Search Results

Search found 19525 results on 781 pages for 'say'.

Page 95/781 | < Previous Page | 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102  | Next Page >

  • C++ Templates: Convincing self against code bloat

    - by ArunSaha
    I have heard about code bloats in context of C++ templates. I know that is not the case with modern C++ compilers. But, I want to construct an example and convince myself. Lets say we have a class template< typename T, size_t N > class Array { public: T * data(); private: T elems_[ N }; }; template< typename T, size_t N > T * Array<T>::data() { return elems_; } Further, let's say types.h contains typedef Array< int, 100 > MyArray; x.cpp contains MyArray ArrayX; and y.cpp contains MyArray ArrayY; Now, how can I verify that the code space for MyArray::data() is same for both ArrayX and ArrayY? What else I should know and verify from this (or other similar simple) examples? If there is any g++ specific tips, I am interested for that too. PS: Regarding bloat, I am concerned even for the slightest of bloats, since I come from embedded context.

    Read the article

  • Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

    - by Luis
    Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can you stop a defered callback in jquery 1.5?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am wondering say you have something like this // Assign handlers immediately after making the request, // and remember the jqxhr object for this request var jqxhr = $.ajax({ url: "example.php" }) .success(function(response) { alert("success"); }) // perform other work here ... // Set another success function for the request above jqxhr.success(function(response){ alert("second success"); }); So I am thinking this. I have a general function that I want to use on all my responses that would be passed into my success. This function basically does a check to see if the server validation found any errors. If it did they it formats it and displays a message. Now I am wondering if I could some how have the second success function to then do specific stuff. Like say One ajax request needs to add a row into a table. So this should be possible. I just do what I have above and in the second success I just add the row. Is it possible though that if the first success runs through and see that there are validation errors from the server that I can stop the second success from happening? Sort of If(first success finds errors) { // print out errors // don't continue onto next success } else { // go to next success } Edit I found that there is something call deferred.reject and this does stop it but I am wondering how can I specify to stop only the success one. Since my thinking is if there are other deffered ones like complete on it will the be rejected too?

    Read the article

  • How important is the .NET programming language when you choose a new job?

    - by Luhmann
    We are currently hiring at the company where I work, and here the codebase is in VB.Net. We are worried that we miss out on a lot of brilliant programmers, who would never ever consider working with VB.Net. My own background is Java and C#, and I was somewhat sceptical as to whether it would work out with VB, as - to be honest - i didn't care much for VB. After a month or so, I was completely fluent in VB, and a few months later i discovered to my surprise, that I actually like VB. I still code my free time projects in C# and Boo though. So my question is firstly, how important is language for you, when you choose a new programming job? Lets say if its a great company, salary is good, and generally an attractive work-place. Would you say no to the perfect job, if the language wasn't your preferred dialect? VB or C# is one thing, but how about Java or C# etc. Secondly if the best developers won't join your company because of your language or platform, would you consider changing, to get the right people? (This is not a language bashing thread, so please no religious language wars) NB: This is Community Wiki

    Read the article

  • Where to start when doing a Domain Model?

    - by devoured elysium
    Let's say I've made a list of concepts I'll use to draw my Domain Model. Furthermore, I have a couple of Use Cases from which I did a couple of System Sequence Diagrams. When drawing the Domain Model, I never know where to start from: Designing the model as I believe the system to be. This is, if I am modelling a the human body, I start by adding the class concepts of Heart, Brain, Bowels, Stomach, Eyes, Head, etc. Start by designing what the Use Cases need to get done. This is, if I have a Use Case which is about making the human body swallow something, I'd first draw the class concepts for Mouth, Throat, Stomatch, Bowels, etc. The order in which I do things is irrelevant? I'd say probably it'd be best to try to design from the Use Case concepts, as they are generally what you want to work with, not other kind of concepts that although help describe the whole system well, much of the time might not even be needed for the current project. Is there any other approach that I am not taking in consideration here? How do you usually approach this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

    Read the article

  • Load javascript in app engine

    - by user624392
    I got so confused loading javascript in app engine. I am using django template. In my base html file. First I can't load my downloaded jquery from local say d:/jquery.js like <script src="d:\jquery.js" type="text/javascript" ></script></head>, This line is in my base html file. It works when I load jquery from remote. Like <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.1/jquery.min.js"type="text/javascript" ></script></head> I dont know why. Second, I can't load my own-created javascript to my html file, say I create a javascript like layout. Js and I try to load it like this in my child html file, which, by the way, inherits from the base html. <body><script src="layout.js" type="text/javascript"></script></body>, And it doesn't work at all, the only way it works I have tried is that I put the actual javascript in the body of my base html file. Like <body><script> $(document).ready( $("#yes"). Click(function() { $("#no"). Hide("slow"); })); </script> I dont know why either... Any help?

