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  • 3D Ball Physics Theory: collision response on ground and against walls?

    - by David
    I'm really struggling to get a strong grasp on how I should be handling collision response in a game engine I'm building around a 3D ball physics concept. Think Monkey Ball as an example of the type of gameplay. I am currently using sphere-to-sphere broad phase, then AABB to OBB testing (the final test I am using right now is one that checks if one of the 8 OBB points crosses the planes of the object it is testing against). This seems to work pretty well, and I am getting back: Plane that object is colliding against (with a point on the plane, the plane's normal, and the exact point of intersection. I've tried what feels like dozens of different high-level strategies for handling these collisions, without any real success. I think my biggest problem is understanding how to handle collisions against walls in the x-y axes (left/right, front/back), which I want to have elasticity, and the ground (z-axis) where I want an elastic reaction if the ball drops down, but then for it to eventually normalize and be kept "on the ground" (not go into the ground, but also not continue bouncing). Without kluging something together, I'm positive there is a good way to handle this, my theories just aren't getting me all the way there. For physics modeling and movement, I am trying to use a Euler based setup with each object maintaining a position (and destination position prior to collision detection), a velocity (which is added onto the position to determine the destination position), and an acceleration (which I use to store any player input being put on the ball, as well as gravity in the z coord). Starting from when I detect a collision, what is a good way to approach the response to get the expected behavior in all cases? Thanks in advance to anyone taking the time to assist... I am grateful for any pointers, and happy to post any additional info or code if it is useful. UPDATE Based on Steve H's and eBusiness' responses below, I have adapted my collision response to what makes a lot more sense now. It was close to right before, but I didn't have all the right pieces together at the right time! I have one problem left to solve, and that is what is causing the floor collision to hit every frame. Here's the collision response code I have now for the ball, then I'll describe the last bit I'm still struggling to understand. // if we are moving in the direction of the plane (against the normal)... if (m_velocity.dot(intersection.plane.normal) <= 0.0f) { float dampeningForce = 1.8f; // eventually create this value based on mass and acceleration // Calculate the projection velocity PVRTVec3 actingVelocity = m_velocity.project(intersection.plane.normal); m_velocity -= actingVelocity * dampeningForce; } // Clamp z-velocity to zero if we are within a certain threshold // -- NOTE: this was an experimental idea I had to solve the "jitter" bug I'll describe below float diff = 0.2f - abs(m_velocity.z); if (diff > 0.0f && diff <= 0.2f) { m_velocity.z = 0.0f; } // Take this object to its new destination position based on... // -- our pre-collision position + vector to the collision point + our new velocity after collision * time // -- remaining after the collision to finish the movement m_destPosition = m_position + intersection.diff + (m_velocity * intersection.tRemaining * GAMESTATE->dt); The above snippet is run after a collision is detected on the ball (collider) with a collidee (floor in this case). With a dampening force of 1.8f, the ball's reflected "upward" velocity will eventually be overcome by gravity, so the ball will essentially be stuck on the floor. THIS is the problem I have now... the collision code is running every frame (since the ball's z-velocity is constantly pushing it a collision with the floor below it). The ball is not technically stuck, I can move it around still, but the movement is really goofy because the velocity and position keep getting affected adversely by the above snippet. I was experimenting with an idea to clamp the z-velocity to zero if it was "close to zero", but this didn't do what I think... probably because the very next frame the ball gets a new gravity acceleration applied to its velocity regardless (which I think is good, right?). Collisions with walls are as they used to be and work very well. It's just this last bit of "stickiness" to deal with. The camera is constantly jittering up and down by extremely small fractions too when the ball is "at rest". I'll keep playing with it... I like puzzles like this, especially when I think I'm close. Any final ideas on what I could be doing wrong here? UPDATE 2 Good news - I discovered I should be subtracting the intersection.diff from the m_position (position prior to collision). The intersection.diff is my calculation of the difference in the vector of position to destPosition from the intersection point to the position. In this case, adding it was causing my ball to always go "up" just a little bit, causing the jitter. By subtracting it, and moving that clamper for the velocity.z when close to zero to being above the dot product (and changing the test from <= 0 to < 0), I now have the following: // Clamp z-velocity to zero if we are within a certain threshold float diff = 0.2f - abs(m_velocity.z); if (diff > 0.0f && diff <= 0.2f) { m_velocity.z = 0.0f; } // if we are moving in the direction of the plane (against the normal)... float dotprod = m_velocity.dot(intersection.plane.normal); if (dotprod < 0.0f) { float dampeningForce = 1.8f; // eventually create this value based on mass and acceleration? // Calculate the projection velocity PVRTVec3 actingVelocity = m_velocity.project(intersection.plane.normal); m_velocity -= actingVelocity * dampeningForce; } // Take this object to its new destination position based on... // -- our pre-collision position + vector to the collision point + our new velocity after collision * time // -- remaining after the collision to finish the movement m_destPosition = m_position - intersection.diff + (m_velocity * intersection.tRemaining * GAMESTATE->dt); UpdateWorldMatrix(m_destWorldMatrix, m_destOBB, m_destPosition, false); This is MUCH better. No jitter, and the ball now "rests" at the floor, while still bouncing off the floor and walls. The ONLY thing left is that the ball is now virtually "stuck". He can move but at a much slower rate, likely because the else of my dot product test is only letting the ball move at a rate multiplied against the tRemaining... I think this is a better solution than I had previously, but still somehow not the right idea. BTW, I'm trying to journal my progress through this problem for anyone else with a similar situation - hopefully it will serve as some help, as many similar posts have for me over the years.

