Search Results

Search found 3040 results on 122 pages for 'detail'.

Page 95/122 | < Previous Page | 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102  | Next Page >

  • How do I write this SQL statement to get the ad and posting? (PHP/MySQL)

    - by ggfan
    I am a little confused on the logic of how to write this SQL statement. When a user clicks on a tag, say HTML, it would display all the posts with HTML as its tag. (a post can have multiple tags) I have three tables: Posting--posting_id, title, detail, etc tags--tagID, tagname postingtag--posting_id, tagID I want to display all the title of the post and the date added. global $dbc; $tagID=$_GET['tagID']; //the GET is set by URL //part I need help with. I need another WHERE statment to get to the posting table $query = "SELECT p.title,p.date_added, t.tagname FROM posting as p, postingtag as pt, tags as t WHERE t.tagID=$tagID"; $data = mysqli_query($dbc, $query); echo '<table>'; echo '<tr><td><b>Title</b></td><td><b>Date Posted</b></td></tr>'; while ($row = mysqli_fetch_array($data)) { echo '<tr><td>'.$row['title'].'</td>'; echo '<td>'.$row['date_added'].'</td></tr>'; } echo '</table>'; }

    Read the article

  • Rewriting jQuery to plain old javascript - are the performance gains worth it?

    - by Swader
    Since jQuery is an incredibly easy and banal library, I've developed a rather complex project fairly quickly with it. The entire interface is jQuery based, and memory is cleaned regularly to maintain optimum performance. Everything works very well in Firefox, and exceptionally so in Chrome (other browsers are of no concern for me as this is not a commercial or publicly available product). What I'm wondering now is - since pure plain old javascript is really not a complicated language to master, would it be performance enhancing to rewrite the whole thing in plain old JS, and if so, how much of a boost would you expect to get from it? If the answers prove positive enough, I'll go ahead and do it, run a benchmark and report back with the precise findings. Cheers Edit: Thanks guys, valuable insight. The purpose was not to "re-invent the wheel" - it was just for experience and personal improvement. Just because something exists, doesn't mean you shouldn't explore it into greater detail, know how it works or try to recreate it. This is the same reason I seldom use frameworks, I would much rather use my own code and iron it out and gain massive experience doing it, than start off by using someone else's code, regardless of how ironed out it is. Anyway, won't be doing it, thanks for saving me the effort :)

    Read the article

  • Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

    - by zpasternack
    I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

    Read the article

  • Image in table cell doesn't scale down: using ie8/7

    - by monks1975
    Can anyone help me troubleshoot my website? http://www.andrewstonyer.co.uk/test/ My problem: On IE8/7 if you click on a thumbnail (only 'Pulse' and 'Time Within The Hour' are wired in right now) an overlay appears with detail of that piece. What should happen, and does in Gecko/Webkit, is that the overlay contains a table with a heading, a scaled, centered image, and a nav menu. There is a toggle for text, which pushes up the image cell and makes the image smaller, keeping proportion. I know the overlay looks like ass right now- those are just placeholder colours :) On IE, the image doesn't fit perfectly in the table cell, which means that everything is pushed down outside the window. I can't see the nav menu. It appears to render the image at actual pixel size (in the CSS, the img class element is set to 100% height). The text cell is toggled with jquery, when toggled on in IE, it doesn't appear to 'squeeze' the above cell, which is what I want to happen. Could any experts help? Regards, Jon

    Read the article

  • Telerik chart not loading correctly in new window (ajax issue?)

    - by Phillip Schmidt
    I have a page which contains user controls with Telerik Charts (grids also, but they work fine). From this page, the user can click on a button to be redirected to a "Printer-Friendly Version" type page, which opens a new window via javascript and goes through a slightly different view (for formatting and stuff), but the telerik code is all the same. The problem is, my Chart displays just fine in the original window, but the new window displays basically an empty chart with no data. This bug is only present in IE, and only applies to Charts. Grids work fine, for whatever reason. I'm thinking this is due to differences in script caching between browsers -- correct me if I'm wrong, I'm semi-new to client-directed web development. Anyway I read somewhere that Telerik has issues with loading data and/or js files when loaded via ajax, so maybe that's the problem? If so, how could I get around this? And if not, any ideas on what could be causing this issue? It's causing me a great deal of frustration, since a print preview page seems like it should be the easiest of jobs. Edit: The charts are being rendered as html (if somebody can explain how to render them as images, that would be awesome). And dev tools shows basically the same thing between chrome and IE. Whenever my web service goes back up ill WinMerge them and look for any peculiarities/differences between them. In the mean time, though, the "render as an image" concept sounds promising. That way I could just save the image from the first page, and insert it right into the print preview page, right?. And since it's a print-preview page, it's not going to need to be interactive or anything, so that'd work out nicely. Another (important) Edit: These are probably the culprit... And here is a little more detail on that: And here is a side-by-side of it working(in chrome) and not working (in IE):