    Read the article

  • Is this a correct way to stop Execution Task

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    I came across code to stop execution's task. private final ExecutorService executor = Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); public void stop() { executor.shutdownNow(); try { executor.awaitTermination(100, TimeUnit.DAYS); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { log.error(null, ex); } } public Runnable getRunnable() { return new Runnable() { public void run() { while (!Thread.currentThread().isInterrupted()) { // What if inside fun(), someone try to clear the interrupt flag? // Say, through Thread.interrupted(). We will stuck in this loop // forever. fun(); } } }; } I realize that, it is possible for Runnable to be in forever loop, as Unknown fun may Thread.sleep, clear the interrupt flag and ignore the InterruptedException Unknown fun may Thread.interrupted, clear the interrupt flag. I was wondering, is the following way correct way to fix the code? private final ExecutorService executor = Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); private volatile boolean flag = true; public void stop() { flag = false; executor.shutdownNow(); try { executor.awaitTermination(100, TimeUnit.DAYS); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { log.error(null, ex); } } public Runnable getRunnable() { return new Runnable() { public void run() { while (flag && !Thread.currentThread().isInterrupted()) { // What if inside fun(), someone try to clear the interrupt flag? // Say, through Thread.interrupted(). We will stuck in this loop // forever. fun(); } } }; }

    Read the article

  • Can isdigit legitimately be locale dependent in C

    - by cdev
    In the section covering setlocale, the ANSI C standard states in a footnote that the only ctype.h functions whose behaviour is not affected by the current locale are isdigit and isxdigit. The Microsoft implementation of isdigit is locale dependent because, for example, in locales using code page 1250 isdigit only returns non-zero for characters in the range 0x30 ('0') - 0x39 ('9'), whereas in locales using code page 1252 isdigit also returns non-zero for the superscript digits 0xB2 ('²'), 0xB3 ('³') and 0xB9 ('¹'). Is Microsoft in violation of the C standard by making isdigit locale dependent? In this question I am primarily interested in C90, which Microsoft claims to conform to, rather than C99. Additional background: Microsoft's own documentation of setlocale incorrectly states that isdigit is unaffected by the LC_CTYPE part of the locale. The section of the C standard that covers the ctype.h functions contains some wording that I consider ambiguous: "The behavior of these functions is affected by the current locale. Those functions that have locale-specific aspects only when not in the "C" locale are noted below." I consider this ambiguous because it is unclear what it is trying to say about functions such as isdigit for which there are no notes about locale-specific aspects. It might be trying to say that such functions must be assumed to be locale dependent, in which case Microsoft's implementation of isdigit would be OK. (Except that the footnote I mentioned earlier seems to contradict this interpretation.)

    Read the article

  • How do I bind to a custom view in Cocoa using Xcode 4?

    - by Newt
    I'm a beginner when it comes to writing Mac apps and working with Cocoa, so please forgive my ignorance. I'm looking to create a custom view, that exposes some properties, which I can then bind to an NSObjectController. Since it's a custom view, the Bindings Inspector obviously doesn't list any of the properties I've added to the view that I can then bind to using Interface Builder. After turning to the Stackoverflow/Google for help, I've stumbled across a couple of possible solutions, but neither seem to be quite right for my situation. The first suggested creating an IBPlugin, which would then mean my bindings would be available in the Bindings Inspector. I could then bind the view to the controller using IB. Apparently IBPlugins aren't supported in Xcode 4, so that one's out the window. I'm also assuming (maybe wrongly) that IBPlugins are no longer supported because there's a better way of doing such things these days? The second option was to bind the controller to the view programmatically. I'm a bit confused as to exactly how I would achieve this. Would it require subclassing NSObjectController so I can add the calls to bind to the view? Would I need to add anything to the view to support this? Some examples I've seen say you'd need to override the bind method, and others say you don't. Also, I've noticed that some example custom views call [self exposeBinding:@"bindingName"] in the initializer. From what I gather from various sources, this is something that's related to IBPlugins and isn't something I need to do if I'm not using them. Is that correct? I've found a post on Stackoverflow here which seems to discuss something very similar to my problem, but there wasn't any clear winner as to the best answer. The last comment by noa on 12th Sept seems interesting, although they mention you should be calling exposeBinding:. Is this comment along the right track? Is the call to exposeBinding really necessary? Apologies for any dumb questions. Any help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