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  • Initializing SD card in SPI issues

    - by Sembazuru
    Sorry for the length of this question, but I thought it best to show as much detail to fend of questions asking if I had done A when I had already done A... ;-) I've had a look at the "micro-SD card initialization using SPI interface" thread and didn't see any answers that matched my issue (i.e. things I haven't already tried). I have a similar issue where I'm trying to access a SD card through a micro-controller's SPI interface (specifically an HC908). I've tried following the flow charts in the Physical Layer Simplified Specification v2.00 and it seems to initialize correctly on Transcend 1GB & 2GB and an AE&C 1GB card. But I'm having problems on 3 other random cards from my stash of old cards that I've used on my camera. My code is all HC908 assembler. I scoped out the SPI clock line and during initialization it's running about 350kHz (the only speed multiplier that the HC908 supplies at my low MCU clock speed that falls within the 100-400kHz window). Here are the results of the three cards that aren't completing my initialization routine (all done consecutively w/o changing any code or timing parameters): Canon 16Meg card (labeled as SD): Set card select high Send 80 SPI clock cycles (done by writing 0xFF 10 times) Set card select low Send CMD0 [0x400000000095] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (indicates idle) Send CMD8 [0x48000001AA87] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Because illegal command set local flag to indicate v1 or MMC card Send CMD58 [0x7A00000000FD] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) because illegal command branch to error routine Send CMD13 [0x4D000000000D] (show status buffer) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1= 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Is the illegal command flag stuck? Should I be doing something after CMD8 to clear that flag? SanDisk UltraII 256Meg Set card select high Send 80 SPI clock cycles (done by writing 0xFF 10 times) Set card select low Send CMD0 [0x400000000095] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send CMD8 [0x48000001AA87] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Because illegal command set local flag to indicate v1 or MMC card Send CMD58 [0x7A00000000FD] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send 0xFF 4 times to read OCR OCR = 0xFFFFFFFF Send CMD55 [0x770000000065] (1st part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send CMD41 [0x6900000000E5] (2nd part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Because illegal command, assume card is MMC Send CMD1 [0x4100000000F9] (for MMC) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Repeat the CMD1 50 times (my arbitrary number to wait until idle clears) Every R1 response is 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Why is OCR all F? Doesn't seem proper at all. Also, why does ACMD41 and CMD1 respond illegal command? Is CMD1 failing because the card is waiting for a valid ACMD after the CMD55 even with the illegal command response? SanDisk ExtremeIII 2G: Set card select high Send 80 SPI clock cycles (done by writing 0xFF 10 times) Set card select low Send CMD0 [0x400000000095] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send CMD8 [0x40000001AA87] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x7F (??? My loop shows the responses for each iteration and I got 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x7F... is the card getting out of sync?) Send CMD58 [0x7A00000000FD] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle and back in sync) Send 0xFF 4 times to read OCR OCR = 0x00FF80 Send CMD55 [0x770000000065] (1st part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x5F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xF0 0x5F... again out of sync?) Send CMD41 [0x6900000000E5] (2nd part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command, but back in sync???) Because illegal command, assume card is MMC Send CMD1 [0x4100000000F9] (for MMC) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x7F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x7F... again out of sync?) Repeat CMD1 and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Repeat CMD1 and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x7F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x7F... again out of sync?) Repeat CMD1 and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x00 (out of idle) Send CMD9 [0x4900000000AF] (get CSD) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x3F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x3F... again out of sync?) Code craps out because Illegal command bit is high. WTF is wrong with that card? Sometimes in sync, other times not. (The above pattern is repeatable.) I've scoped this one out and I'm not seeing any rogue clock cycles going through between MOSI/MISO transfers. Anyone have any clues? Need any more info? Thanx in advance for spending the time to read through all of this.

