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  • Events fired when you change the contents of a control in Silverlight

    - by nyxtom
    Assuming I change the contents of a control using a XamlReader and add the UIElement to the container of a control, what events are supposed to fire? There are times where the SizeChanged will fire, LayoutUpdated changing.. though there are other times where neither of these occur despite having changing the contents of a control. In my case, I am generating a thumbnail view of what's currently in view on a page. The user can change the content of the page and thus the thumbnail should update accordingly. Though, wiring to the LayoutUpdated, Loaded, SizeChanged aren't always reliable for when the contents have changed. I would just call my InvalidateThumbnail which uses a writeablebitmap, but it's too quick after setting the content and as a result I will get a blank thumbnail. At the moment, my hack (cringes) was to wait a few milliseconds before the UI is done rendering the actual new content and I can reliably create the thumbnail. I'd rather just trigger on an event every time though. Possible? What events should I look at? I've seen CompositeTarget.Rendering but that's not what I want.

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  • Ajax Update Panel Not Displaying Updated Image in IE, Chrome and FireFox

    - by jmease
    I have a parent page with an Ajax Update Panel that contains an image and a button. There is a hyperlink that opens up a child page. When the child page is submitted, there is an onclientclick event that triggers a javascript function that clicks the button in the update panel on the parent page, the button's click event being the trigger for the panel as well as the event that updates the image URL. When I use this on my android tablet, it works perfectly. However, it doesn't work at all on any browser I've used on a PC (Windows XP). The Image URL updates, but the updated image doesn't display without refreshing the entire page. In IE, I can right click on the image and click Show Image and it updates. In Chrome and Firefox, I have to refresh the entire page. Why would an Ajax control only work properly on the Android OS and what could I be doing wrong that would cause the image not to redisplay on my PC without refreshing the page even though the image URL is clearly being updated properly. I suspect a caching issue, but don't know how to correct.

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  • image transistion

    - by Jeff Main
    Hi all. I've gotten stuck again. I've got an image (album cover) that I'll be changing in code behind, and wish to basicaly do the following. When a new album cover image is determine and aquired, I want the current image in the image control to fade out, get updated with the new cover, and then fade back in. I'm not seeing very many good examples on how to accomplish this in code behind. The following was my latest failed attempt... if (currentTrack != previousTrack) { BitmapImage image = new BitmapImage(); image.BeginInit(); image.CacheOption = BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad; image.CreateOptions = BitmapCreateOptions.IgnoreImageCache; image.UriSource = new Uri(Address, UriKind.Absolute); image.EndInit(); Storyboard MyStoryboard = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimation FadeOut = new DoubleAnimation(); FadeOut.From = 1.0; FadeOut.To = 0.0; FadeOut.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.5)); MyStoryboard.Children.Add(FadeOut); Storyboard.SetTargetName(FadeOut, CoverArt.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(FadeOut, new PropertyPath(Rectangle.OpacityProperty)); CoverArt.Source = image; DoubleAnimation Fadein = new DoubleAnimation(); Fadein.From = 0.0; Fadein.To = 1.0; Fadein.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.5)); MyStoryboard.Children.Add(Fadein); Storyboard.SetTargetName(Fadein, CoverArt.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(Fadein, new PropertyPath(Rectangle.OpacityProperty)); MyStoryboard.Begin(this); } I'd prefer to do this in code behind simply because that is where I'm aquiring the image. Otherwise, I'm not sure how I'd trigger it. An example would be greatly appriciated. Thanks.

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  • Shadowbox + jQuery not working - No errors.

