Search Results

Search found 16987 results on 680 pages for 'second'.

Page 95/680 | < Previous Page | 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102  | Next Page >

  • Ideas for building vulnerabilities into your site?

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    I'm trying to create a programming challenge that would require developers to hack into the MVC site I create. The idea is obviously to teach them about preventing these types of attacks. The current idea I have is to build multiple vulnerabilities into the site - but the second vulnerability would require the first to be completed, etc. So I was thinking the first could be a sql injection attack, the second would require a modified GET request, etc. Exploiting the final vulnerability would reveal a specific piece of information which is proof that you have completed the entire challenge. This will not be deployed on a public site - it's simply a learning tool for developers at my company. I'm not looking for MVC-specific vulnerabilities - I'm simply using MVC because it allows me to work with the 'raw' HTML. Any ideas on the different vulnerabilities I can use?

    Read the article

  • Does CAS Support Application Level Impersonation?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have a PHP application that is successfully authenticating against a CAS server. One of the features supported by the application is impersonation; a user with the appropriate privileges can impersonate another of the application. Generally, this isn't a problem because the app itself can keep track of who the user is impersonating and manage privileges (which are based on username). A new requirement has come up, though, that requires the original app to include, via an iframe, content from a second PHP app that is also CAS-enabled. Somehow, I need for the second app to know whether impersonation is happening in the first. I don't want to pass usernames around for security reasons, so I'm wondering whether I can offload the responsibility for handling impersonation to the CAS server which is shared by both apps. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to import a module from a directory?

    - by Roman
    On my system I have two versions of Python (to call them I type python and python2 in the command line). When I use the first version of Python, I cannot import sklearn module but I can do it in the second version of Python. I would like to use the first version of python (because other modules are available there) and, at the same time, I would like to be able to import sklearn from this version of Python. My solution was to use: import sys sys.path.append('location_of_the_sklearn_module') To find the location of the sklearn module I started a python session (using the second version of python, in which sklearn works). The I type: import sklearn sklearn.__file__ As a result I got: /home/name/my_name/numpy/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/sklearn/__init__.pyc In the session of the first version of Python I tried: import sys sys.path.append('/home/name/my_name/numpy/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/sklearn') import sklearn Unfortunately it did not work. As a result I got: ImportError: No module named sklearn Does anybody know what I am doing wrong and if it is possible to reach the goal in the way I try?

    Read the article

  • Powershell function that creates a array by input

    - by user2971548
    I'm quite new to Powershell and working on a little project with functions. What I'm trying to do is creating a function that takes 2 arguments. The first argument ($Item1) decides the size of the array, the second argument ($Item2) decides the value of the indexes. So if I write: $addToArray 10 5 I need the function to create a array with 10 indexes and the value 5 in each of them. The second argument would also have to take "text" as a value. This is my code so far. $testArray = @(); $indexSize = 0; function addToArray($Item1, $Item2) { while ($indexSize -ne $Item1) { $indexSize ++; } Write-host "###"; while ($Item2 -ne $indexSize) { $script:testArray += $Item2; $Item2 ++; } } Any help is appreciated. Kind regards Dennis Berntsson

    Read the article

  • MySQL Rank Not Matching High Score in Table

    - by boddie
    While making a game the MySQL call to get the top 10 is as follows: SELECT username, score FROM userinfo ORDER BY score DESC LIMIT 10 This seems to work decently enough, but when paired with a call to get a individual player's rank the numbers may be different if the player has a tied score with other players. The call to get the players rank is as follows: SELECT (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM userinfo ui WHERE (ui.score, ui.username) >= (uo.score, uo.username)) AS rank FROM userinfo uo WHERE username='boddie'; Example results from first call: +------------+-------+ | username | score | +------------+-------+ | admin | 4878 | | test3 | 3456 | | char | 785 | | test2 | 456 | | test1 | 253 | | test4 | 78 | | test7 | 0 | | boddie | 0 | | Lz | 0 | | char1 | 0 | +------------+-------+ Example results from second call +------+ | rank | +------+ | 10 | +------+ As can be seen, the first call ranks the player at number 8 on the list, but the second call puts him at number 10. What changes or what can I do to make these calls give matching results? Thank you in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • Weblogic Apache plugin and session stickiness

    - by h4tech
    If two webserver are configured in between a load balancer and weblogic cluster, will the two Apache server maintain session stickiness.?? Say for e.g. the load balancer forwards the first request to the 1st apache and inturn 1st apache forwards to 1st WL managed instance.Even if the second req from the same user is forwarded by the load balancer to the second apache, will the sec apache be able to forward it to the 1st WLManaged instance which served the first request rather than the sec WLManaged instance which is not aware of the session information at all.What should ideally be the behaviour of weblogic apache plugin??.Catch is i dont want ot enable the session replication @ the wl server cluster..Pls help.

