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  • Where to start when doing a Domain Model?

    - by devoured elysium
    Let's say I've made a list of concepts I'll use to draw my Domain Model. Furthermore, I have a couple of Use Cases from which I did a couple of System Sequence Diagrams. When drawing the Domain Model, I never know where to start from: Designing the model as I believe the system to be. This is, if I am modelling a the human body, I start by adding the class concepts of Heart, Brain, Bowels, Stomach, Eyes, Head, etc. Start by designing what the Use Cases need to get done. This is, if I have a Use Case which is about making the human body swallow something, I'd first draw the class concepts for Mouth, Throat, Stomatch, Bowels, etc. The order in which I do things is irrelevant? I'd say probably it'd be best to try to design from the Use Case concepts, as they are generally what you want to work with, not other kind of concepts that although help describe the whole system well, much of the time might not even be needed for the current project. Is there any other approach that I am not taking in consideration here? How do you usually approach this? Thanks

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • MySQL to SQL Server ODBC Connector?

    - by Scott C.
    My boss wants to have data in MySQL DBs used for our website to be "linked and synced" with a Financial Server that has its DB in SQL Server. Sooooo...even though I have no idea how to accomplish this, this just sounds like an absolute nightmare especially since the MySQL DB is most likely going to be hosted in the cloud and not on a machine next to the Financial Server. Any ideas how to accomplish this? (within reason?) Also, his big thing is he wants to basically pull up the data from any record a user enters and using data pulled from that do all sorts of calculations using ANOTHER program that stores its data (apparently) in SQL Server. Thinking of all the data I might have to convert makes me very uneasy. Please tell a ODBC eliminates complicated junk like this. :/ I'm trying to talk him into just having MySQL do a nightly dump into a CSV file or something and using that (rather than connector) to update the SQL Server DBs. I guess I'm just not that comfortable with a server and/or programming I have no say over being connected DIRECTLY to my MySQL DB for the website. If there's no good answer for this, can anyone offer a suggestion as to what I can say to talk him out of this? (I'm a low-level IT guy w/ a decent grasp on programming...but I'm no expert - should I try to push this off to a seasoned IT pro?) Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I bind to a custom view in Cocoa using Xcode 4?

    - by Newt
    I'm a beginner when it comes to writing Mac apps and working with Cocoa, so please forgive my ignorance. I'm looking to create a custom view, that exposes some properties, which I can then bind to an NSObjectController. Since it's a custom view, the Bindings Inspector obviously doesn't list any of the properties I've added to the view that I can then bind to using Interface Builder. After turning to the Stackoverflow/Google for help, I've stumbled across a couple of possible solutions, but neither seem to be quite right for my situation. The first suggested creating an IBPlugin, which would then mean my bindings would be available in the Bindings Inspector. I could then bind the view to the controller using IB. Apparently IBPlugins aren't supported in Xcode 4, so that one's out the window. I'm also assuming (maybe wrongly) that IBPlugins are no longer supported because there's a better way of doing such things these days? The second option was to bind the controller to the view programmatically. I'm a bit confused as to exactly how I would achieve this. Would it require subclassing NSObjectController so I can add the calls to bind to the view? Would I need to add anything to the view to support this? Some examples I've seen say you'd need to override the bind method, and others say you don't. Also, I've noticed that some example custom views call [self exposeBinding:@"bindingName"] in the initializer. From what I gather from various sources, this is something that's related to IBPlugins and isn't something I need to do if I'm not using them. Is that correct? I've found a post on Stackoverflow here which seems to discuss something very similar to my problem, but there wasn't any clear winner as to the best answer. The last comment by noa on 12th Sept seems interesting, although they mention you should be calling exposeBinding:. Is this comment along the right track? Is the call to exposeBinding really necessary? Apologies for any dumb questions. Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • Can you stop a defered callback in jquery 1.5?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am wondering say you have something like this // Assign handlers immediately after making the request, // and remember the jqxhr object for this request var jqxhr = $.ajax({ url: "example.php" }) .success(function(response) { alert("success"); }) // perform other work here ... // Set another success function for the request above jqxhr.success(function(response){ alert("second success"); }); So I am thinking this. I have a general function that I want to use on all my responses that would be passed into my success. This function basically does a check to see if the server validation found any errors. If it did they it formats it and displays a message. Now I am wondering if I could some how have the second success function to then do specific stuff. Like say One ajax request needs to add a row into a table. So this should be possible. I just do what I have above and in the second success I just add the row. Is it possible though that if the first success runs through and see that there are validation errors from the server that I can stop the second success from happening? Sort of If(first success finds errors) { // print out errors // don't continue onto next success } else { // go to next success } Edit I found that there is something call deferred.reject and this does stop it but I am wondering how can I specify to stop only the success one. Since my thinking is if there are other deffered ones like complete on it will the be rejected too?