    Read the article

  • Getting functions of inherited functions to be called

    - by wrongusername
    Let's say I have a base class Animal from which a class Cow inherits, and a Barn class containing an Animal vector, and let's say the Animal class has a virtual function scream(), which Cow overrides. With the following code: Animal.h #ifndef _ANIMAL_H #define _ANIMAL_H #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Animal { public: Animal() {}; virtual void scream() {cout << "aaaAAAAAAAAAAGHHHHHHHHHH!!! ahhh..." << endl;} }; #endif /* _ANIMAL_H */ Cow.h #ifndef _COW_H #define _COW_H #include "Animal.h" class Cow: public Animal { public: Cow() {} void scream() {cout << "MOOooooOOOOOOOO!!!" << endl;} }; #endif /* _COW_H */ Barn.h #ifndef _BARN_H #define _BARN_H #include "Animal.h" #include <vector> class Barn { std::vector<Animal> animals; public: Barn() {} void insertAnimal(Animal animal) {animals.push_back(animal);} void tortureAnimals() { for(int a = 0; a < animals.size(); a++) animals[a].scream(); } }; #endif /* _BARN_H */ and finally main.cpp #include <stdlib.h> #include "Barn.h" #include "Cow.h" #include "Chicken.h" /* * */ int main(int argc, char** argv) { Barn barn; barn.insertAnimal(Cow()); barn.tortureAnimals(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } I get this output: aaaAAAAAAAAAAGHHHHHHHHHH!!! ahhh... How should I code this to get MOOooooOOOOOOOO!!! (and whatever other classes inheriting Animal wants scream() to be) instead?

    Read the article

  • char[] and char* compatibility?

    - by Aerovistae
    In essence, will this code work? And before you say "Run it and see!", I just realized my cygwin didn't come with gcc and it's currently 40 minutes away from completing reinstallation. That being said: char* words[1000]; for(int i = 0; i<1000; i++) words[i] = NULL; char buffer[ 1024 ]; //omit code that places "ADD splash\0" into the buffer if(strncmp (buffer, "ADD ", 4){ char* temp = buffer + 4; printf("Adding: %s", temp); int i = 0; while(words[i] != NULL) i++; words[i] = temp; } I'm mostly uncertain about the line char* temp = buffer + 4, and also whether I can assign words[i] in the manner that I am. Am I going to get type errors when I eventually try to compile this in 40 minutes? Also-- if this works, why don't I need to use malloc() on each element of words[]? Why can I say words[i] = temp, instead of needing to allocate memory for words[i] the length of temp?

    Read the article

  • Freelance web hosting - what are good LAMP choices?

    - by tkotitan
    I think it's best if I ask this question with an example scenario. Let's say your mom-and-pop local hardware store has never had a website, and they want you, the freelance developer to build them a website. You have all the skills to run a LAMP setup and admin a system, so the difficult question you ask yourself is - where will I host it? As you aren't going to host it out of the machine in your apartment. Let's say you want to be able to customize your own system, install the version of PHP you want, and manage your own database. Perhaps the best kind of hosting is to get a virtual machine so you can customize the system as you see fit. But this essentially a "set it and forget it" site you make, bill by the hour for, and then are done. In other words, the hosting should not be an issue. Given the requirements of hosting a website: Unlimited growth potential needing good amounts of bandwidth to handle visitors Wide range of system and programming options allowing it to be portable Relatively cheap (not necessarily the cheapest) or reasonable scaling cost Reliable hosting with good support Hosted entirely on the host company's hardware Who would you pick to host this website? Yes I am asking for a business/company recommendation. Is there a clear answer for this scenario, or a good source that can reliably give the current answer? I know there are all kinds of schemes out there. I'm just wondering if any one company fills the bill for freelancers and stands out in such a crowded market.

    Read the article

  • are mobile can be used as a devices to develop application

    - by Richa Media and services
    I say that we can work @ mobile using a technique and work with any IDE and use any OS without problem like work on visual studio and use Window 7 How it possible ? 1. We use Mobile like a CPU and Use a monitor to watch code. We use samsung's techniques to display on monitor. it's give signal to monitor wirelessly to display code on monitor 2 We use Wireless keyboard and Mouse (if user like USB then he also use USB keyboard and mouse) 3. We use a component inside of mobile to control all devices like internet , wi-fi bluethoth. by component user easily setup , control and use feature. 4 don't be confused. i am sure to say that we not use mobile to watch code on mobile screen and Mobile 's keyboard because it's too smaller to work so we use Monitor (LCD) to display code and a keyboard to work comfortably and freely. 5. what are you think if you see a developer who work using this way 6. it is not impossible. give me some feedback and suggestion about your thinking on this technologies.

