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  • Index question: Select * with WHERE clause. Where and how to create index

    - by Mestika
    Hi, I’m working on optimizing some of my queries and I have a query that states: select * from SC where c_id ="+c_id” The schema of ** SC** looks like this: SC ( c_id int not null, date_start date not null, date_stop date not null, r_t_id int not null, nt int, t_p decimal, PRIMARY KEY (c_id, r_t_id, date_start, date_stop)); My immediate bid on how the index should be created is a covering index in this order: INDEX(c_id, date_start, date_stop, nt, r_t_id, t_p) The reason for this order I base on: The WHERE clause selects from c_id thus making it the first sorting order. Next, the date_start and date_stop to specify a sort of “range” to be defined in these parameters Next, nt because it will select the nt Next the r_t_id because it is a ID for a specific type of my r_t table And last the t_p because it is just a information. I don’t know if it is at all necessary to order it in a specific way when it is a SELECT ALL statement. I should say, that the SC is not the biggest table. I can say how many rows it contains but a estimate could be between <10 and 1000. The next thing to add is, that the SC, in different queries, inserts the data into the SC, and I know that indexes on tables which have insertions can be cost ineffective, but can I somehow create a golden middle way to effective this performance. Don't know if it makes a different but I'm using IBM DB2 version 9.7 database Sincerely Mestika

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  • Send email from webpage without postback/refresh

    - by jb
    Hi all. Long time reader, first time writer. Quick query i hope someone can help me with. I have a webpage (php, javascript) which has a small contact form for a user to fill in and email us. Not a problem in itself, i have a working form already. Nothing noteworthy, just a form posting to a php page which sends an email. <form id="myform" name="myform" method="post" action="Mailer.php"> So user fills in form, hits submit and the page changes to mailer.php and they find their way back to where they were. What I want instead is for the to stay on the same page when submit is pushed. The form div to update itself to just say 'message sent' or something. I just want to avoid a full page refresh. Much like how on say facebook, commenting on a status only updates that div. Hope that is phrased clearly enough. Cheers all,

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  • What was your "aha moment" in understanding delegates?

    - by CM90
    Considering the use of delegates in C#, does anyone know if there is a performance advantage or if it is a convenience to the programmer? If we are creating an object that holds a method, it sounds as if that object would be a constant in memory to be called on, instead of loading the method every time it is called. For example, if we look at the following Unity3D-based code: public delegate H MixedTypeDelegate<G, H>(G g) public class MainParent : MonoBehaviour // Most Unity classes inherit from M.B. { public static Vector3 getPosition(GameObject g) { /* GameObject is a Unity class, and Vector3 is a struct from M.B. The "position" component of a GameObject is a Vector3. This method takes the GameObject I pass to it & returns its position. */ return g.transform.position; } public static MixedTypeDelegate<GameObject, Vector3> PositionOf; void Awake( ) // Awake is the first method called in Unity, always. { PositionOf = MixedTypeDelegate<GameObject, Vector3>(getPosition); } } public class GameScript : MainParent { GameObject g = new GameObject( ); Vector3 whereAmI; void Update( ) { // Now I can say: whereAmI = PositionOf(g); // Instead of: whereAmI = getPosition(g); } } . . . But that seems like an extra step - unless there's that extra little thing that it helps. I suppose the most succinct way to ask a second question would be to say: When you had your aha moment in understanding delegates, what was the context/scenario/source? Thank you!

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  • Best Practices For Secure APIs?