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  • Support clicking a link, but sending a POST (vs GET) to the server, without Ajax?

    - by xyld
    I'm thinking this isn't exactly possible, but maybe I'm wrong. I'm simply torn between those who believe that only POST requests should modify data on the server and people that relax the rule and allow GET requests to modify data. Take this situation. Say you have a table, each row is a row in the database. I'd like to allow them to delete the row via a fancy "X" icon as the very last <td></td> element in the row. AFAIK, the only way to send a POST to the server is via a form. But do I really stuff an entire form into the last <td></td> element just to do a POST? Or should I cheat and use an <a href=...></a> tag that sends a GET request? You may be thinking "Do both! Send a POST AND use the <a ...></a> tag! Use fancy javascript + xhr!" And I'll say, oh? And how will that degrade in a zero javascript environment? Maybe we've reached a point when it doesn't make sense to worry about gracefully degrading? I'm not sure. You tell me? I'm new to web development, but I understand most of the concepts involved.

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  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

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  • char[] and char* compatibility?

    - by Aerovistae
    In essence, will this code work? And before you say "Run it and see!", I just realized my cygwin didn't come with gcc and it's currently 40 minutes away from completing reinstallation. That being said: char* words[1000]; for(int i = 0; i<1000; i++) words[i] = NULL; char buffer[ 1024 ]; //omit code that places "ADD splash\0" into the buffer if(strncmp (buffer, "ADD ", 4){ char* temp = buffer + 4; printf("Adding: %s", temp); int i = 0; while(words[i] != NULL) i++; words[i] = temp; } I'm mostly uncertain about the line char* temp = buffer + 4, and also whether I can assign words[i] in the manner that I am. Am I going to get type errors when I eventually try to compile this in 40 minutes? Also-- if this works, why don't I need to use malloc() on each element of words[]? Why can I say words[i] = temp, instead of needing to allocate memory for words[i] the length of temp?

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  • When is Googling it wrong?

    - by Drahcir
    I've been going through Stack Overflow for quite a bit now and noticed certain people (usually experienced programmers) frown upon Googling (researching) certain problems. Since I myself tend to use Google quite a bit to solve certain programming related issues I found certain comments rather demoralising. Now some of you may have come here trigger happy to delete this post but I needed some clarification. I usually Google things that usually syntax related that I would have never figured out on my own. For example I once wondered how to access the properties of a class that I didn't have a direct relationship to. So after a bit of research I discovered reflection and got what I wanted. Now in another scenario is learning a new language, in my case Silverlight were it differs in certain aspects of .NET compared to say ASP.NET. A few weeks ago I had no idea how to load another Silverlight page (usercontrol) and had to Google my way to the solution which I found wasn't as simple as I had imagined. In scenario three is were I myself frown up, that is just stealing a huge chunk of code to avoid doing the work yourself, for example paging a HTML table using JavaScript, where one just copies and pastes the JavasSript code without as much as trying to understand how it works. I do admit I have done this once or twice before for trivial tasks that had very little time limit and weren't all that important but most of the time still have to throw away what I found because it took too much time to adapt it and get what I wanted out of it. In the last scenario, I sometimes have a piece of code that I would be really unhappy about, as in I find it sloppy or too overcomplicated and try to look on the Internet to see other ways to tackle the same problem, let's say filtering through a table. With the knowledge I acquire I learned new coding practices that help me work more efficiently like "Do not repeat yourself" and such. Now in your opinion when do you find it wrong to use Google (or any other researching tool) to find a solution to your problem?

