replicated the same behavior with a dummy Activity without any logic except for one that deals with orientation hadling. I initiate orientation switch from the Android 2.2 emulator by pressing Ctrl+F11 What could be wrong? Upd: Inner class that implements OrientationEventListener private class OrientationListener extends OrientationEventListener { public OrientationL() { super(getBaseContext()); } @Override public void onOrientationChanged(int orientation) { toString(); } } }

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• MSBuild Working with ItemGroup and EXEC Command

  - by obautista

  I created the ItemGroup shown in the code snippet. I need to iterate through this ItemGroup and run the EXEC command - also shown in the code snippet. I cannot seem to get it to work. The code returns the error shown below (note - the Message is written 2 times, which is correct), but the EXEC Command is not running correctly. The value is not being set; therefore the EXEC is not executing at all. I need the EXEC to execute twice or by however sections I define in the ItemGroup. ERROR: Encrypting WebServer appSettings section Encrypting WebServer connectionStrings section C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_regiis.exe -pef "" "\gaw\UI" -prov "RSACustomProvider" Encrypting configuration section... The configuration section '' was not found. CODE SNIPPET: appSettings connectionStrings <Exec Command="$(AspNetRegIis) -pef &quot;%(SectionsToEncrypt.Section)&quot; &quot;$(DropLocation)\$(BuildNumber)\%(ConfigurationToBuild.FlavorToBuild)\$(AnythingPastFlavorToBuild)&quot; -prov &quot;$(WebSiteRSACustomProviderName)&quot;"/>

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• Please help debug this ASP.Net [VB] code. Trying to write to text file from SQL Server DB.

  - by NJTechGuy

  I am a PHP programmer. I have no .Net coding experience (last seen it 4 years ago). Not interested in code-behind model since this is a quick temporary hack. What I am trying to do is generate an output.txt file whenever the user submits new data. So an output.txt file if exists should be replaced with the new one. I want to write data in this format : 123|Java Programmer|2010-01-01|2010-02-03 124|VB Programmer|2010-01-01|2010-02-03 125|.Net Programmer|2010-01-01|2010-02-03 I don't know VB, so not sure about string manipulations. Hope a kind soul can help me with this. I will be grateful to you. Thank you :) <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <%@ Import Namespace="System.Data" %> <%@ Import Namespace="System.Data.SqlClient" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim sqlConn As New SqlConnection("Data Source=winsqlus04.1and1.com;Initial Catalog=db28765269;User Id=dbo2765469;Password=ByhgstfH;") Dim myCommand As SqlCommand Dim dr As SqlDataReader Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output4.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) Try sqlConn.Open() 'opening the connection myCommand = New SqlCommand("SELECT id, title, CONVERT(varchar(10), expirydate, 120) AS [expirydate],CONVERT(varchar(10), creationdate, 120) AS [createdate] from tblContact where flag = 0 AND ACTIVE = 1", sqlConn) 'executing the command and assigning it to connection dr = myCommand.ExecuteReader() While dr.Read() objStreamWriter.WriteLine("JobID: " & dr(0).ToString()) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("JobID: " & dr(2).ToString()) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("JobID: " & dr(3).ToString()) End While dr.Close() sqlConn.Close() Catch x As Exception End Try objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" />

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• Accessing previous activity instances in a sequence activity

  - by Dan Revell

  This has a rather SharePoint spin to it but the problem is straight workflow. I've got a parallel replication activity which contains a sequence activity. The sequence activity contains a CreateTask activity, a CodeActivity, a OnTaskChanged activity and finally a CompleteTask activity. The idea is to create a task for each username passed into the ReplicatorActivity.InitialChildData property. Typically in workflow I bind a field to the CreateTask.TaskId and CreateTask.TaskProperties and inside the CreateTask.MethodInvoking I set these through the local bound fields. This works and my tasks all get created properly. However in the CodeActivity that follows, I want to then access the TaskProperties. The problem I am encountering is that this field holds the values of the final task to be created as the CreateTask runs for all the replications before the CodeActivity gets to runs. From the CodeActivity, here are two ways I've tried to access the CreateTask activity instance from the same context or instance or whatever the terminology is for the replicated sequence. CreateTask task = ((CreateTask)sender.Parent.GetActivityByName("createSoftwareRequestTask", true)); CreateTask createTask = (CreateTask)sender.Parent.Activities[0]; Unfortunately the CreateTask activities both refer back to the last task to be created and not the task from the context that the CodeActivity is executing within. Two reasons why this might be that I can think of. I'm not accessing the correct instance with my code. I am accessing the correct instance, but as the properties I require were bound to and set through local fields then their previous data was overwritten. I'm hitting a brick wall with my understanding of workflow with this and would very much appreciate some assistance here.