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  • What is the best way to bind a repeater to an AJAX response?

    - by Murtaza RC
    I am trying to bind a repeater after an AJAX response. Step 1 : Make an Ajax call to the fucntion in the code behind: Step 2 : Do some business logic and finally bind the data to the repeater Step 3 : Get the response back from the codebehind to the Ajax call Step 4 : Once we get the response back what is the right way to strip out extra HTML for example the head and body tags etc. One way is to put a "breaker" logic. for example : <html><body> #breaker REPEATER control HERE #breaker </html></body> and once I get the response back I use a JS function to find anything between the #breaker tags and strip out anything outside and I should get the required HTML response of only the repeated items. Is this the only / Best way to achieve this kind of functionality?

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  • How to pass content in response from Exception filter in Asp.net WebAPI?

    - by jaffa
    Consider following code: My problem is: 1) I can't seem to cast the errors to HttpContent 2) I can't use the CreateContent extension method as this doesn't exist on the context.Response.Content.CreateContent public class ServiceLayerExceptionFilter : ExceptionFilterAttribute { public override void OnException(HttpActionExecutedContext context) { if (context.Response == null) { var exception = context.Exception as ModelValidationException; if ( exception != null ) { var modelState = new ModelStateDictionary(); modelState.AddModelError(exception.Key, exception.Description); var errors = modelState.SelectMany(x => x.Value.Errors).Select(x => x.ErrorMessage); // Cannot cast errors to HttpContent?? // var resp = new HttpResponseMessage(HttpStatusCode.BadRequest) {Content = errors}; // throw new HttpResponseException(resp); // Cannot create response from extension method?? //context.Response.Content.CreateContent } else { context.Response = new HttpResponseMessage(context.Exception.ConvertToHttpStatus()); } } base.OnException(context); } }

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  • PDF coming as text on browser

    - by spt3210
    I am trying to display a PDF from database (byte[]) to user. I am using code below to render PDF. It is giving me PDF as binary text as shown below. Instead of open in PDF application it is rendering PDF as text. Response.Buffer = true; Response.Charset = ""; Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); //Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", fileToDownload.Length.ToString()); //Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "inline; name=RemoteUserGuide.pdf"); Response.AppendHeader("content-length", fileToDownload.Length.ToString()); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.BinaryWrite(fileToDownload); Response.Flush(); ////Response.Close(); Response.End(); Any Ideas?

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  • how do you get the response back into the instance of the object?

    - by randomdev
    If you've written a class in JavaScript that calls a remote service's API, and that remote API offers a callback, how do you get the response back into the instance of the object that made the request? I'll try to give you a very basic example FOO for making cross domain calls to BAR service which offers a callback. Please ignore the usual security concerns, (I own both servers). function FOO() { this.response = null; this.execute = function(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } this.catch = function(response) { this.response = response; } } var sample = new FOO(); sample.execute('http://barservices.com/sample/?callback={ plshelphere: this.catch}'); I have a way to make this work, but I'm curious if there is an "accepted approach" here. Anyone have thoughts for me?