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  • Is this a correct way to stop Execution Task

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    I came across code to stop execution's task. private final ExecutorService executor = Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); public void stop() { executor.shutdownNow(); try { executor.awaitTermination(100, TimeUnit.DAYS); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { log.error(null, ex); } } public Runnable getRunnable() { return new Runnable() { public void run() { while (!Thread.currentThread().isInterrupted()) { // What if inside fun(), someone try to clear the interrupt flag? // Say, through Thread.interrupted(). We will stuck in this loop // forever. fun(); } } }; } I realize that, it is possible for Runnable to be in forever loop, as Unknown fun may Thread.sleep, clear the interrupt flag and ignore the InterruptedException Unknown fun may Thread.interrupted, clear the interrupt flag. I was wondering, is the following way correct way to fix the code? private final ExecutorService executor = Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); private volatile boolean flag = true; public void stop() { flag = false; executor.shutdownNow(); try { executor.awaitTermination(100, TimeUnit.DAYS); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { log.error(null, ex); } } public Runnable getRunnable() { return new Runnable() { public void run() { while (flag && !Thread.currentThread().isInterrupted()) { // What if inside fun(), someone try to clear the interrupt flag? // Say, through Thread.interrupted(). We will stuck in this loop // forever. fun(); } } }; }

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  • are mobile can be used as a devices to develop application

    - by Richa Media and services
    I say that we can work @ mobile using a technique and work with any IDE and use any OS without problem like work on visual studio and use Window 7 How it possible ? 1. We use Mobile like a CPU and Use a monitor to watch code. We use samsung's techniques to display on monitor. it's give signal to monitor wirelessly to display code on monitor 2 We use Wireless keyboard and Mouse (if user like USB then he also use USB keyboard and mouse) 3. We use a component inside of mobile to control all devices like internet , wi-fi bluethoth. by component user easily setup , control and use feature. 4 don't be confused. i am sure to say that we not use mobile to watch code on mobile screen and Mobile 's keyboard because it's too smaller to work so we use Monitor (LCD) to display code and a keyboard to work comfortably and freely. 5. what are you think if you see a developer who work using this way 6. it is not impossible. give me some feedback and suggestion about your thinking on this technologies.

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  • Freelance web hosting - what are good LAMP choices?

    - by tkotitan
    I think it's best if I ask this question with an example scenario. Let's say your mom-and-pop local hardware store has never had a website, and they want you, the freelance developer to build them a website. You have all the skills to run a LAMP setup and admin a system, so the difficult question you ask yourself is - where will I host it? As you aren't going to host it out of the machine in your apartment. Let's say you want to be able to customize your own system, install the version of PHP you want, and manage your own database. Perhaps the best kind of hosting is to get a virtual machine so you can customize the system as you see fit. But this essentially a "set it and forget it" site you make, bill by the hour for, and then are done. In other words, the hosting should not be an issue. Given the requirements of hosting a website: Unlimited growth potential needing good amounts of bandwidth to handle visitors Wide range of system and programming options allowing it to be portable Relatively cheap (not necessarily the cheapest) or reasonable scaling cost Reliable hosting with good support Hosted entirely on the host company's hardware Who would you pick to host this website? Yes I am asking for a business/company recommendation. Is there a clear answer for this scenario, or a good source that can reliably give the current answer? I know there are all kinds of schemes out there. I'm just wondering if any one company fills the bill for freelancers and stands out in such a crowded market.

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  • Getting functions of inherited functions to be called

    - by wrongusername
    Let's say I have a base class Animal from which a class Cow inherits, and a Barn class containing an Animal vector, and let's say the Animal class has a virtual function scream(), which Cow overrides. With the following code: Animal.h #ifndef _ANIMAL_H #define _ANIMAL_H #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Animal { public: Animal() {}; virtual void scream() {cout << "aaaAAAAAAAAAAGHHHHHHHHHH!!! ahhh..." << endl;} }; #endif /* _ANIMAL_H */ Cow.h #ifndef _COW_H #define _COW_H #include "Animal.h" class Cow: public Animal { public: Cow() {} void scream() {cout << "MOOooooOOOOOOOO!!!" << endl;} }; #endif /* _COW_H */ Barn.h #ifndef _BARN_H #define _BARN_H #include "Animal.h" #include <vector> class Barn { std::vector<Animal> animals; public: Barn() {} void insertAnimal(Animal animal) {animals.push_back(animal);} void tortureAnimals() { for(int a = 0; a < animals.size(); a++) animals[a].scream(); } }; #endif /* _BARN_H */ and finally main.cpp #include <stdlib.h> #include "Barn.h" #include "Cow.h" #include "Chicken.h" /* * */ int main(int argc, char** argv) { Barn barn; barn.insertAnimal(Cow()); barn.tortureAnimals(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } I get this output: aaaAAAAAAAAAAGHHHHHHHHHH!!! ahhh... How should I code this to get MOOooooOOOOOOOO!!! (and whatever other classes inheriting Animal wants scream() to be) instead?