    Read the article

  • How do i integrate paypal in my website? Java

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I want to integrate paypal in my java web application. I saw that they offer many methods to accomplish this. But i want my visitors to remain on my site only. My friend told me that Paypal offers webservice. But i can't seem to find any documentation on Paypal site. If anybody could help me with this, i would be really very grateful. Please offer me the relevant links on Paypal where i could read and get my things done. Secondly, my friend also told me that we need to give location to paypal where my visitors would be redirected once paypal payment is complete. But i am confused. I am working on localhost. How would Paypal know about my localhost? I have already created my sandbox testing account. What should be my next step. Please explain me in detail. I don't know anything about Paypal. Once i created a demo application of Express checkout where they give a simple button of Pay Now and on clicking on it shopping cart etc appears. But now i want my visitors to stay on same website. Thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Force orientation change in testcase with fragments

    - by user1202032
    I have an Android test project in which I wish to programatically change the orientation. My test: public class MainActivityLandscapeTest extends ActivityInstrumentationTestCase2<MainActivity> { public MainActivityLandscapeTest() { super(MainActivity.class); } private MainActivity mActivity; private Fragment mDetailFragment; private Fragment mListFragment; private Solo mSolo; @Override protected void setUp() throws Exception { super.setUp(); mSolo = new Solo(getInstrumentation(), getActivity()); mSolo.setActivityOrientation(Solo.LANDSCAPE); mActivity = getActivity(); mListFragment = (Fragment) mActivity.getSupportFragmentManager() .findFragmentById(R.id.listFragment); mDetailFragment = (Fragment) mActivity.getSupportFragmentManager() .findFragmentById(R.id.detailFragment); } public void testPreConditions() { assertTrue(mActivity != null); assertTrue(mSolo != null); assertTrue(mListFragment != null); assertTrue(getActivity().getResources().getConfiguration().orientation == Configuration.ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE); } /** * Only show detailFragment in landscape mode */ public void testOrientation() { assertTrue(mListFragment.isVisible()); assertTrue(mDetailFragment.isVisible()); } } The layouts for the activity is in seperate folders, layout-port and layout-land layout-port fragment_main.xml layout-land fragment_main.xml In landscape mode, the layout contains 2 fragments (Detail and list) while in portrait it contains 1(List only). If the device/emulator is already in landscape mode before testing begins, this test passes. If in portrait, it fails with a NullPointerException on mListFragment and mDetailFragment. Adding a delay (waitForIdleSync() and/or waitForActivity()) did NOT seem to solve my problem. How do i force the orientation to landscape in my test, while still being able to find the fragments using findFragmentById()?

    Read the article

  • Ajax Request using jQuery in Rails

    - by Steve
    Hi... I am sending an Ajax Request using jQuery. What happens is that I am getting an "405 Method Not Allowed" Error. I am just posting a form, which would get the detail from the form and insert it into the DB. Just the usual stuff.I am using WEBrick that comes as default with the rails package. Can somebody please tell me how to fix this. This is the code that triggers the Ajax Request $.post($(this).attr("action") + ".js",$(this).serialize(),null,"script"); Response Headers Cache-Control no-cache Allow GET, PUT, DELETE Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 9502 Server WEBrick/1.3.1 (Ruby/1.9.1/2009-12-07) Date Wed, 02 Jun 2010 20:41:33 GMT Connection Keep-Alive Request Headers Host localhost:3000 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://localhost:3000/viewspot/3 Content-Length 141 Pragma no-cache Cache-Control no-cache

    Read the article

  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

    Read the article

  • How do I pass an NSString through 3 ViewControllers?

    - by dBloc
    hey, I'm currently using the iPhone SDK and I'm having trouble passing an NSString through 3 views I am able to pass an NSString between 2 view controllers but I am unable to pass it through another one. My code is as follows... `- (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)index`Path { NSString *string1 = nil; NSDictionary *dictionary = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *array = [dictionary objectForKey:@"items"]; string1 = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Initialize the detail view controller and display it. ViewController2 *vc2 = [[ViewController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; vc2.string1 = string1; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; [vc2 release]; vc2 = nil; } in the "ViewController 2" implementations I am able use "string1" in the title bar by doing the following.... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationItem.title = string1; UIBarButtonItem *addButton = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_time.png"] style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain //style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(goToThirdView)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = addButton; } but I also have a NavBar Button on the right side that I would like to push a new view - (void)goToThirdView { ViewController3 *vc3 = [[ViewController3 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController3" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:NESW animated:YES]; vc3.string1 = string1 ; [vc3 release]; vc3 = nil; } How do I pass on that same string to the third view? (or fourth)

    Read the article

  • Get information from WebPage.