    - by Ferrett Steinmetz
    Let's say I have a website that has a lot of information on our products. I'd like some of our customers (including us!) to be able to look up our products for various methods, including: 1) Pulling data from AJAX calls that return data in cool, JavaScripty-ways 2) Creating iPhone applications that use that data; 3) Having other web applications use that data for their own end. Normally, I'd just create an API and be done with it. However, this data is in fact mildly confidential - which is to say that we don't want our competitors to be able to look up all our products every morning and then automatically set their prices to undercut us. And we also want to be able to look at who might be abusing the system, so if someone's making ten million complex calls to our API a day and bogging down our server, we can cut them off. My next logical step would be then to create a developers' key to restrict access - which would work fine for web apps, but not so much for any AJAX calls. (As I see it, they'd need to provide the key in the JavaScript, which is in plaintext and easily seen, and hence there's actually no security at all. Particularly if we'd be using our own developers' keys on our site to make these AJAX calls.) So my question: after looking around at Oauth and OpenID for some time, I'm not sure there is a solution that would handle all three of the above. Is there some sort of canonical "best practices" for developers' keys, or can Oauth and OpenID handle AJAX calls easily in some fashion I have yet to grok, or am I missing something entirely?

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  • Grails - Where to store properties related to domains

    - by GalmWing
    This is something I have been struggling about for some time now. The thing is: I have many (20 or so) static arrays of values. I say static because that is how I'm actually storing them, as static arrays inside some domains. For example, if I have a list of known websites, I do: class Website { ... static websites = ["web1", "web2" ...] } But I do this just while developing, because I can easily change the arrays if needed, but what I'm going to do when the application is ready for deployment? In my project it is very probable that, at some point, these arrays of values change. I've been researching on that matter, one can store application properties inside an external .properties file, but it will be impossible to store an array, even futile, because if some array gets an additional value, the application can't recognize it until the name of the new property is added where needed. Another approach is to store this information in the database, but for some reason it seems like a waste to add 20 or more tables that will have just two rows, an id and a name. And the last option, as far as I know, would be an XML, but I'm not very experienced with those. It seems groovy has a way of creating and reading XML files relatively easy, but I don't know how difficult would be to modify an XML whose layout is predefined in the application. Needless to say that storing them in the config.groovy is not an option since any change will require to recompile. I haven't come across some "standard" (maybe a best practice?) way of dealing with these. So the questions is: Where to store these arrays?

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  • Help me find article on Multi-threading and Event Handling in Java

    - by JDR
    I once read an article on how to properly write event handlers for multi-threading in Java, but I can't for the life of me find it anymore. It described the pitfalls and potentials for deadlocks that can occur when firing events (not Swing events mind you, but general events like model update notifications). To clarify, the situation would be as such: // let's say this is code from an MVC model somewhere public void setSomeProperty(String myProperty){ if(!this.myProperty.equals(myProperty)){ this.myProperty = myProperty; fireMyPropertyChangedEvent(...); } } The article described how passing control to arbitrary external listener code was a potential cause for deadlock. I now find myself in a situation where I need to fire such events in a multithreaded environment and I would very much like to read the article again to see what it has to say before I continue. Does anyone know the article I'm referring to? I believe it came as a (fairly short) PDF. It started off with an initial naive implementation and incrementally pointed out flaws and improved upon it. It ended with a sort of final proper-way-to-fire-multithreaded-events. I've searched endlessly in my browse history and on google, but all I could find were endless amounts topics on Swing event dispatch threads. Thank you.

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  • Manipulating/changing adressbar link Help

    - by Karem
    I am out of my own "ideas" going through this. I have a album viewer. When you click next I want the adressbar to hang with it, e.g if you start on ?photoid=1, and click next (next picture appends and stuff), and then i want it to say ?photoid=2. Now I cant make it say ?photoid=2 without changing/manipulating, and this you cant do without HTML5. I have made a script in HTML5 that works fine, but then I need to take care of those who dont have HTML5(only chrome, ff4 etc supports html5) Made the script from this( https://developer.mozilla.org/en/DOM/Manipulating_the_browser_history ) I thought of adding #photoid=2 so, ?photoid=1#photoid=2 and then check if theres anything in # then use that instead of the $_GET.. But apparently you cannot do that as # is client side handled and never sent to the server. So what should I then do? Any suggestions please to make a workaround this? I checked facebook, what they did to IE users, and I could hear that it "clicked" (the annoying click sound from IE) twice.. the first was to get to the next picture, the second click sound changed the adressbar?!(how?). And then I also thought hey, html5 is only supported in ff4, and I got ff3.6, and they manipulate the adress bar url when you browse through the album photos, exactly like how I wanted (and what I have written for but it only works in Chrome and ff4..?). How could they do that?