    - by Shelton
    First, apologies. I'm a js newb. I'm attempting to trigger a shadowbox with the load of a specific page - a "pop-up" if you will. Nothing happens and according to firebug, there are no errors to report. I should note that this is wordpress, so I'm using the default jQuery call and also shadowbox rolled into a WP plug-in. Shadowbox does work properly in other areas of the site, as do jQuery functions. noConflict() is used because WP also loads prototype by default, which conflicts with the jQuery dollar sign. var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(function(){ //Set cookie $j.cookie('padpop_viewed',true); // open a welcome message as soon as the window loads $j(function() { Shadowbox.open({ content: '<div width="600" height="460" style="margin:auto;"><a href="<?php bloginfo('url');?>"/products/"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url');?>/images/ipad-pop.jpg" width="600" height="460" alt="Redacted"/></a></div>', player: "html", height: "470", width: "610" }); }); }); Any help here would be greatly appreciated as I have spent hours consulting the documentation of each aspect of this. Thanks, S.

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  • Need help making a div appear on the bottom of the screen while the rest of the divs scroll

    - by user1896600
    It's hard to describe my specific problem without just showing you the HTML code. The HTML source can be seen easily from clicking "View Source" while seeing the page http://techdot.us/projects/jeopardy/view.php. The CSS is located here: http://techdot.us/projects/jeopardy/style/gameStyle.css. My main goal is to have the main content table rows/columns appear on the majority of the screen (everything except 69px, to be exact). So, the bottom 69px contains an informational panel that is supposed to stay on the bottom of the screen, even when the user scrolls down the page. Scrolling is supposed to, in theory, trigger the majority of the content to go down the page normally, except the bottom bar which stays static. I have achieved this effect on the website. However, there is a big problem. On smaller screens (as you can simulate by resizing the window), some of the main table gets cut off. It seems that my CSS solution is a botch, and, in effect, does not accomplish my main goal. The bottom bar should not cut off part of the table from the main content div (gameTable), but the main content div should display all of its content in a scrollable fashion. My CSS at the moment works as long as the viewer's screen is a certain pixel height. This is definitely not permanent. Thank you SO much for the help. I really appreciate it and totally understand that I'm being a total pain by just throwing down tons of CSS and HTML code to edit.

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  • Remove the hash after Ajax loading (I'm ajaxing wordpress 8-) )

    - by Alberto
    Hi everybody, I followed this great tutorial to"ajax" my blog:http://www.deluxeblogtips.com/2010/05/how-to-ajaxify-wordpress-theme.html But it creates some problems and I think the problem is in the hash that ajax creates. So, after the content is loaded, how can I remove the hash from the url? I copy my code here: jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var $mainContent = $("#content"), siteUrl = "http://" + top.location.host.toString(), url = ''; $(document).delegate("a[href^='"+siteUrl+"']:not([href*=/wp-admin/]):not([href*=/wp-login.php]):not([href$=/feed/]):not([href*=/go.php]):not(.comment-reply-link)", "click", function() { location.hash = this.pathname; $('html, body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 'fast'); return false; }); $("#searchform").submit(function(e) { location.hash = '?s=' + $("#search").val(); e.preventDefault(); }); $(window).bind('hashchange', function(){ url = window.location.hash.substring(1); if (!url) { return; } url = url + " #inside"; $mainContent.html('<div id="loader">Caricamento in corso...</div>').load(url, function() { //$mainContent.animate({opacity: "1"}); scriptss(); }); }); $(window).trigger('hashchange'); }); Thank all very much!

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  • Stop SQL returning the same result twice in a JOIN

    - by nbs189
    I have joined together several tables to get data i want but since I am new to SQL i can't figure out how to stop data being returned more than once. her's the SQL statement; SELECT T.url, T.ID, S.status, S.ID, E.action, E.ID, E.timestamp FROM tracks T, status S, events E WHERE S.ID AND T.ID = E.ID ORDER BY E.timestamp DESC The data that is returned is something like this; +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | URL | ID | Status | ID | action | ID | timestamp | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | hello | 4 | has uploaded a track | 4 | time | | T.2 | 3 | bye | 3 | has some news | 3 | time | | t.1 | 4 | more | 4 | has some news | 4 | time | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ That's a very basic example but does outline what happens. If you look at the third row the URL is repeated when there is a different status. This is what I want to happen; +-------------------------------------------------------+ | URL or Status | ID | action | timestamp | +-------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | has uploaded a track | time | | hello | 3 | has some news | time | | bye | 4 | has some news | time | +-------------------------------------------------------+ Please notice that the the url (in this case the mock one is T.1) is shown when the action is has uploaded a track. This is very important. The action in the events table is inserted on trigger of a status or track insert. If a new track is inserted the action is 'has uploaded a track' and you guess what it is for a status. The ID and timestamp is also inserted into the events table at this point. Note: There are more tables that go into the query, 3 more in fact, but I have left them out for simplicity.