    - by william-hu
    I want to set up an app which can get the information from a particular web page. Then i display the value which got from that page to the iPhone user. Detail:In the webpage on server ,there is the schedule for bus time. If the user input origin and terminus then show the user the time information(list on webpage) in a label. That's all. What i have finished is : Open the iphone app, input two value(origin and terminus) to UITextField. Send the URL to server. Get the page, and show in UIWebView. What my problem next is how should i get the information form that page into another two labels to give the user about the bus time. I have store data in my Array receiveData: self.receivedData = data; I am not clear the data i received is XML or what? And how should i pick-up the value i want. (should i save the value to property list and the read the value?) Thank you so much!

    Read the article

  • Why does the WCF 3.5 REST Starter Kit do this?

    - by Brandon
    I am setting up a REST endpoint that looks like the following: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", UriTemplate = "?format=json", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] and [WebInvoke(Method = "DELETE", UriTemplate = "?token={token}&format=json", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] The above throws the following error: UriTemplateTable does not support '?format=json' and '?token={token}&format=json' since they are not equivalent, but cannot be disambiguated because they have equivalent paths and the same common literal values for the query string. See the documentation for UriTemplateTable for more detail. I am not an expert at WCF, but I would imagine that it should map first by the HTTP Method and then by the URI Template. It appears to be backwards. If both of my URI templates are: ?token={token}&format=json This works because they are equivalent and it then appears to look at the HTTP Method where one is POST and the other is DELETE. Is REST supposed to work this way? Why are the URI Template Tables not being sorted first by HTTP Method and then by URI Template? This can cause some serious frustrations when 1 HTTP Method requires a parameter and another does not, or if I want to do optional parameters (e.g. if the 'format' parameter is not passed, default to XML).

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

    - by alex
    Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

    Read the article

  • OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between these two linq implementations?

    - by Mahesh Velaga
    I was going through Jon Skeet's Reimplemnting Linq to Objects series. In the implementation of where article, I found the following snippets, but I don't get what is the advantage that we are gettting by splitting the original method into two. Original Method: // Naive validation - broken! public static IEnumerable<TSource> Where<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { if (source == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("source"); } if (predicate == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("predicate"); } foreach (TSource item in source) { if (predicate(item)) { yield return item; } } } Refactored Method: public static IEnumerable<TSource> Where<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { if (source == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("source"); } if (predicate == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("predicate"); } return WhereImpl(source, predicate); } private static IEnumerable<TSource> WhereImpl<TSource>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, bool> predicate) { foreach (TSource item in source) { if (predicate(item)) { yield return item; } } } Jon says - Its for eager validation and then defferring for the rest of the part. But, I don't get it. Could some one please explain it in a little more detail, whats the difference between these 2 functions and why will the validations be performed in one and not in the other eagerly? Conclusion/Solution: I got confused due to my lack of understanding on which functions are determined to be iterator-generators. I assumed that, it is based on signature of a method like IEnumerable<T>. But, based on the answers, now I get it, a method is an iterator-generator if it uses yield statements.

    Read the article

  • SSE (SIMD extensions) support in gcc

    - by goldenmean
    Hi, I see a code as below: include "stdio.h" #define VECTOR_SIZE 4 typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); // vector of four single floats typedef union f4vector { v4sf v; float f[VECTOR_SIZE]; } f4vector; void print_vector (f4vector *v) { printf("%f,%f,%f,%f\n", v->f[0], v->f[1], v->f[2], v->f[3]); } int main() { union f4vector a, b, c; a.v = (v4sf){1.2, 2.3, 3.4, 4.5}; b.v = (v4sf){5., 6., 7., 8.}; c.v = a.v + b.v; print_vector(&a); print_vector(&b); print_vector(&c); } This code builds fine and works expectedly using gcc (it's inbuild SSE / MMX extensions and vector data types. this code is doing a SIMD vector addition using 4 single floats. I want to understand in detail what does each keyword/function call on this typedef line means and does: typedef float v4sf __attribute__ ((vector_size(sizeof(float)*VECTOR_SIZE))); What is the vector_size() function return; What is the __attribute__ keyword for Here is the float data type being type defined to vfsf type? I understand the rest part. thanks, -AD

    Read the article

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

  • Is excessive DataTable usage bad?