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  • Load javascript in app engine

    - by user624392
    I got so confused loading javascript in app engine. I am using django template. In my base html file. First I can't load my downloaded jquery from local say d:/jquery.js like <script src="d:\jquery.js" type="text/javascript" ></script></head>, This line is in my base html file. It works when I load jquery from remote. Like <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.1/jquery.min.js"type="text/javascript" ></script></head> I dont know why. Second, I can't load my own-created javascript to my html file, say I create a javascript like layout. Js and I try to load it like this in my child html file, which, by the way, inherits from the base html. <body><script src="layout.js" type="text/javascript"></script></body>, And it doesn't work at all, the only way it works I have tried is that I put the actual javascript in the body of my base html file. Like <body><script> $(document).ready( $("#yes"). Click(function() { $("#no"). Hide("slow"); })); </script> I dont know why either... Any help?

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  • What's the best technique to protect my framework from visitors who are not logged in?

    - by Hermet
    First of all, I would like to say that I have used the search box looking for a similar question and was unsuccessful, maybe because of my poor english skills. I have a a 'homemade' framework. I have certain PHP files that must only be visible for the admin. The way I currently do this is check within every single page to see if a session has been opened. If not, the user gets redirected to a 404 page, to seem like the file which has been requested doesn't exist. I really don't know if this is guaranteed to work or if there's a better and more safe way because I'm currently working with kind of confidential data that should never become public. Could you give me some tips? Or leave a link where I could find some? Thank you very much, and again excuse me for kicking the dictionary. EDIT What I usually write in the top of each file is something like this <?php include("sesion.php"); $rs=comprueba(); //'check' if ($rs==1) { ?> And then, at the end <?php } ?> Is it such a butched job, isn't it? EDIT Let's say I have a customers list in a file named customers.php That file may be currently on http://www.mydomain.com/admin/customers.php and it must only be visible for the admin user. Once the admin user has been logged in, I create a session variable. That variable is what I check on the top of each page, and if it exists, the customers list is shown. If not, the user gets redirected to the 404 page. Thank you for your patience. I really appreciate.

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  • How to get to the key name of a referenced entity property from an entity instance without a datastore read in google app engine?

    - by Sumeet Pareek
    Consider I have the following models - class Team(db.Model): # say I have just 5 teams name = db.StringProperty() class Player(db.Model): # say I have thousands of players name = db.StringProperty() team = db.ReferenceProperty(Team, collection_name="player_set") Key name for each Team entity = 'team_' , and for each Player entity = 'player_' By some prior arrangement I have a Team entity's (key_name, name) mapping available to me. For example (team_01, United States Of America), (team_02, Russia) etc I have to show all the players and their teams on a page. One way of doing this would be - players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(player.team.name) #This is a total of 1x1000 = 1000 DB reads That is a 1001 DB reads for a silly thing. The interesting part is that when I do a db.to_dict() on players, it shows that for every player in that list there is 'name' of the player and there is the 'key_name' of the team available too. So how can I do the below ?? players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(team_list[player.<SOME WAY OF GETTING TEAM KEY NAME>]) # Here 'team_list' already has (key_name, name) for all 5 teams I have been struggling with this for a long time. Have read every available documentation. I could just hug the person that can help me here :-) Disclaimer: The above problem description is not a real scenario. It is a simplified arrangement that represents my problem exactly. I have run into it in a rater complex and big GAE appication.

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  • How to write automated tests for SQL queries?