    Read the article

  • Cloning a selector + all its children in jQuery?

    - by HipHop-opatamus
    I'm having trouble getting the following JQuery script to function properly - its functionality is as follows: 1) Hide the content below each headline 2) Upon clicking a headline, substitute the "#first-post" with the headline + the hidden content below the headline. I can only seem to get the script to clone the headline itself to #first-post, not the headline + the content beneath it. Any idea why? <HTML> <HEAD> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> </HEAD> <script> $(document).ready( function(){ $('.title').siblings().hide(); $('.title').click( function() { $('#first-post').replaceWith($(this).closest(".comment").clone().attr('id','first-post')); $('html, body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 'fast'); return false; }); }); </script> <BODY> <div id="first-post"> <div class="content"><p>This is a test discussion topic</p> </div> </div> <div class="comment"> <h2 class="title"><a href="#1">1st Post</a></h2> <div class="content"> <p>this is 1st reply to the original post</p> </div> <div class="test">1st post second line</div> </div> <div class="comment"> <h2 class="title"><a href="#2">2nd Post</a></h2> <div class="content"> <p>this is 2nd reply to the original post</p> </div> <div class="test">2nd post second line</div> </div> </div> <div class="comment"> <h2 class="title"><a href="#3">3rd Post</a></h2> <div class="content"> <p>this is 3rd reply to the original post</p> </div> <div class="test">3rd post second line</div> </div> </div> </BODY> </HTML>

    Read the article

  • How to create a "sidebar" in Umbraco CMS?

    - by usr
    In Umbraco, every page has a content field that you can edit in the admin-area. What I want would be a second content field that I (actually my customer who will be editing the content by himself) can edit on every page. I would then create a masterpage/template that contains the two content areas (the first one as the main content and the second one as the sidebar). At least this is how I would do it. Is this possible or is there even a better approach for having a main content and a separate sidebar on every page?

    Read the article

  • Insert into a generic dictionary with possibility of duplicate keys?

    - by Chris Clark
    Is there any reason to favor one of these approaches over the other when inserting into a generic dictionary with the possibility of a key conflict? I'm building an in-memory version of a static collection so in the case of a conflict it doesn't matter whether the old or new value is used. If Not mySettings.ContainsKey(key) Then mySettings.Add(key, Value) End If Versus mySettings(key) = Value And then of course there is this, which is obviously not the right approach: Try mySettings.Add(key, Value) Catch End Try Clearly the big difference here is that the first and second approaches actually do different things, but in my case it doesn't matter. It seems that the second approach is cleaner, but I'm curious if any of you .net gurus have any deeper insight. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SQl Server: serializable level not working

    - by Zé Carlos
    I have the following SP: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_LockReader] AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; begin try set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran select * from teste commit tran end try begin catch rollback tran set transaction isolation level READ COMMITTED end catch set transaction isolation level READ COMMITTED END The table "test" has many values, so "select * from teste" takes several seconds. I run the sp_LockReader at same time in two diferent query windows and the second one starts showing test table contents without the first one terminates. Shouldn't serializeble level forces the second query to wait? How do i get the described behaviour? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can we you the attached properties in C# class library?

    - by Manas Agarwal
    Hi I have implemented the Observer Pattern with lazy load. The class that requests the data from the database is a singleton class. Now I am able to load the data from one database (located in one datacenter) very easily. But I need to get the data from other data centers too and display on the same UI. I can somehow pass the address of second data center and fetch the data from there also. But once I will get the data from second data center, it will be added to earlier list only. So later it will be thought for me to distinguish between the data. So I thought of attaching a property with the result set, so that while displaying the output I can show the data for both the data centers separately but on the same UI. I thought of attached property as an option where I can attach the data center name with the list of the data obtained. How is it possible to do in C#? Thanks Manas

    Read the article

  • Custom dynamic listview in wpf for showing combobox ?

    - by Indigo Praveen
    Hi All, I want to create an application in WPF in which I have to create a gridview kind of control and in that I'll have two columns, first column is fixed but in the second column I have to create comboboxes at runtime. For example if I have a setting like <key="Level" Value="1,2,3,4,5"/> then the first column will have Level and the second column will have a combobox with values 1,2,3,4,5. Can anyone please suggest me the right WPF control to use in this scenario and how it can be done ?