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• Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

  - by user30997

  I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

  - by Peter

  Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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• Odd DOM Problem with Firefox

  - by Bob

  Hello. I'm experiencing an odd problem when trying to navigate through a table's rows and cells in a while loop using javascript. I'm using Firefox 3.5.7 on Win7 with Firebug enabled. I have this markup: <table> <tbody> <tr id='firstRow'><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> </tbody> </table> And this javascript: var row = document.getElementById('firstRow'); console.log(row); // Row call 1 while (row) { console.log(row); // Row call 2 row = row.nextSibling; } The problem I'm having is that on the line commented "Row call 1", Firebug is outputting <tr id='firstRow'> as expected. However, in the while loop, Firebug is giving me <tr id='firstRow'> <TextNode textContent="\n"> It is giving me different output for the exact same row, even immediately after the while loop begins executing and nothing else touched the row. For subsequent rows, it of course does not have id='firstRow' as an attribute. The bigger problem this is giving me is that if I'm in the while loop, and I want to access a particular cell of the current row using row.cells[0], Firebug will give me an error that row.cells is undefined. I want to know if someone could shed some light on this situation I am experiencing.

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• Error while uploading file method in Client Object Model Sharepoint 2010

  - by user1481570

  Error while uploading file method in Client Object Model + Sharepoint 2010. Once the file got uploaded. After that though the code compiles with no error I get the error while executing "{"Value does not fall within the expected range."} {System.Collections.Generic.SynchronizedReadOnlyCollection} I have a method which takes care of functionality to upload files /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// public void Upload_Click(string documentPath, byte[] documentStream) { String sharePointSite = "http://cvgwinbasd003:28838/sites/test04"; String documentLibraryUrl = sharePointSite +"/"+ documentPath.Replace('\\','/'); //////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// //Get Document List List documentsList = clientContext.Web.Lists.GetByTitle("Doc1"); var fileCreationInformation = new FileCreationInformation(); //Assign to content byte[] i.e. documentStream fileCreationInformation.Content = documentStream; //Allow owerwrite of document fileCreationInformation.Overwrite = true; //Upload URL fileCreationInformation.Url = documentLibraryUrl; Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.File uploadFile = documentsList.RootFolder.Files.Add( fileCreationInformation); //uploadFile.ListItemAllFields.Update(); clientContext.ExecuteQuery(); } ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// In the MVC 3.0 application in the controller I have defined the following method to invoke the upload method. ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// public ActionResult ProcessSubmit(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> attachments) { System.IO.Stream uploadFileStream=null; byte[] uploadFileBytes; int fileLength=0; foreach (HttpPostedFileBase fileUpload in attachments) { uploadFileStream = fileUpload.InputStream; fileLength=fileUpload.ContentLength; } uploadFileBytes= new byte[fileLength]; uploadFileStream.Read(uploadFileBytes, 0, fileLength); using (DocManagementService.DocMgmtClient doc = new DocMgmtClient()) { doc.Upload_Click("Doc1/Doc2/Doc2.1/", uploadFileBytes); } return RedirectToAction("SyncUploadResult"); } ////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// Please help me to locate the error

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• calling .ajax() from an eventHandler c# asp.ent

  - by ibininja

  Good day...! In the code behind (upload.aspx) I have an event that returns the number of bytes being streamed; and as I debug it, it works fine. I wanted to reflect the numbers returned from the eventHandler on a progress bar and this is where I got lost. I tried using jQuery's .ajax() function. this is how I implemented it: In the EventHandler in my code behind I added this code to call the .ajax() function: Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "UpdateProgress", "<script type='text/javascript'>updateProgress();</script>"); My plan is whenever the eventHandler function changes the values of bytes being streamed it calls the javascript function "updateProgress()" The .ajax() function "UpdateProgress()" is as: function updateProgress() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "upload.aspx/GetData", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", async: true, success: function (msg) { $("#progressbar").progressbar("option", "value", msg.d); } }); } I made sure that the function GetData() is [System.Web.Services.WebMethod] and that it is static as well. so the workflow of what I am trying to implement is as: - Click On Upload button - The Behind code starts executing and EventHandler triggers - The EventHandler calls .ajax() function - The .ajax() function retrieves the bytes being streamed and updates progress bar. When I ran the code; all runs well except that the .ajax() is only executed when upload is finished (and progress bar also updates only when finished upload); even though I call .ajax() function every time in the eventHandler function as reflected above... What am I doing wrong? Am I thinking of this right? is there anything else I should add maybe an updatePanel or something? thank you

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