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  • FTP on Linux "Failed to retrieve directory listing" not firewall issue

    - by Jaka Prasnikar
    I've got an VPS in germany running Debian X64. I have very strange issue. I have ISPConfig CP installed using proftpd and I can not connect to FTP by any means. Few hours ago I've had installed DirectAdmin on CentOS same VPS and same issue. Simply when I connect to FTP server I get these: Status: Resolving address of web02.defikon.com Status: Connecting to 130.255.190.71:21... Status: Connection established, waiting for welcome message... Response: 220---------- Welcome to Pure-FTPd [privsep] [TLS] ---------- Response: 220-You are user number 1 of 50 allowed. Response: 220-Local time is now 12:15. Server port: 21. Response: 220-This is a private system - No anonymous login Response: 220-IPv6 connections are also welcome on this server. Response: 220 You will be disconnected after 15 minutes of inactivity. Command: USER default1 Response: 331 User default1 OK. Password required Command: PASS ****** Response: 230-User default1 has group access to: client0 sshusers Response: 230 OK. Current restricted directory is / Command: OPTS UTF8 ON Response: 200 OK, UTF-8 enabled Status: Connected Status: Retrieving directory listing... Command: PWD Response: 257 "/" is your current location Command: TYPE I Response: 200 TYPE is now 8-bit binary Command: PASV Error: Connection timed out Error: Failed to retrieve directory listing I even tried telnet localhost 21 and the same happends. Once I issue command "LIST" I get time out. I've tried every thing and I can't get this to work =( Please help ! P.S.: iptables is turned off.

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  • Rewrite rule to redirect all subpages to a single page?

    - by user784637
    I have two two files /etc/apache2/sites-available/foo and /etc/apache2/sites-available/foo_maintenance The rewrite rule I use in /etc/apache2/sites-available/foo is <Directory /var/www/public_html> Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteOptions inherit RewriteEngine on # RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^mysite\.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mysite.com/$1 [R=301,L] </Directory> so that all mysite.com/* redirect to www.mysite.com After I take my site down for maintenance, if the user is navigates to a subpage of the site like mysite.com/subdir/something.php I would like to redirect them to www.mysite.com so the index.html of the maintenance page would be displayed. What is the rewrite rule to redirect all traffic from any subpage to www.mysite.com?

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  • Apache VirtualHost, multiple sites. 1 ssl with redirect and 1 regular http

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a server with one site which I am redirecting to https via <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/html/secure ServerName secure.com Redirect / https://secure.com </VirtualHost> That works no problem. Now I'm trying to add another non-secure site <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/html/notsecure ServerName notsecure.com </VirtualHost> of course, because the redirect is on '/', all sites are getting redicted. I've tried changing the Redirect to the full document root, but no luck.

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  • Why my sub-domain redirect returns a blank page?

    - by Tom Brito
    I have the domain http://dropbox.tombrito.com/ (on GoDaddy) forwarding with masking to www.dropbox.com/sh/k6ypvx4y4kf0gu6/rdjxQ1b1OL It was working fine some time ago, but now the result is a blank page (although the Dropbox's favicon appears correctly in the browser's tab title). The DNS manager shows me a single entry with the name "dropbox": A dropbox 64.202.189.170 Any idea what's wrong? Related: Why my domain redirect on Google Apps is returning 404?

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  • AS11 Oracle B2B Sync Support - Series 2