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  • In Ruby, why is a method invocation not able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is used?

    - by Jian Lin
    The following question is related to the question "Ruby Print Inject Do Syntax". My question is, can we insist on using do and end and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is an instance method of the Array object, and this instance method takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function or method and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work in the earlier example? What if a programmer insist that he uses do and end, can it be made to work?

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  • iPad pushing a split view in navigator-based application

    - by FabioWong
    I had read a lot of post from the web, but I still cannot find out how can I make this out. Please help me in detail. I need to make a split-view inside a navigation because I need to make a login system. After login, then we can see the split view. I found that someone say must need to set it to be root view, some say do not need. However I cannot do it in both way. Can anyone teach me how to do that step by step?? Here is what I did. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; GOTSorOE_EN *gotsORoeEN = [[[GOTSorOE_EN alloc]initWithNibName:@"GOTSorOE_EN" bundle:nil]autorelease]; OEFileList_EN *oeFileListEN = [[[OEFileList_EN alloc]initWithNibName:@"OEFileList_EN" bundle:nil]autorelease]; gotsORoeEN.oeFileListEN = oeFileListEN; splitViewController = [[[UISplitViewController alloc]init]autorelease]; splitViewController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:gotsORoeEN, oeFileListEN, nil]; self.view = splitViewController.view; }

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  • How to: StructureMap and configuration based on runtime parameters?

    - by user981375
    In a nutshell - I want to be able to instantiate object based on runtime parameters. In this particular case there are only two parameters but the problem is that I'm facing different permutations of these parameters and it gets messy. Here is the situation: I want to get an instance of an object specific to, say, given country and then, say, specific state/province. So, considering the US, there are 50 possible combinations. In reality it's less than that but that's the max. Think of it this way, I want to find out what's the penalty for smoking pot in a given country/state, I pass this information in and I get instantiated object telling me what it is. To the code (for reference only): interface IState { string Penalty { get; } } interface ICountry { IState State { get; set; } string Name { get; } } class BasePenalty : IState { virtual public string Penalty { get { return "Slap on a wrist"; } } } class USA : ICountry { public USA(IState state) { State = state; } public IState State { get; set; } public string Name { get { return "USA"; } } } class Florida: BasePenalty { public override string Penalty { get { return "Public beheading"; } } } // and so on ... I defined other states // which have penalties other than the "Slap on a wrist" How do I configure my container that when given country and state combination it will return the penalty? I tried combinations of profile and contextual binding but that configuration was directly proportional to the number of classes I've created. I have already gone thru trouble of defining different combinations. I'd like to avoid having to do the same during container configuration. I want to inject State into the Country. Also, I'd like to return UsaBasePenalty value in case state is not specified. Is that possible? Perhaps these is something wrong with the design.

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  • A better solution than element.Elements("Whatever").First()?

    - by codeka
    I have an XML file like this: <SiteConfig> <Sites> <Site Identifier="a" /> <Site Identifier="b" /> <Site Identifier="c" /> </Sites> </SiteConfig> The file is user-editable, so I want to provide reasonable error message in case I can't properly parse it. I could probably write a .xsd for it, but that seems kind of overkill for a simple file. So anyway, when querying for the list of <Site> nodes, there's a couple of ways I could do it: var doc = XDocument.Load(...); var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Element("SiteConfig").Element("SiteUrls").Elements("Sites") select siteNode; But the problem with this is that if the user has not included the <SiteUrls> node (say) it'll just throw a NullReferenceException which doesn't really say much to the user about what actually went wrong. Another possibility is just to use Elements() everywhere instead of Element(), but that doesn't always work out when coupled with calls to Attribute(), for example, in the following situation: var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Elements("SiteConfig") .Elements("SiteUrls") .Elements("Sites") where siteNode.Attribute("Identifier").Value == "a" select siteNode; (That is, there's no equivalent to Attributes("xxx").Value) Is there something built-in to the framework to handle this situation a little better? What I would prefer is a version of Element() (and of Attribute() while we're at it) that throws a descriptive exception (e.g. "Looking for element <xyz> under <abc> but no such element was found") instead of returning null. I could write my own version of Element() and Attribute() but it just seems to me like this is such a common scenario that I must be missing something...