    Read the article

  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

    Read the article

  • Matlab fft function

    - by CTZStef
    The code below is from the Matlab 2011a help about fft function. I think there is a problem here : why do they multiply t(1:50) by Fs, and then say it's time in millisecond ? Certainly, it happens to be true in this very particular case, but change the value of Fs to, say, 2000, and it won't work anymore, obviously because of this factor of 2. Right ? Quite misleading, isn't it ? What do I miss ? Fs = 1000; % Sampling frequency T = 1/Fs; % Sample time L = 1000; % Length of signal t = (0:L-1)*T; % Time vector % Sum of a 50 Hz sinusoid and a 120 Hz sinusoid x = 0.7*sin(2*pi*50*t) + sin(2*pi*120*t); y = x + 2*randn(size(t)); % Sinusoids plus noise plot(Fs*t(1:50),y(1:50)) title('Signal Corrupted with Zero-Mean Random Noise') xlabel('time (milliseconds)') Clearer with this : fs = 2000; % Sampling frequency T = 1 / fs; % Sample time L = 1000; % Length of signal t2 = (0:L-1)*T; % Time vector f = 50; % signal frequency s2 = sin(2*pi*f*t2); figure, plot(fs*t2(1:50),s2(1:50)); % NOT good figure, plot(t2(1:50),s2(1:50)); % good

    Read the article

  • How to write automated tests for SQL queries?

    - by James
    The current system we are adopting at work is to write some extremely complex queries which perform multiple calculations and have multiple joins / sub-queries. I don't think I am experienced enough to say if this is correct or not so I am agreeing and attempting to function with this system as it has clear benefits. The problem we are having at the moment is that the person writing the queries makes a lot of mistakes and assumes everything is correct. We have now assigned a tester to analyse all of the queries but this still proves extremely time consuming and stressful. I would like to know how we could create an automated procedure (without specifically writing it with code if possible as I can work out how to do that the long way) to verify a set of 10+ different inputs, verify the output data and say if the calculations are correct. I know I could write a script using specific data in the database and create a script using c# (the db is SQL Server) and verify all the values coming out but I would like to know what the official "standard" is as my experience is lacking in this area and I would like to improve. I am happy to add more information if required, add a comment if necessary. Thank you. Edit: I am using c#

    Read the article

  • CQRS without using others patterns

    - by John Smith
    I would like to explain CQRS to my team of developers. I just can't figure out how to explain it in the simplest way so they can implement the pattern rapidly without any others frameworks. I've read a lot of resources including video and articles but I don't find how to implement CQRS without using others patterns like a service Bus, event sourcing pattern, domain driven design. I know the purpose of these pattern but for the first step, I don't want them to think CQRS and theses patterns must be tied together. My first idea is to say that CQRS is about separating the read part and the write part. The read part is composed only of the UI project, and DAL project. Then the write part is composed of a typical multilayer architecture: UI/BLL/DAL. Then, does CQRS say we must also have two datastore ? What about the notion of commands which reveal the user's intention, is it also something part of CQRS or DDD ? Basically, how to implement CQRS without using others patterns. I concede it's also not that clear in my mind because I've used to work with NCQRS/DDD/Event Sourcing/ServiceBus in my personal project. Thanks

    Read the article

  • return Queryable<T> or List<T> in a Repository<T>

    - by Danny Chen
    Currently I'm building an windows application using sqlite. In the data base there is a table say User, and in my code there is a Repository<User> and a UserManager. I think it's a very common design. In the repository there is a List method: //Repository<User> class public List<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } This brings a problem, if I want to do something complex in UserManager.cs: //UserManager.cs public List<User> ListUsersWithBankAccounts() { var userRep = new UserRepository(); var bankRep = new BankAccountRepository(); var result = //do something complex, say "I want the users live in NY //and have at least two bank accounts in the system } You can see, returning List<User> brings performance issue, becuase the query is executed earlier than expected. Now I need to change it to something like a IQueryable<T>: //Repository<User> class public TableQuery<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } TableQuery<T> is part of the sqlite driver, which is almost equals to IQueryable<T> in EF, which provides a query and won't execute it immediately. But now the problem is: in UserManager.cs, it doesn't know what is a TableQuery<T>, I need to add new reference and import namespaces like using SQLite.Query in the business layer project. It really brings bad code feeling. Why should my business layer know the details of the database? why should the business layer know what's SQLite? What's the correct design then?