    - by sinkarbabu.kirubanithi
    In the earlier series, we discussed about how to model "Sync Support" in Oracle B2B. And, we haven't discussed how the response can be consumed synchronously by the back-end application or initiator of sync request. In this sequel, we will see how we can extend it to the SOA composite applications to model the end-to-end usecase, this would help the initiator of sync request to receive the response synchronously. Series 2 - is little lengthier for blog standards so be prepared before you continue further :). Let's start our discussion with a high-level scenario where one need to initiate a synchronous request and get response synchronously. There are various approaches available, we will see one simplest approach here. Components Involved: 1. Oracle B2B 2. Oracle JCA JMS Adapter 3. Oracle BPEL 4. All of the above are wrapped up in a single SOA composite application. Oracle B2B: Skipping the "Sync Support" setup part in B2B, as we have already discussed that in the earlier series 1. Here we have provided "Sync Support" samples that can be imported to B2B directly and users can start testing the same in few minutes. Initiator Sample: This requires two JMS queues to be created, one for B2B to receive initial outbound sync request and the other is for B2B to deliver the incoming sync response to the back-end. Please enable "Use JMS Id" option in both internal listening and delivery channels. This would enable JCA JMS Adapter to correlate the initial B2B request and response and in turn it would be returned as synchronous response of BPEL. Internal Listening Channel Image: Internal Delivery Channel Image: To get going without much challenges, just create queues in Weblogic with the JNDI mentioned in the above two screenshots. If you want to use different names, then you may have to change the queue jndi names in sample after importing it into B2B. Here are the Queue related JNDI names used in the sample, 1. Internal Listening Channel Queue details, Name: JNDI Name: jms/b2b/syncreplyqueue 2. Internal Delivery Channel Queue details, Name: JNDI Name: jms/b2b/syncrequestqueue Here is the Initiator Sample Acme.zip Note: You may have to adjust the ip address of GlobalChips endpoint in the Delivery Channel. Responder Sample: Contains B2B meta-data and the Callout. Just import the sample and place the callout binary under "/tmp/callout" directory. If you choose to use a different location for callout, then you may have to change the same in B2B Configuration after importing the sample. Here are the artifacts, 1. Callout Source SampleCallout.java 2. Callout Binary sample-callout.jar 3. Responder Sample GlobalChips.zip Callout Details: Just gives the static response XML that needs to be sent back as response for the inbound sync request. For a sample purpose, we have given static response but in production you may have to invoke a web service or something similar to get the response. IMPORTANT NOTE: For Sync Support use case, responder is not expected to deliver the inbound sync request to backend as the process of delivering and getting the response from backend are expected from the Callout. This default behavior can be overridden by enabling the config property "b2b.SyncAppDelivery=true" in B2B config mbean (b2b-config.xml). This makes B2B to deliver the inbound sync request to be delivered to backend queue but the response to be sent to remote caller still has to come from Callout. 2. Oracle JCA JMS Adapter: On the initiator side, we have used JCA JMS Request/Reply pattern to send/receive the synchronous message from B2B. 3. Oracle BPEL: Exposes WS-SOAP Endpoint that takes payload as input and passes the same to B2B and returns the synchronous response of B2B as SOAP response. For outside world, it looks as if it is the synchronous web service endpoint but under the cover it uses JMS to trigger/initiate B2B to send and receive the synchronous response. 4. Composite application: All the components discussed above are wired in SOA composite application that helps to model a end-to-end synchronous use case. Here's the composite application sca_B2BSyncSample_rev1.0.jar, you may just deploy this to your AS11 SOA to make use of it. For any editing, you can just import the project in your JDEV under any SOA Application. Here are the composite application screenshots, Composite Application: BPEL With JCA JMS Adapter (Request/Reply):

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  • ASP.NET csv excel issue with strange characters

    - by cfdev9
    I'm exporting a table of data to csv format, eg "COL1","COL2","COL3" "1","some text", "£232.00" "2","some more text", "£111.00" "3","other text", "£2.00" The code to export is fairly simple using an ashx handler context.Response.Clear() context.Response.ContentType = "text/csv" context.Response.AddHeader("Content-disposition", "attachment;filename=data.csv") context.Response.AddHeader("Cache-Control", "must-revalidate") context.Response.AddHeader("Pragma", "must-revalidate") context.Response.Write(data) context.Response.Flush() context.Response.End() My issue is when excel trys to open the exported file the character  appears before all £ signs, eg £232.00 when the value should be £232.00

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  • ASP.NET: How can I properly redirect requests with 404 errors?

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I'd like my ASP.NET MVC application to redirect failed requests to matching action methods of a certain controller. This works fine on my development machine running Windows 7, but not on my production machine running Windows 2008 R2. I set up my web.config as follows: <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="/Error/ServerError/500"> <error statusCode="403" redirect="/Error/AccessDenied" /> <error statusCode="404" redirect="/Error/FileNotFound" /> </customErrors> This customErrors section works fine on both of my machines (production and development) for 500 Internal Server errors. It also works fine for 404 errors on my development machine. However, it does not properly redirect 404 errors on the production machine. Instead of /Error/FileNotFound, I get the standard 404 page that comes with IIS 7. What could be the problem here?