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  • Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

    - by LaserBeak
    Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

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  • How to parse a string (by a "new" markup) with R ?

    - by Tal Galili
    Hi all, I want to use R to do string parsing that (I think) is like a simplistic HTML parsing. For example, let's say we have the following two variables: Seq <- "GCCTCGATAGCTCAGTTGGGAGAGCGTACGACTGAAGATCGTAAGGtCACCAGTTCGATCCTGGTTCGGGGCA" Str <- ">>>>>>>..>>>>........<<<<.>>>>>.......<<<<<.....>>>>>.......<<<<<<<<<<<<." Say that I want to parse "Seq" According to "Str", by using the legend here Seq: GCCTCGATAGCTCAGTTGGGAGAGCGTACGACTGAAGATCGTAAGGtCACCAGTTCGATCCTGGTTCGGGGCA Str: >>>>>>>..>>>>........<<<<.>>>>>.......<<<<<.....>>>>>.......<<<<<<<<<<<<. | | | | | | | || | +-----+ +--------------+ +---------------+ +---------------++-----+ | Stem 1 Stem 2 Stem 3 | | | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ Stem 0 Assume that we always have 4 stems (0 to 3), but that the length of letters before and after each of them can very. The output should be something like the following list structure: list( "Stem 0 opening" = "GCCTCGA", "before Stem 1" = "TA", "Stem 1" = list(opening = "GCTC", inside = "AGTTGGGA", closing = "GAGC" ), "between Stem 1 and 2" = "G", "Stem 2" = list(opening = "TACGA", inside = "CTGAAGA", closing = "TCGTA" ), "between Stem 2 and 3" = "AGGtC", "Stem 3" = list(opening = "ACCAG", inside = "TTCGATC", closing = "CTGGT" ), "After Stem 3" = "", "Stem 0 closing" = "TCGGGGC" ) I don't have any experience with programming a parser, and would like advices as to what strategy to use when programming something like this (and any recommended R commands to use). What I was thinking of is to first get rid of the "Stem 0", then go through the inner string with a recursive function (let's call it "seperate.stem") that each time will split the string into: 1. before stem 2. opening stem 3. inside stem 4. closing stem 5. after stem Where the "after stem" will then be recursively entered into the same function ("seperate.stem") The thing is that I am not sure how to try and do this coding without using a loop. Any advices will be most welcomed.

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  • How to view my Android app created database, via my android app?

    - by suufang
    I'm creating an application that collects users location (Cell broadcast location code) and saves that location with a name of users option, for example say my CB location code is 546034, now my app allows me to store that location code with a name of my choice say 'Home'. So, essentially my app has that following modules, To collect users CB location. To collect a custom name from user of that location. To store these values in a database. I've succeeded in doing all the above modules. I have a sub-module for my third module which has an option for user, of showing and deleting the database values, the screen shot looks as follows, Now, Users should be able to view and delete entries when he chooses the option 'View my database of locations' I've learned how to query my database values and I'm stuck with creating a list view and providing the delete option. My code for getting the database values and querying values goes as follows, submit.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { String locname = name.getText().toString(); if(locname.length()==0) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Please enter the location name, for example 'Home'.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { SQLiteDatabase cd = openOrCreateDatabase("mydata", MODE_WORLD_READABLE, null); cd.execSQL("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS MLITable (CblocationCode INT(10), CblocationName VARCHAR);"); cd.execSQL("INSERT INTO MLITable VALUES ('"+str+ "','"+locname+ "');"); cd.close(); Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "value successfully entered.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }); viewdb.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { // here comes the code for viewing the database and deleting SQLiteDatabase db = openOrCreateDatabase("mydata", MODE_WORLD_READABLE, null); Cursor c = db.rawQuery("SELECT * FROM MLITble", null); db.close(); } }); I can see that I've read the table values, but I'm not able to create a display for those values. Help required. Thank you.