    Read the article

  • Using numeric values to select item from a dropdown box with JavaScript

    - by Shyam
    Hi, I have a multitude of dropdown boxes within my webpage. One of these dropdown boxes is used for a single selected value out of a list of options. <SELECT id="Box0" name=""> <OPTION value="0">none</OPTION> <OPTION value="1">first</OPTION> <OPTION value="2">second</OPTION> </SELECT> How can I add an event to this section, so when it is in focus, I could use numeric keys like 1,2.. to select an option instead of using the mouse or arrow keys for selecting an option? For clarification: if I press "1" on my keyboard, the selected value would become "first", with "2" the selected value becomes "second". I choose not to use a library/framework such as JQuery/Mootools. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Controlling LaTeX column flow

    - by hdhermans
    What I'm trying to do: I have a page that consists of pairs of two sentences each. The pairs are separated by a whole line break. My problem is that when I have an odd number of pairs, the second sentence will automatically be placed on the next column. How can I use LaTeX to make block structures that multicol does not ignore, to keep the two sentences together? If there's better code to solve this problem, or a better column implementation (though I don't believe I can use \twocolumn in the document declaration), please post it. My current code: \documentclass{article} \usepackage{fullpage} \usepackage{multicol} \setlength{\parindent}{0pt} \setlength{\parskip}{\baselineskip} \newcommand{\pair}[2]{ \emph{#1}\\* #2 } \begin{document} \begin{multicols}{2} \pair{Sentence 1.}{Sentence 2.} \pair{Sentence 2 (pair 2).}{Sentence 2 (pair 2).} \pair{The last pair, first sentence.}{Last sentence.} \end{multicols} \end{document} This generates: http://img541.imageshack.us/img541/3444/columns.png . The second pair is what I am trying to avoid.

    Read the article

  • Can I move the order of XCode, Cocoa, and User Templates around in XCode 3.1?

    - by Warren P
    I followed the other questions on StackOverflow and made custom User Templates. Instead of replacing the factory default Cocoa class template, I have to pick a new user template. The order that is shown in XCode's New File dialog box is: iPhone templates first (great if you mostly do iphone development) Second the User templates Third the default Mac OS templates. I want my user stuff first, Mac OS templates second, and I want to bury iPhone templates in third and last place. The sort is obviously not alphabetical. And you can't drag/drop reorder. (At least not in xcode 3.1.3)? From stackoverflow

    Read the article

  • Should I use implicit conversions to enforce preconditions?

    - by Malvolio
    It occurs to me that I could use use implicit conversions to both announce and enforce preconditions. Consider this: object NonNegativeDouble { implicit def int2nnd(d : Double) : NonNegativeDouble = new NonNegativeDouble(d) implicit def nnd2int(d : NonNegativeDouble) : Double = d.v def sqrt(n : NonNegativeDouble) : NonNegativeDouble = scala.math.sqrt(n) } class NonNegativeDouble(val v : Double ) { if (v < 0) { throw new IllegalArgumentException("negative value") } } object Test { def t1 = { val d : Double = NonNegativeDouble.sqrt(3.0); printf("%f\n", d); val n : Double = NonNegativeDouble.sqrt(-3.0); } } Ignore for the moment the actual vacuity of the example: my point is, the subclass NonNegativeDouble expresses the notion that a function only takes a subset of the entire range of the class's values. First is this: A good idea, a bad idea, or an obvious idea everybody else already knows about Second, this would be most useful with basic types, like Int and String. Those classes are final, of course, so is there a good way to not only use the restricted type in functions (that's what the second implicit is for) but also delegate to all methods on the underlying value (short of hand-implementing every delegation)?

    Read the article

  • Unicorn: Which number of worker processes to use?

    - by blackbird07
    I am running a Ruby on Rails app on a virtual Linux server that is capped at 1GB RAM. Currently, I am constantly hitting the limit and would like to optimize memory utilization. One option I am looking at is reducing the number of unicorn workers. So what is the best way to determine the number of unicorn workers to use? The current setting is 10 workers, but the maximum number of requests per second I have seen on Google Analytics Real-Time is 3 (only scored once at a peak time; in 99% of the time not going above 1 request per second). So is it a save assumption that I can - for now - go with 4 workers, leaving room for unexpected amounts of requests? What are the metrics I should have a look at for determining the number of workers and what are the tools I can use for that on my Ubuntu machine?

    Read the article

  • How to structure (normalize?) a database of physical parameters?