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  • Data Integration Solution?

    - by Shlomo
    At my company we have a number of data feeds and processing that run on any given day. The number of feeds and processing steps is starting to out-number the ability to manage it ad-hoc as it is managed currently. Is there a good solution that helps with logging and managing/scheduling dependencies? For example: A: When file x is FTP dropped into directory D1, kick off processing step B B: Load flat file into DB1 C: When file y is FTP dropped into directory D2, kick off processing Step D D: Load flat file into DB11 E: When B and D are done, churn through the data, and load new data into DB111. F: When Step E is done, launch application process P G: etc... I want those steps to run at the appropriate times, not to mention if B fails, there's no reason to run steps E & F, but I could still run C & D. When I re-run B successfully, it should trigger just E & F to re-run, not C & D. We're a .NET/C#/Sql Server shop, and I'm already familiar with SSIS. Is that really the best there is? That manages steps well, but not external dependencies, or logging. Open source (.NET) preferred, but not required.

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  • Embedded Development Board

    - by ALF3130
    I'm new to the embedded development world and am looking to get my very first board. After some research, I realize that there aren't many choices with FPUs. This is important in my project as I'm going to be doing quite a bit of floating point computations. I found the Mini2440 which seems to run on the ARM920T core. This particular unit is perfect for my needs (decent price, all the right I/O ports, and a touch screen to boot) but it seems that it doesn't have an FPU. I don't know how big of a penalty I'd be paying for FP emulation, so I'm unsure of whether to pull the trigger on this one. That said: Can someone please confirm whether this product (Mini2440) has an FPU or not? My project will do image capture and analysis. Does anyone have any experience with running things like OpenMP on such platforms? Please suggest any other similar boards in the = $200 price range that have an FPU. This world is new to me. Any other advice or things I should be aware of is much appreciated.

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  • syntax for MySQL INSERT with an array of columns

    - by Mike_Laird
    I'm new to PHP and MySQL query construction. I have a processor for a large form. A few fields are required, most fields are user optional. In my case, the HTML ids and the MySQL column names are identical. I've found tutorials about using arrays to convert $_POST into the fields and values for INSERT INTO, but I can't get them working - after many hours. I've stepped back to make a very simple INSERT using arrays and variables, but I'm still stumped. The following line works and INSERTs 5 items into a database with over 100 columns. The first 4 items are strings, the 5th item, monthlyRental is an integer. $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` (country, stateProvince, city3, city3Geocode, monthlyRental) VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; When I make an array for the fields and use it, as follows: $colsx = array('country,', 'stateProvince,', 'city3,', 'city3Geocode,', 'monthlyRental'); $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` ('$colsx') VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; I get a MySQL error - check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ''Array') VALUES ( 'US', 'New York', 'Fairport, Monroe County, New York', '(43.09)' at line 1. I get this error whether the array items have commas inside the single quotes or not. I've done a lot of reading and tried many combinations and I can't get it. I want to see the proper syntax on a small scale before I go back to foreach expressions to process $_POST and both the fields and values are arrays. And yes, I know I should use mysql_real_escape_string, but that is an easy later step in the foreach. Lastly, some clues about the syntax for an array of values would be helpful, particularly if it is different from the fields array. I know I need to add a null as the first array item to trigger the MySQL autoincrement id. What else? I'm pretty new, so please be specific.