    - by James
    The current system we are adopting at work is to write some extremely complex queries which perform multiple calculations and have multiple joins / sub-queries. I don't think I am experienced enough to say if this is correct or not so I am agreeing and attempting to function with this system as it has clear benefits. The problem we are having at the moment is that the person writing the queries makes a lot of mistakes and assumes everything is correct. We have now assigned a tester to analyse all of the queries but this still proves extremely time consuming and stressful. I would like to know how we could create an automated procedure (without specifically writing it with code if possible as I can work out how to do that the long way) to verify a set of 10+ different inputs, verify the output data and say if the calculations are correct. I know I could write a script using specific data in the database and create a script using c# (the db is SQL Server) and verify all the values coming out but I would like to know what the official "standard" is as my experience is lacking in this area and I would like to improve. I am happy to add more information if required, add a comment if necessary. Thank you. Edit: I am using c#

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  • Can't post with Perl's Net::Blogger

    - by Ovid
    I'm trying to automatically post to blogger using Perl's Net::Blogger but it keeps returning false and not posting. The main portion of my code looks like this: use Net::Blogger; my $blogger = Net::Blogger->new({ debug => 1, appkey => '0123456789ABCDEF', # doesn't matter? blogid => $blogid, username => $username, password => $password, }); say 'got to here'; my $result = $blogger->newPost({ postbody => \'<p>This is text</p><hr/><p><strong>Whee!</strong></p>', publish => 1, }); say 'done posting'; use Data::Dumper; print Dumper($result); Sure enough, $result is 0 and in checking the blog, nothing has been posted. The error I'm getting when I enable debugging is: Element '' can't be allowed in valid XML message. Died. at /Library/Perl/5.10.1/SOAP/Lite.pm line 1410. What am I doing wrong? If you can suggest an alternative to Net::Blogger, that would be fine.

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  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

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  • return Queryable<T> or List<T> in a Repository<T>

    - by Danny Chen
    Currently I'm building an windows application using sqlite. In the data base there is a table say User, and in my code there is a Repository<User> and a UserManager. I think it's a very common design. In the repository there is a List method: //Repository<User> class public List<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } This brings a problem, if I want to do something complex in UserManager.cs: //UserManager.cs public List<User> ListUsersWithBankAccounts() { var userRep = new UserRepository(); var bankRep = new BankAccountRepository(); var result = //do something complex, say "I want the users live in NY //and have at least two bank accounts in the system } You can see, returning List<User> brings performance issue, becuase the query is executed earlier than expected. Now I need to change it to something like a IQueryable<T>: //Repository<User> class public TableQuery<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } TableQuery<T> is part of the sqlite driver, which is almost equals to IQueryable<T> in EF, which provides a query and won't execute it immediately. But now the problem is: in UserManager.cs, it doesn't know what is a TableQuery<T>, I need to add new reference and import namespaces like using SQLite.Query in the business layer project. It really brings bad code feeling. Why should my business layer know the details of the database? why should the business layer know what's SQLite? What's the correct design then?

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • What does the Kernel Virtual Memory of each process contain?

    - by claws
    When say 3 programs (executables) are loaded into memory the layout might look something like this: I've following questions: Is the concept of Virtual Memory limited to user processes? Because, I am wondering where does the Operating System Kernel, Drivers live? How is its memory layout? I know its operating system specific make your choice (windows/linux). They say, on a 32 bit machine in a 4GB address space. Half of it (or more recently 1GB) is occupied by kernel. I can see in this diagram that "Kernel Virtual memory" is occupying 0xc0000000 - 0xffffffff (= 1 GB). Are they talking about this? or is it something else? Just want to confirm. What exactly does the Kernel Virtual Memory of each of these processes contain? What is its layout? When we do IPC we talk about shared memory. I don't see any memory shared between these processes. Where does it live? Resources (files, registries in windows) are global to all processes. So, the resource/file handle table must be in some global space. Which area would that be in? Where can I know more about this kernel side stuff.