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  • Redirect all access requests to a domain and subdomain(s) except from specific IP address? [closed]

    - by Christopher
    This is a self-answered question... After much wrangling I found the magic combination of mod_rewrite rules so I'm posting here. My scenario is that I have two domains - domain1.com and domain2.com - both of which are currently serving identical content (by way of a global 301 redirect from domain1 to domain2). Domain1 was then chosen to be repurposed to be a 'portal' domain - with a corporate CMS-based site leading off from the front page, and the existing 'retail' domain (domain2) left to serve the main web site. In addition, a staging subdomain was created on domain1 in order to prepare the new corporate site without impinging on the root domain's existing operation. I contemplated just rewriting all requests to domain2 and setting up the new corporate site 'behind the scenes' without using a staging domain, but I usually use subdomains when setting up new sites. Finally, I required access to the 'actual' contents of the domains and subdomains - i.e., to not be redirected like all other visitors - in order that I can develop the new site and test it in the staging environment on the live server, as I'm not using a separate development webserver in this case. I also have another test subdomain on domain1 which needed to be preserved. The way I eventually set it up was as follows: (10.2.2.1 would be my home WAN IP) .htaccess in root of domain1 RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REMOTE_ADDR} !^10\.2\.2\.1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^staging.domain1.com$ [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^staging2.domain1.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain2.com/$1 [R=301] .htaccess in staging subdomain on domain1: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REMOTE_ADDR} !^10\.2\.2\.1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^staging.revolver.coop$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain2.com/$1 [R=301,L] The multiple .htaccess files and multiple rulesets require more processing overhead and longer iteration as the visitor is potentially redirected twice, however I find it to be a more granular method of control as I can selectively allow more than one IP address access to individual staging subdomain(s) without automatically granting them access to everything else. It also keeps the rulesets fairly simple and easy to read. (or re-interpret, because I'm always forgetting how I put rules together!) If anybody can suggest a more efficient way of merging all these rules and conditions into just one main ruleset in the root of domain1, please post! I'm always keen to learn, this post is more my attempt to preserve this information for those who are looking to redirect entire domains for all visitors except themselves (for design/testing purposes) and not just denying specific file access for maintenance mode (there are many good examples of simple mod_rewrite rules for 'maintenance mode' style operation easily findable via Google). You can also extend the IP address detection - firstly by using wildcards ^10\.2\.2\..*: the last octet's \..* denotes the usual "." and then "zero or more arbitrary characters", signified by the .* - so you can specify specific ranges of IPs in a subnet or entire subnets if you wish. You can also use square brackets: ^10\.2\.[1-255]\.[120-140]; ^10\.2\.[1-9]?[0-9]\.; ^10\.2\.1[0-1][0-9]\. etc. The third way, if you wish to specify multiple discrete IP addresses, is to bracket them in the style of ^(1.1.1.1|2.2.2.2|3.3.3.3)$, and you can of course use square brackets to substitute octets or single digits again. NB: if you're using individual RewriteCond lines to specify multiple IPs / ranges, make sure to put [OR] at the end of each one otherwise mod_rewrite will interpret as "if IP address matches 1.1.1.1 AND if IP address matches 2.2.2.2... which is of course impossible! However as far as I'm aware this isn't necessary if you're using the ! negator to specify "and is not...". Kudos also to SE: this older question also came in useful when I was verifying my own knowledge prior to my futzing around with code. This page was helpful, as were the various other links posted below (can't hyperlink them all due to spam protection... other regex checkers are available). The AddedBytes cheat sheet's useful to pin up on your wall. Other referenced URLs: internetofficer.com/seo-tool/regex-tester/ fantomaster.com/faarticles/rewritingurls.txt internetofficer.com/seo-tool/regex-tester/ addedbytes.com/cheat-sheets/mod_rewrite-cheat-sheet/

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  • How to enable ufw firewall to allow icmp response?

    - by Jeremy Hajek
    I have a series of Ubuntu 10.04 servers and each one has ufw firewall enabled. I have allowed port 22 (for SSH) and 80 (if it's a webserver). My question is that I am trying to enable icmp echo response (ping reply). ICMP functions differently than other protocols--I know it is below the IP level in a technical sense. You can just type sudo ufw allow 22, but you cannot type sudo ufw allow icmp How should attack this problem?