    - by Justin R.
    I was recently asked to assist another team in building an ASP .NET website. They already have a significant amount of code written -- I was specifically asked build a few individual pages for the site. While exploring the code for the rest of the site, the amount of DataTables being constructed jumped out at me. Being a relatively new in the field, I've never worked on an application that utilizes a database as much as this site does, so I'm not sure how common this is. It seems that whenever data is queried from our database, the results are stored in a DataTable. This DataTable is then usually passed around by itself, or it's passed to a constructor. Classes that are initialized with a DataTable always assign the DataTable to a private/protected field, however only a few of these classes implement IDisposable. In fact, in the thousands of lines of code that I've browsed so far, I have yet to see the Dispose method called on a DataTable. If anything, this doesn't seem to be good OOP. Is this something that I should worry about? Or am I just paying more attention to detail than I should? Assuming you're most experienced developers than I am, how would you feel or react if someone who was just assigned to help you with your site approached you about this "problem"?

    Read the article

  • How can several different datatypes be saved in one table

    - by poseidon
    This is my situation: I am constructing an ad-like application in Django and Mysql. I am using a flexible-ad approach where we have: a table with ad categories (several categories such as home, furniture, cars, etc.) id_category name a table with details for the ad categories (home: area, squared meters. car: seats, color.) id_detail id_category (the categ the detail describes) name type (boolean, char, int, long, etc.) the ad table (i am selling a house. i am selling a car.) id_ad id_category text date a table where i plan to consolidate the details of the ads (home: A-area, 500 sq-meters. car: 5 seats, red.) id_detail_ad id_ad id_detail value Is this possible? Can I have a table of details for all the ads, even if details include numbers, texts, booleans, etc? Or would I have to save them all as text and then interpret them via code accordingly? Please express your opinions. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How do I refer to a windows form control by name (C# / VB)

    - by Alex
    Suppose I have a label control on a windows form called "UserName". How can I refer to that label programmatically using the label name? For example I can do: For each ctrl as Control in TabPage.Controls If ctrl.Name = "UserName" Then ' Do something End If Next This seems quite inefficient. I would like to do something like: TabPage.Controls("UserName").Text = "Something" I did some googling but couldn't find a satisfactory answer. Most suggested looping, some said .NET 2005 doesn't support direct refenece using string name, and FindControl method was asp.net only... EDIT Thanks for the response so far. Here is a bit more detail. I have a windows form with three tabpages, all of which a very similar in design and function i.e. same drop down menus, labels, react in simlar way to events etc. Rather than write code for each event per tabpage I have built a class that controls the events etc. per tabpage. For example, on each tabpage there is a Label called "RecordCounter" that simply shows the number of rows in the datagridview when it is populated by selection of a variable in a drop down menu. So what I want to be able to do is, upon selection of a variable in the drop down menu, the datagridview populates itself with data, and then I simply want to display the number of rows in a label ("RecordCounter"). This is exactly the same process on each tabpage so what I am doing is passing the tabpage to the class and then I want to be able to refer to the "RecordCounter" and then update it. In my class I set the ActivePage property to be the TabPage that the user has selected and then want to be able to do something like: ActivePage.RecordCounter.Text = GetNumberOfRows()

    Read the article

  • Sql Server 2005 Database Tables - Row Comparison Column By Column.

    - by Goober
    Scenario I have an TWO datbase tables of exactly the SAME STRUCTURE. The difference between these tables is that one contains data populated by one application and the other is populated by a different application. Each application is trying to produce the same result, but using two different methods of implementation. Proposed Idea What I want to do, is run both applications, which will roughly produce 35000 rows containing 10 columns each - So all in all, 70000 rows of data, I then want to compare each row of data, COLUMN BY COLUMN to check whether the values are the same or not. Current Thoughts Since there is so much data to compare, I feel that the best way in which to do this would be to write an application, preferably in C# (but if necessary, T-sql), to compare each row of data column by column, and write out any failed comparisons to a text log file. Question Could anybody suggest an efficient way in which to perform column by column row comparison for 70000 rows worth of data? I'm struggling for ideas on how to tackle this problem. Extra Detail The two applications are both written in C# .Net 3.5. The Database is running on Sql Server 2005. Help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Need advanced mod_rewrite assistance