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  • Matlab fft function

    - by CTZStef
    The code below is from the Matlab 2011a help about fft function. I think there is a problem here : why do they multiply t(1:50) by Fs, and then say it's time in millisecond ? Certainly, it happens to be true in this very particular case, but change the value of Fs to, say, 2000, and it won't work anymore, obviously because of this factor of 2. Right ? Quite misleading, isn't it ? What do I miss ? Fs = 1000; % Sampling frequency T = 1/Fs; % Sample time L = 1000; % Length of signal t = (0:L-1)*T; % Time vector % Sum of a 50 Hz sinusoid and a 120 Hz sinusoid x = 0.7*sin(2*pi*50*t) + sin(2*pi*120*t); y = x + 2*randn(size(t)); % Sinusoids plus noise plot(Fs*t(1:50),y(1:50)) title('Signal Corrupted with Zero-Mean Random Noise') xlabel('time (milliseconds)') Clearer with this : fs = 2000; % Sampling frequency T = 1 / fs; % Sample time L = 1000; % Length of signal t2 = (0:L-1)*T; % Time vector f = 50; % signal frequency s2 = sin(2*pi*f*t2); figure, plot(fs*t2(1:50),s2(1:50)); % NOT good figure, plot(t2(1:50),s2(1:50)); % good

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  • Eclipse cannot find existing project in build path

    - by PNS
    Here is probably one of the idiosyncrasies of Eclipse and its handling of build paths, which cannot be fixed despite all sorts of workarounds tested so far. The issue relates to a workspace of several projects, each of which compiles into its own JAR. Dependencies among the projects are resolved by adding the relevant ones to the build path (no Maven or other external tool or plugin is used), via Project -> Properties -> Java Build Path -> Projects Among all these projects, a couple (say, com.example.p1 and com.example.p2) refuse to recognize a third (and simple) one (say, com.example.p3), while all other projects do. So, although P3 is added to the build path, all related classes from P3 are imported properly and the source code of each such class is accessible by hitting F3, Eclipse keeps complaining that The import com.example.p3 cannot be resolved and SomeClass cannot be resolved to a type where com.example.p3.SomeClass is one of the P3 classes. If instead of the P3 project I put its compiled JAR in the build path, the issue disappears. However, code in P3 changes frequently and it is a time waste to keep compiling and refreshing the workspace so that the change is picked up, not to mention that this should not happen in an IDE anyway (and it does not for the other projects using P3). Among the workarounds tried are things like: Removing and adding again P1, P2, P3 Cleaning up and recompiling everything Checking whether any other project loads the P3 JAR Putting P3 at the top of the Eclipse build path "Order and Export" list Using the "Fix project setup" suggestion of Eclipse (available when hovering the mouse over the red-underlined-error compilation line). Actually, this option offers adding to the build path either P3 or its JAR, but if P3 is added, the issue reappears. Any ideas?

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  • JAR files, don't they just bloat and slow Java down?

    - by Josamoto
    Okay, the question might seem dumb, but I'm asking it anyways. After struggling for hours to get a Spring + BlazeDS project up and running, I discovered that I was having problems with my project as a result of not including the right dependencies for Spring etc. There were .jars missing from my WEB-INF/lib folder, yes, silly me. After a while, I managed to get all the .jar files where they belong, and it comes at a whopping 12.5MB at that, and there's more than 30 of them! Which concerns me, but it probably and hopefully shouldn't be concerned. How does Java operate in terms of these JAR files, they do take up quite a bit of hard drive space, taking into account that it's compressed and compiled source code. So that can really quickly populate a lot of RAM and in an instant. My questions are: Does Java load an entire .jar file into memory when say for instance a class in that .jar is instantiated? What about stuff that's in the .jar that never gets used. Do .jars get cached somehow, for optimized application performance? When a single .jar is loaded, I understand that the thing sits in memory and is available across multiple HTTP requests (i.e. for the lifetime of the server instance running), unlike PHP where objects are created on the fly with each request, is this assumption correct? When using Spring, I'm thinking, I had to include all those fiddly .jars, wouldn't I just be better off just using native Java, with say at least and ORM solution like Hibernate? So far, Spring just took extra time configuring, extra hard drive space, extra memory, cpu consumption, so I'm concerned that the framework is going to cost too much application performance just to get for example, IoC implemented with my BlazeDS server. There still has to come ORM, a unit testing framework and bits and pieces here and there. It's just so easy to bloat up a project quickly and irresponsibly easily. Where do I draw the line?

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