    - by Arrieta
    Hello: I have a collection of physical parameters associated with different items. For example: Item, p1, p2, p3 a, 1, 2, 3 b, 4, 5, 6 [...] where px stands for parameter x. I could go ahead and store the database exactly as presented; the schema would be CREATE TABLE t1 (item TEXT PRIMARY KEY, p1 FLOAT, p2 FLOAT, p3 FLOAT); I could retrieve the parameter p1 for all the items with the statement: SELECT p1 FROM t1; A second alternative is to have an schema like: CREATE TABLE t1 (id INT PRIMARY KEY, item TEXT, par TEXT, val FLOAT) This seems much simpler if you have many parameters (as I do). However, the parameter retrieval seems very awkward: SELECT val FROM t1 WHERE par == 'p1' What do you advice? Should go for the "pivoted" (first) version or the id, par, val (second) version? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using Timer only once

    - by zaidwaqi
    Hi, I want to use a timer only once, at 1 second after the initialization of my main form. I thought the following would have a message box saying "Hello World" just once, but actually a new message box says "Hello World" every one second. Why so? I had put t.Stop() in the tick event. Also, do I need to dispose the timer somehow to avoid memory leakage? Timer t = new Timer(); t.Interval = 1000; t.Tick += delegate(System.Object o, System.EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Hello World"); t.Stop(); }; t.Start(); Please help and show if there is a better way of doing this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Gracefully avoiding NullPointerException in Java

    - by Yuval A
    Consider this line: if (object.getAttribute("someAttr").equals("true")) { // .... Obviously this line is a potential bug, the attribute might be null and we will get a NullPointerException. So we need to refactor it to one of two choices: First option: if ("true".equals(object.getAttribute("someAttr"))) { // .... Second option: String attr = object.getAttribute("someAttr"); if (attr != null) { if (attr.equals("true")) { // .... The first option is awkward to read but more concise, while the second one is clear in intent, but verbose. Which option do you prefer in terms of readability?

    Read the article

  • extra AuthorizationRule in web.config AuthorizationSection

    - by H07R0D
    I'm trying to modify the list of allowed users in web.config from a codebehind. <authorization> <allow users="alice, bob"/> <deny users="*"/> </authorization> I successfully retrieve the section I need config = WebConfigurationManager.OpenWebConfiguration("~"); authSection = (AuthorizationSection)config.GetSection("system.web/authorization"); When I iterate looking for the allow rule, I get two of them. foreach (AuthorizationRule rule in authSection.Rules) { if (rule.Action == AuthorizationRuleAction.Allow) { // manage the Users StringCollection } } The first item I get has 'alice' and 'bob' in the Users collection. The SECOND item I get has * Where is this second entry coming from? This is an Allow Rule, not a Deny rule. I could understand the * from a Deny rule. Is there some extra inheritance I'm not aware of?

    Read the article

  • Debug a local maven dependency with eclipse

    - by mcamier
    i have two maven projects, the first one is a library and the other one use it to works properly, the both have to elvolve regardless each other, this is why i use two different project. But breakpoints on my library code doesn't work when i launch my app (the second application). This is how i include my library in the second project's POM (my IDE is eclipse and projects are in the same workspaces) <dependency> <groupId>com.mcamier</groupId> <artifactId>lazyEngine</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> <scope>system</scope> <systemPath>${basedir}/../lazyEngine/target/lazyEngine-0.0.1-SNAPSHOT-jar-with-dependencies.jar</systemPath> </dependency>

    Read the article

  • Using Function return in global variable vb.net

    - by Cold Assassin
    Can't seem to figure out how to use a function return variable in global Dims example code: Public Class Main Dim Path As String = FixPath() Dim fixwrongtxt As String = Path & "tryme.txt" Private Sub Main_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load FixPath() On_load() End Sub Private Function FixPath() As String Path = "C:\test" MsgBox(Path) //First Message Box' Return Path End Function Sub On_load() MsgBox(fixwrongtxt) //Second Message Box End Sub End Class when I run it all I get the first message box that contains "C:\test" and I click ok and on the second messagebox I get "custom.dll" with out the "C:\test" or "Path Return" What am I doing wrong? I know I can't use // in vb.net. I have also tried adding "FixPath()" under Sub On_load() but got same result. Also the reason I have to have these global is because I have around 30 Subs that refer to "Path" Variable... Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I create a patch compared to another changeset in Eclipse?

    - by Larsen
    I started working on an open source project that is using CVS where I want to submit patches. After having edited some files, I created a patch from the files that Eclipse showed as changed. Now I need to change a file for the second patch (that file is already in the first changeset), but the changes from the first changeset shouldn´t be in the second changeset. Therefore, I would need to somehow tell Eclipse that it should compare the changes to the result of the first changeset instead of to the CVS head revision. How can I do that?

    Read the article

  • AS3: Synchronize Timer event to actual time?

    - by Nebs
    I plan to use a timer event to fire every second (for a clock application). I may be wrong, but I assume that there will probably be a (very slight) sync issue with the actual system time. For example the timer event might fire when the actual system time milliseconds are at 500 instead of 0 (meaning the seconds will be partially 'out of phase' if you will). Is there a way to either synchronize the timer event to the real time or get some kind of system time event to fire when an second ticks in AS3? Also if I set a Timer to fire every 1000 milliseconds, is that guaranteed or can there be some offset based on the application load? These are probably negligible issues but I'm just curious. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102  | Next Page >