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  • Create an index only on certain rows in mysql

    - by dhruvbird
    So, I have this funny requirement of creating an index on a table only on a certain set of rows. This is what my table looks like: USER: userid, friendid, created, blah0, blah1, ..., blahN Now, I'd like to create an index on: (userid, friendid, created) but only on those rows where userid = friendid. The reason being that this index is only going to be used to satisfy queries where the WHERE clause contains "userid = friendid". There will be many rows where this is NOT the case, and I really don't want to waste all that extra space on the index. Another option would be to create a table (query table) which is populated on insert/update of this table and create a trigger to do so, but again I am guessing an index on that table would mean that the data would be stored twice. How does mysql store Primary Keys? I mean is the table ordered on the Primary Key or is it ordered by insert order and the PK is like a normal unique index? I checked up on clustered indexes (http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/innodb-index-types.html), but it seems only InnoDB supports them. I am using MyISAM (I mention this because then I could have created a clustered index on these 3 fields in the query table). I am basically looking for something like this: ALTER TABLE USERS ADD INDEX (userid, friendid, created) WHERE userid=friendid

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  • Displaying a message after adding duplicate records in database

    - by user1770370
    I wrote program in C# winforms and SQL server and LINQ to SQL. I use user control instead of form. In my user control, I put 3 textbox, txtStartNumber, txtEndNumber, txtQuantity. user define value of textboxes, when clicked button, it will insert some records according to the value of txtQuantity. I want to when duplicate number is created, it won't add to database and display message. how do i do? I must write code in code behind or server side? i must set this in store procedure or trigger? private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { long from = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_f.Text); long to = Convert.ToInt64(txt_barcode_t.Text); long quantity = Convert.ToInt64(to - from); int card_Type_ID=Convert.ToInt32(cmb_BracodeType .SelectedValue); long[] arrCardNum = new long[(to - from)]; arrCardNum[0]=from; for (long i = from; i < to; i++) { for(int j=0; j<(to-from) ;j++) { arrCardNum[j]=from+j; string r = arrCardNum[j].ToString(); sp.SaveCards(r, 2, card_Type_ID, SaveDate, 2); } } } Stored Procedure code. ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.SaveCards @Barcode_Num int ,@Card_Status_ID int ,@Card_Type_ID int ,@SaveDate varchar(10) ,@Save_User_ID int AS BEGIN INSERT INTO [Parking].[dbo].[TBL_Cards] ([Barcode_Num] ,[Card_Status_ID] ,[Card_Type_ID] ,[Save_User_ID]) VALUES (@Barcode_Num ,@Card_Status_ID ,@Card_Type_ID ,@Save_User_ID) END

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  • What goes into the "Controller" in "MVC"?

    - by P72endragon
    I think I understand the basic concepts of MVC - the Model contains the data and behaviour of the application, the View is responsible for displaying it to the user and the Controller deals with user input. What I'm uncertain about is exactly what goes in the Controller. Lets say for example I have a fairly simple application (I'm specifically thinking Java, but I suppose the same principles apply elsewhere). I organise my code into 3 packages called app.model, app.view and app.controller. Within the app.model package, I have a few classes that reflect the actual behaviour of the application. These extends Observable and use setChanged() and notifyObservers() to trigger the views to update when appropriate. The app.view package has a class (or several classes for different types of display) that uses javax.swing components to handle the display. Some of these components need to feed back into the Model. If I understand correctly, the View shouldn't have anything to do with the feedback - that should be dealt with by the Controller. So what do I actually put in the Controller? Do I put the public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) in the View with just a call to a method in the Controller? If so, should any validation etc be done in the Controller? If so, how do I feedback error messages back to the View - should that go through the Model again, or should the Controller just send it straight back to View? If the validation is done in the View, what do I put in the Controller? Sorry for the long question, I just wanted to document my understanding of the process and hopefully someone can clarify this issue for me!

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  • JQUERY - how to get updated value after ajax removes data from within it?