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  • Nginx redirect requests to sub-domains that do not exist to custom 404 page when wild card A record is set?

    - by Anagio
    Is there a way to capture all requests to arbitrary sub-domains which do not have a virtual host setup, and redirect to a custom 404 page in nginx? I will have a wild card A record setup *.example.com and all our users will have a sub-domain username.example.com. If someone enters a sub-domain which does not exist how can I redirect to a custom 404 page rather than have it resolve since wild card is setup?

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  • Using proxy server to redirect MySQL traffic to multiple servers using standard port?

    - by FrenchFry
    Is it possible to redirect MySQL (tcp) traffic to multiple servers based on domain name alone? Our DNS is setup to point several sub-domain aliases to one proxy machine. (running haproxy and iptables). We would like to redirect all database traffic through this proxy server and route it to the appropriate db server, WITHOUT deviating from the standard MySQL port. dev.domain1.com:3306 -- dbDevServer.domain1.com:3306 test.domain1.com:3306 -- dbTestServer.domain1.com:3306 prod.domain1.com:3306 -- dbProdServer.domain1.com:3306 Thanks!

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  • IIS7 Windows Server 2008 FTP -> Response: 530 User cannot log in.

    - by RSolberg
    I just launched my first IIS FTP site following many of the tutorials from IIS.NET... I'm using IIS Users and Permissions rather than anonymous and/or basic. This is what I'm seeing while trying to establish the connection... Status: Resolving address of ftp.mydomain.com Status: Connecting to ###.###.##.###:21... Status: Connection established, waiting for welcome message... Response: 220 Microsoft FTP Service Command: USER MyFTPUser Response: 331 Password required for MyFTPUser. Command: PASS ******************** Response: 530 User cannot log in. Error: Critical error Error: Could not connect to server

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  • Why does iis produce 500 response on all requests?

    - by HMR
    In IIS 7.5 on Windows webserver 2008 I get a 500 response on any request. Checking in firebug if I'm being forwarded but the request is made and no forwarding, just get 500 response with a page that looks like Symfony response page. Disabled all url re writes and requested index.html (still get 500) checked error pages under featured settings and detailed errors is checked. Checked the php error log and no writes have been made for several days. I think someone has fiddled with the IIS server settings and got it to return 500 for any request (even locally) but I'm not able to find what it is. [UPDATE] While I was writing this and listing things I've tried I tried selecting detailed error messages at the root node, not the site node. Looks like some idiot changed file permissions so that IIS can no longer read the config file.

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  • Why does Google report a soft 404 when I redirect to the signup page?

    - by Hettomei
    In the last month, I've got an increased number of "soft 404" errors reported by Google webmaster tools which actually work well for users. Configuration (maybe useless): I have a website built with rails 3.1 Authentication is handled by the gem Devise Problem: On this page http://en.bemyboat.com/yacht-charter/9965-sailboat-beneteau-oceanis-43 Click on "Ask a Boat request" (a simple form, in GET to: http://en.bemyboat.com/boat_requests/new/9965) You are redirected with the HTTP status 302 to sign in You are then sent back to the new page if successfully sign in. Google tells me that the link on "ask a boat request" returns a soft 404. I can't make this form in "POST" (which will solve the problem) because we need to automatically redirect users back to the page after sign in. (the Gem Devise memorizes the "get" link.) To simplify, the question is: How to protect a private page with authentication, reached with a simple "GET" and not to be penalized by Google as a "soft 404".

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  • Should the English website use href="x-default" when it doesn't auto-redirect to the user's language or country?

    - by Noam
    For each URL on my site, I'm auto-redirecting according to header accept language. The site arch is English version: http://mydomain.com/page Spanish version http://es.mydomaina.com/page etc.. The english version is displayed unless I'm seeing a specific language other than en and that I support in the header, and then a redirect occurs. Google says this: For language/country selectors or auto-redirecting homepages, you should add an annotation for the hreflang value "x-default" as well: My pages aren't language selectors, nor are they the homepage. But I am auto-redirecting. My question is, should my english version be hreflang="x-default" or/and hrefland="en"?

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