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  • A specific data structure

    - by user550413
    Well, this question is a bit specific but I think there is some general idea in it that I can't get it. Lets say I got K servers (which is a constant that I know its size). I have a program that get requests and every request has an id and server id that will handle it. I have n requests - unknown size and can be any number. I need a data structure to support the next operations within the given complexity: GetServer - the function gets the request ID and returns the server id that is supposed to handle this request at the current situation and not necessarily the original server (see below). Complexity: O(log K) at average. KillServer - the function gets as input a server id that should be removed and another server id that all the requests of the removed server should be passed to. Complexity: O(1) at the worst case. -- Place complexity for all the structure is O(K+n) -- The KillServer function made me think using a Union-Find as I can do the union in O(1) as requested but my problem is the first operation. Why it's LogK? Actually, no matter how I "save" the requests if I want to access to any request (lets say it's an AVL tree) so the complexity will be O(log n) at the worst case and said that I can't assume Kn (and probably K Tried thinking about it a couple of hours but I can't find any solution. Known structures that can be used are: B+ tree, AVL tree, skip list, hash table, Union-Find, rank tree and of course all the basics like arrays and such.

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  • Is a web-server (e.g servlets) a good solution for an IM server?

    - by John
    I'm looking at a new app, broadly speaking an IM application with a strong client-server model - all communications go through a server so they can be logged centrally. The server will be Java in some form, clients could at this point be anything from a .NET Desktop app to Flex/Silverlight, to a simple web-interface using JS/AJAX. I had anticipated doing the server using standard J2EE so I get a thread-safe, multi-user server for 'free'... to make things simple let's say using Servlets (but in practice SpringMVC would be likely). This all seemed very neat but I'm concerned if the stateless nature of Servlets is the best approach. If my memory of servlets (been a year or two) is right, each time a client sent a HTTP request, typically a new message entered by the user, the servlet could not assume it had the user/chat in memory and might have to get it from the DB... regardless it has to look it up. Then it either has to use some PUSH system to inform other members of the chat, or cache that there are new messages, for other clients who poll the server using AJAX or similar - and when they poll it again has to lookup the chat, including new messages, and send the new data. I'm wondering if a better system would be the server is running core Java, and implements a socket-based communication with clients. This allows much more immediate data transfer and is more flexible if say the IM client included some game you could play. But then you're writing a custom server and sockets don't sound very friendly to a browser-based client on current browsers. Am I missing some big piece of the puzzle here, it kind of feels like I am? Perhaps a better way to ask the question would simply be "if the client was browser-based using HTML/JS and had to run on IE7+,FF2+ (i.e no HTML5), how would you implement the server?" edit: if you are going to suggest using XMPP, I have been trying to get my head around this in another question, so please consider if that's a more appropriate place to discuss this specifically.

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  • Why doesn't Firefox redownload images already on a page?

    - by vvo
    Hello, i just read this article : https://developer.mozilla.org/en/HTTP_Caching_FAQ There's a firefox behavior (and some other browsers i guess) i'd like to understand : if i take any webpage and try to insert the same image multiple times in javascript, the image is only downloaded ONCE even if i specifiy all needed headers to say "do no ever use cache". (see article) I know there are workarounds (like addind query strings to end of urls etc) but why do firefox act like that, if i say that an image do not have to be cached, why is the image still taken from cache when i try to re-insert it ? Plus, what cache is used for this ? (I guess it's the memory cache) Is this behavior the same for dynamic inclusion for example ? ANSWSER IS NO :) I just tested it and the same headers for a js script will make firefox redownload it each time you append the script to the DOM. PS: I know you're wondering WHY i need to do that (appending same image multiple times and force to redownload but this is the way our app works) thank you The good answer is : firefox will store images for the current page load in the memory cache even if you specify he doesnt have to cache them. You can't change this behavior but this is odd because it's not the same for javascript files for example Could someone explain or link to a document describing how firefox cache WORKS?