    - by user1647719
    This is driving me bananas. I have tried multiple fixes, and have even found a generator (generateit.net/mod-rewrite/) to create my .htaccess files, but I cannot get this to work. The .htaccess file is being read - if I put garbage characters in, I get a 500 server error. Also, mod rewrite was working in a simpler format, but the client wants even more SEO, so here I am. My intention: Take the url of brinkofdesign.com/portfolio/123/456/some_seo_text.html and send it to brinkofdesign.com/brink_portfolio.php?catid=123&locationid=456. The full contents of my .htaccess file are: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^portfolio([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)\.html$ /portfolio_brink.php?catid=$1&locationid=$2&page=$3 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^(.*)blog(.+)([0-9+])(.+).html$ blog.php?blogid=$3 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^blog.xml$ blogfeed.php The blog and blogfeed parts work fine. If it matters, I do have an actual portfolio.php page - could this be breaking it? There is no actual /portfolio/ folder - this is just part of the SEO nme. Also, the host is 1and1.com. Real life tests: brinkofdesign.com/portfolio/1/1/birmingham_al_corporate_branding.html loads my actual portfolio.php page - which is supposed to be a landing page for the portfolio, as opposed to the brink_portfolio.php page, which is my detail record page. No variables are passed (echoing out the contents of the $_GET array gives an empty array). Typing in an non SEO link like brinkofdesign.com/brink_portfolio.php?catid=1&locationid=1 does work correctly. Gurus, please help me!

    Read the article

  • Local Network - Windows 7 and Vista can't see each other

    - by ca8msm
    I've got a strange issue at home that has been bugging me for weeks, but I really need to get it sorted now so I'll detail as much as I can and hopefully someone can spot what might might be wrong. I have a wireless router connected to the internet and 3 devices connected to it. They are: Name OS Network IPv4 PC1 Windows 7 WORKGROUP 192.168.2.2 LAPTOP1 Vista WORKGROUP 192.168.2.3 PS3 192.168.2.4 and they all get their IP addresses dynamically. Both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping PS3 and get a response. PC1 and LAPTOP1 are unable to ping each other by ip address unless I ping by their name (which bizarrely shows that it is pinging via the IPv6 address). Also, to confirm this both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping each other via the long IPv6 address that they both have so they can obviously see each other just not via IPv4. I've disabled the firewalls on both machines as well to rule that out. I don't really know what IPv6 is used for and I've tried disabling it on both machines but all that happens then is that neither machine can see each other at all then. Does anyone have any idea of what may be stopping them seeing each other, any ways I can look at fixing this, or any network tools that may help identify where it is failing? Thanks, Mark

    Read the article

  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

    Read the article

  • Concrete examples of state sharing between multiple viewmodels (WPF MVVM)

    - by JohnMetta
    I have a WPF/Entity Framework (4.0) project with many objects. I'd like to build the application so that that I can have object selection state shared across viewmodels. For Example: We have Cars, Drivers, Passengers, and Cargo classes. We also have UserControls for CarList, DriverList, etc. and editor windows for CarEditor, DriverEditor, etc. Furthermore, we have viewmodels for all of these (CarListViewModel, DriverListViewModel, CargoEditorViewModel, etc). This all composes a dockable interface where the user can have multiple object lists, editors, and viewers open. What I want is a concrete code example of how to wireup multiple viewmodels so that selecting a car in the CarList will cause that car to go live in the CarEditorView, but also be selected in any other view for which the context is valid (such as a DriverByCarView- or just DriverList if there is a filter predicate). There are a number of suggestions and discussions based on this question. The two methods that seem to dominate are: 3018307: Discusses state sharing by mentioning a messaging subsystem 1159035: Discusses state sharing by using an enclosing viewmodel Is one of these approaches better than the other? Does anyone have a concrete example of either/both of these methods in the form of a write-up or small code project? I'm still learning WPF, so pointers to entry points for reading API fundamentals are appreciated, but looking at code examples is where I usually go. Thanks In case anyone is interested, here are some other similar discussions: 3816961: Discusses returning multiple viewmodels depending on object type (i.e. a collection of arbitrary types adhering to a specific interface) 1928130: Discusses whether it is a good idea to aggregate viewmodels as properties of other viewmodels (e.g. a MainWindow viewmodel composed of panel viewmodels) 1120061: Essentially discusses whether to have use a viewmodel-per-model strategy or a viewmodel-per-view-element strategy. 4244222: Discusses whether or not to nest the viewmodels when using a nested object hierarchy. 4429708: Discusses sharing collections between viewmodels directly, but doesn't go into detail. List item: Discusses managing multiple selections within a single viewmodel.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102  | Next Page >