    - by Brian
    I have a an element with thumbnails. I allow users to sort their display order (which fires off an update to the DB via ajax). I also allow them to delete images (which, after deletion, fires off a request to update the display order for all remaining images). My problem is with binding or live I think, but I don't know where to apply it. The array fired off upon delete contains ALL the ids for the images that were there on page load. The issue is that after they delete an image the array STILL contains the original ids (including the one that was deleted) so it is obviously not refreshing the value of the element after ajax has removed things from inside it. I need to tell it to go get the refreshed contents... From what I have been reading, this is normal but I don't understand how to tie it into my routine. I need to trigger the mass re-ordering after any deletion. Any ideas gurus? $('a.delimg').click(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); var id = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../updateImages.php", data: "action=delete&id=" + id, beforeSend: function() { parent.animate({'backgroundColor':'#fb6c6c'},300); $.jnotify("<strong>Deleting This Image & Updating The Image Order</strong>", 5000); }, success: function(data) { parent.slideUp(300,function() { parent.remove(); $("#images ul").sortable(function() { //NEEDS TO GET THE UPDATED CONTENT var order = $(this).sortable("serialize") + '&action=updateRecordsListings'; $.post("../updateImages.php", order, function(theResponse){ $.jnotify("<strong>" + theResponse + "</strong>", 2000); }); }); }); } }); return false; }); Thanks for any help you can be.

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  • Android - How to approach fall detection algorithm

    - by bobby123
    I want to be able to feature a fairly simple fall detection algorithm in my application. At the moment in onSensorChanged(), I am getting the absolute value of the current x,x,z values and subtracting SensorManager.GRAVITY_EARTH (9.8 m/s) from this. The resulting value has to be bigger than a threshold value 10 times in a row to set a flag saying a fall has been detected by the accelerometer, the threshold value is about 8m/s. Also I'm comparing the orientation of the phone as soon as the threshold has been passed and the orienation of it when the threshold is no longer being passed, this sets another flag saying the orientation sensor has detected a fall. When both flags are set, an event occurs to check is user ok, etc etc. My problem is with the threshold, when the phone is held straight up the absolute value of accelerometer is about 9.8 m/s, but when i hold it still at an angle it can be over 15m/s. This is causing other events to trigger the fall detection, and if i increase the threshold to avoid that, it won't detect falls. Can anyone give me some advice here with what possible values i should use or how to even improve my method? Many thanks.

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  • How to add a checkbox for each row in Rails 3.2 index page?

    - by user938363
    We would like to add a checkbox to each row on Rails index page to flag for the row. This checkbox is not part of the object (no checkbox boolean in database). When the index page shows, a user can check the box to trigger an event for the row in following process: #objects/checkbox_index.html.erb <table> <tr> <th>CheckBox</th> <th>Object Name</th> <th>Object ID</th> </tr> <%= @objects.each do |obj| %> <tr> <td><%= checkbox %></td> <td><%= obj.name %></td> <td><%= obj.id %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> In controller, the process will be like this: @objects.each do |obj| some_event if obj.checked end There are a couple of questions we don't quite understand: 1. How to declare an array checkbox variable on the form and link it to each row of obj? We have been using `attr_accessor` to declare var for a form. 2. How to retrieve each row on checkbox_index form and pass them back to controller? We are using simple_form for new/edit. Can anyone point me towards any good examples of this sort of behavior, or suggest what we should be thinking about? Many Thanks.

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  • Recurrent yearly date alert in Python

    - by coulix
    Hello Hackerz, Here is the idea A user can set a day alert for a birthday. (We do not care about the year of birth) He also picks if he wants to be alerted 0, 1, 2, ou 7 days (Delta) before the D day. Users have a timezone setting. I want the server to send the alerts at 8 am on the the D day - deleta +- user timezone Example: 12 jun, with "alert me 3 days before" will give 9 of Jun. My idea was to have a trigger_datetime extra field saved on the 'recurrent event' object. Like this a cron Job running every hour on my server will just check for all events matching irs current time hour, day and month and send to the alert. The problem from a year to the next the trigger_date could change ! If the alert is set on 1st of March, with a one day delay that could be either 28 or 29 of February .. Maybe i should not use the trigger date trick and use some other kind of scheme. All plans are welcome.