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  • How to combine two rows and calculate the time difference between two timestamp values in MySQL?

    - by Nadar
    I have a situation that I'm sure is quite common and it's really bothering me that I can't figure out how to do it or what to search for to find a relevant example/solution. I'm relatively new to MySQL (have been using MSSQL and PostgreSQL earlier) and every approach I can think of is blocked by some feature lacking in MySQL. I have a "log" table that simply lists many different events with their timestamp (stored as datetime type). There's lots of data and columns in the table not relevant to this problem, so lets say we have a simple table like this: CREATE TABLE log ( id INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(16), ts DATETIME NOT NULL, eventtype VARCHAR(25), PRIMARY KEY (id) ) Let's say that some rows have an eventtype = 'start' and others have an eventtype = 'stop'. What I want to do is to somehow couple each "startrow" with each "stoprow" and find the time difference between the two (and then sum the durations per each name, but that's not where the problem lies). Each "start" event should have a corresponding "stop" event occuring at some stage later then the "start" event, but because of problems/bugs/crashed with the data collector it could be that some are missing. In that case I would like to disregard the event without a "partner". That means that given the data: foo, 2010-06-10 19:45, start foo, 2010-06-10 19:47, start foo, 2010-06-10 20:13, stop ..I would like to just disregard the 19:45 start event and not just get two result rows both using the 20:13 stop event as the stop time. I've tried to join the table with itself in different ways, but the key problems for me seems to be to find a way to correctly identify the corresponding "stop" event to the "start" event for the given "name". The problem is exactly the same as you would have if you had table with employees stamping in and out of work and wanted to find out how much they actually were at work. I'm sure there must be well known solutions to this, but I can't seem to find them...

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  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

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  • C++: Vector of objects vs. vector of pointers to new objects?

    - by metamemetics
    Hello, I am seeking to improve my C++ skills by writing a sample software renderer. It takes objects consisting of points in a 3d space and maps them to a 2d viewport and draws circles of varying size for each point in view. Which is better: class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass2()); or... class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass*> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass2()); ?? Would be using pointers in the 2nd example to create new objects defeat the point of using vectors, because vectors automatically call the DerivedClass destructors in the first example but not in the 2nd? Are pointers to new objects necessary when using vectors because they handle memory management themselves as long as you use their access methods? Now let's say I have another method in world: void drawfrom(Viewport& view){ for (unsigned int i=0;i<object_list.size();++i){ object_list.at(i).draw(view); } } When called this will run the draw method for every object in the world list. Let's say I want derived classes to be able to have their own versions of draw(). Would the list need to be of pointers then in order to use the method selector (-) ?

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  • Magic Method __set() on a Instanciated Object

    - by streetparade
    Ok i have a problem, sorry if i cant explaint it clear but the code speaks for its self. i have a class which generates objects from a given class name; Say we say the class is Modules: public function name($name) { $this->includeModule($name); try { $module = new ReflectionClass($name); $instance = $module->isInstantiable() ? $module->newInstance() : "Err"; $this->addDelegate($instance); } catch(Exception $e) { Modules::Name("Logger")->log($e->getMessage()); } return $this; } The AddDelegate Method: protected function addDelegate($delegate) { $this->aDelegates[] = $delegate; } The __call Method public function __call($methodName, $parameters) { $delegated = false; foreach ($this->aDelegates as $delegate) { if(class_exists(get_class($delegate))) { if(method_exists($delegate,$methodName)) { $method = new ReflectionMethod(get_class($delegate), $methodName); $function = array($delegate, $methodName); return call_user_func_array($function, $parameters); } } } The __get Method public function __get($property) { foreach($this->aDelegates as $delegate) { if ($delegate->$property !== false) { return $delegate->$property; } } } All this works fine expect the function __set public function __set($property,$value) { //print_r($this->aDelegates); foreach($this->aDelegates as $k=>$delegate) { //print_r($k); //print_r($delegate); if (property_exists($delegate, $property)) { $delegate->$property = $value; } } //$this->addDelegate($delegate); print_r($this->aDelegates); } class tester { public function __set($name,$value) { self::$module->name(self::$name)->__set($name,$value); } } Module::test("logger")->log("test"); // this logs, it works echo Module::test("logger")->path; //prints /home/bla/test/ this is also correct But i cant set any value to class log like this Module::tester("logger")->path ="/home/bla/test/log/"; The path property of class logger is public so its not a problem of protected or private property access. How can i solve this issue? I hope i could explain my problem clear.