    Read the article

  • PHP post programmatically

    - by Tural Teyyuboglu
    After user registration, website send activation code to email. something like that. www.domain.com/?activate=<code> I'm creating 2 variants of activation: 1.manual 2.auto Lets say we have index.php. 1.Manual method. When someone wants to activate user manually all things are obvious: User opens page www.domain.com/?activate Index.php checks with following script and includes div file (which contains activation form) if (isset($_GET['activate'])) { $page='activate'; $divfile = 'path to div.php'; } include $divfile; Then page sends form data via ajax to activation.php file. 2.Auto method. Lets say user clicked directly to www.domain.com/?activate=<code>. What I wanna do is, to check if(!empty($_GET['activate'])), if all right ... I can't figure out how to act?! Programmatically send something like POST to activation.php or what? Please help. Thx in advance

    Read the article

  • MySQL to SQL Server ODBC Connector?

    - by Scott C.
    My boss wants to have data in MySQL DBs used for our website to be "linked and synced" with a Financial Server that has its DB in SQL Server. Sooooo...even though I have no idea how to accomplish this, this just sounds like an absolute nightmare especially since the MySQL DB is most likely going to be hosted in the cloud and not on a machine next to the Financial Server. Any ideas how to accomplish this? (within reason?) Also, his big thing is he wants to basically pull up the data from any record a user enters and using data pulled from that do all sorts of calculations using ANOTHER program that stores its data (apparently) in SQL Server. Thinking of all the data I might have to convert makes me very uneasy. Please tell a ODBC eliminates complicated junk like this. :/ I'm trying to talk him into just having MySQL do a nightly dump into a CSV file or something and using that (rather than connector) to update the SQL Server DBs. I guess I'm just not that comfortable with a server and/or programming I have no say over being connected DIRECTLY to my MySQL DB for the website. If there's no good answer for this, can anyone offer a suggestion as to what I can say to talk him out of this? (I'm a low-level IT guy w/ a decent grasp on programming...but I'm no expert - should I try to push this off to a seasoned IT pro?) Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

    Read the article

  • Eclipse cannot find existing project in build path

    - by PNS
    Here is probably one of the idiosyncrasies of Eclipse and its handling of build paths, which cannot be fixed despite all sorts of workarounds tested so far. The issue relates to a workspace of several projects, each of which compiles into its own JAR. Dependencies among the projects are resolved by adding the relevant ones to the build path (no Maven or other external tool or plugin is used), via Project -> Properties -> Java Build Path -> Projects Among all these projects, a couple (say, com.example.p1 and com.example.p2) refuse to recognize a third (and simple) one (say, com.example.p3), while all other projects do. So, although P3 is added to the build path, all related classes from P3 are imported properly and the source code of each such class is accessible by hitting F3, Eclipse keeps complaining that The import com.example.p3 cannot be resolved and SomeClass cannot be resolved to a type where com.example.p3.SomeClass is one of the P3 classes. If instead of the P3 project I put its compiled JAR in the build path, the issue disappears. However, code in P3 changes frequently and it is a time waste to keep compiling and refreshing the workspace so that the change is picked up, not to mention that this should not happen in an IDE anyway (and it does not for the other projects using P3). Among the workarounds tried are things like: Removing and adding again P1, P2, P3 Cleaning up and recompiling everything Checking whether any other project loads the P3 JAR Putting P3 at the top of the Eclipse build path "Order and Export" list Using the "Fix project setup" suggestion of Eclipse (available when hovering the mouse over the red-underlined-error compilation line). Actually, this option offers adding to the build path either P3 or its JAR, but if P3 is added, the issue reappears. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What does the Kernel Virtual Memory of each process contain?

    - by claws
    When say 3 programs (executables) are loaded into memory the layout might look something like this: I've following questions: Is the concept of Virtual Memory limited to user processes? Because, I am wondering where does the Operating System Kernel, Drivers live? How is its memory layout? I know its operating system specific make your choice (windows/linux). They say, on a 32 bit machine in a 4GB address space. Half of it (or more recently 1GB) is occupied by kernel. I can see in this diagram that "Kernel Virtual memory" is occupying 0xc0000000 - 0xffffffff (= 1 GB). Are they talking about this? or is it something else? Just want to confirm. What exactly does the Kernel Virtual Memory of each of these processes contain? What is its layout? When we do IPC we talk about shared memory. I don't see any memory shared between these processes. Where does it live? Resources (files, registries in windows) are global to all processes. So, the resource/file handle table must be in some global space. Which area would that be in? Where can I know more about this kernel side stuff.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102  | Next Page >