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  • Response Redirect - Open Link in New Window

    - by bacis09
    First, I've taken the time to review this question which seems to be the most similar, however, the solution that seems to have been selected will not work in my scenario.Not to mention I worry about some of the comments claiming it to be brittle or an inadequate solution. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/104601/asp-net-response-redirect-to-new-window -We have an XML document which basically contains all of the information for a Side menu. -We have numerous URLS which are stored in a constants class. -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it label) is used to determine if the menu item is created as a LinkButton or a Label. -Links use a custom user control that is used standard for all links across the application (why suggestion on similar thread doesn't work - I don't want all links to open in a new window - just one) -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it function) is used in a Switch statement to generate our links using Response Redirect. It may look something like this. switch (function) { case goto 1: string url; if (user_group == 1) { url = Constants.CONSTANT1 } else { url = Constants.CONSTANT2 } Response.Redirect(url) case goto 2: ...... default: ...... break; } Given this scenario, I'm trying to find the best way to quickly open a New Window, when a specific case in this switch statement is met. Can it be done with Response Redirect (this seems to be arguable - people say no it can't, yet other people say they have made it work)? If not, what alternative can work here?

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  • Target a link if that link links to the current page?

    - by Des
    this may be a stupid question as I can't seem to find an answer :P Is there a way with javascript/jQuery to Target all links on a page ONLY if they link to the current page? Say i've got a static sidebar on ALL pages, for intents and purposes: <ul id="sidebar"> <li><a href="/one">One</a></li> <li><a href="/two">Two</a></li> <li><a href="/three">Three</a></li> </ul> Notice the code for ALL of them is the same. Let's say I'm on "www.domain.com/two" - Is there a way to target <li><a href="#">Two</a></li> because it's linking to the current page? ***ANSWERED***** The guy deleted his answer - but I used it to create this - var linksToCurrentPage = $('a[href="' + window.location.href + '"]'); if (linksToCurrentPage) { $('a').addClass('currently-active'); }; which worked :)

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  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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  • Automatic adition of `using` in CodeRush.

    - by drasto
    I just installed CodeRush Pro (evaluation trial) for Visual Studio and I can say I like it much so far. Comparing to Resharper there is only one type of feature I'm really missing. It is the way CodeRush deals with using. When I type some class name that is not declared in some package listed in using, CodeRush underlines it red as an error(what it is) but if I hover over it with cursor it does not offer me to add using, it merely says it is "Undeclared element". I have to use VS default using addition (move caret to the identifier, hover cursor over that really small box that appears under first letter, click the button that appears and choose for example using System form a drop down menu). Is there a way how to configure CodeRush to offer mi add using when I hover a cursor over highlighted "issue"(that says Undeclared element)? The second part of this is that Resharper has somethink called Type name completion. It some improved intellisense. Lets say you have no using declaration in your file. Then you type something like ICompar and press CTRL+SPACE. Of cause there will be no suggestions. But with Resharper you can press CTRL+ALT+SPACE and you get suggestions of all classes starting with ICompar even if they are not in using. When you choose one of them the correct using is automatically added for you. Is there a way to make CodeRush behave this way ?

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