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  • PHP form validation function

    - by Barbs
    I am currently writing some PHP form validation (I have already validated clientside) and have some repetitive code that I think would work well in a nice little PHP function. However I have having trouble getting it to work. I'm sure it's just a matter of syntax but I just can't nail it down. Any help appreciated. //Validate phone number field to ensure 8 digits, no spaces. if(0 === preg_match("/^[0-9]{8}$/",$_POST['Phone']) { $errors['Phone'] = "Incorrect format for 'Phone'"; } if(!$errors) { //Do some stuff here.... } I found that I was writing the validation code a lot and I could save some time and some lines of code by creating a function. //Validate Function function validate($regex,$index,$message) { if(0 === preg_match($regex,$_POST[$index],$message) { $errors[$index] = $message; } And call it like so.... validate("/^[0-9]{8}$/","Phone","Incorrect format for Phone"); Can anyone see why this wouldn't work? Note I have disabled the client side validation while I work on this to try to trigger the error, so the value I am sending for 'Phone' is invalid.

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  • Can I use a method as a lambda?

    - by NewAlexandria
    I have an interface the defines a group of conditions. it is one of several such interfaces that will live with other models. These conditions will be called by a message queue handler to determine completeness of an alert. All the alert calls will be the same, and so I seek to DRY up the enqueue calls a bit, by abstracting the the conditions into their own methods (i question if methods is the right technique). I think that by doing this I will be able to test each of these conditions. class Loan module AlertTriggers def self.included(base) base.extend LifecycleScopeEnqueues # this isn't right Loan::AlertTriggers::LifecycleScopeEnqueues.instance_method.each do |cond| class << self def self.cond ::AlertHandler.enqueue_alerts( {:trigger => Loan.new}, cond ) end end end end end module LifecycleScopeEnqueues def student_awaiting_cosigner lambda { |interval, send_limit, excluding| excluding ||= '' Loan.awaiting_cosigner. where('loans.id not in (?)', excluding.map(&:id) ). joins(:petitions). where('petitions.updated_at > ?', interval.days.ago). where('petitions.updated_at <= ?', send_limit.days.ago) } end end I've considered alternatives, where each of these methods act like a scope. Down that road, I'm not sure how to have AlertHandler be the source of interval, send_limit, and excluding, which it passes to the block/proc when calling it.

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  • Internet Explorer keeps asking for NTLM credentials in Intranet zone

    - by Tomalak
    Long text, sorry for that. I'm trying to be as specific as possible. I'm on Windows 7 and I experience a very frustrating Internet Explorer 8 behavior. I'm in a company LAN with some intranet servers and a proxy for connecting with the outside world. On sites that are clearly recognized as being "Local Intranet" (as indicated in the IE status bar) I keep getting "Windows Security" dialog boxes that ask me to log in. These pages are served off an IIS6 with "Integrated Windows Security" enabled, NTFS permits Everyone:Read on the files themselves. If I enter my Windows credentials, the page loads fine. However, the dialog boxes will be popping up the next time, regardless if I ticked "Remember my credentials" or not. (Credentials are stored in the "Credential Manager" but that does not make any difference as to how often these login boxes appear.) If I click "Cancel", one of two things can happen: Either the page loads with certain resources missing (images, styleheets, etc), or it does not load at all and I get HTTP 401.2 (Unauthorized: Logon Failed Due to Server Configuration). This depends on whether the logon box was triggered by the page itself, or a referenced resource. The behavior appears to be completely erratic, sometimes the pages load smoothly, sometimes one resource triggers a logon message, sometimes it does not. Even simply re-loading the page can result in changed behavior. I'm using WPAD as my proxy detection mechanism. All Intranet hosts do bypass the proxy in the PAC file. I've checked every IE setting I can think of, entered host patterns, individual host names, IP ranges in every thinkable configuration to the "Local Intranet" zone, ticked "Include all sites that bypass the proxy server", you name it. It boils down to "sometimes it just does not work", and slowly I'm losing my mind. ;-) I'm aware that this is related to IE not automatically passing my NTLM credentials to the webserver but asking me instead. Usually this should only happen for NTLM-secured sites that are not recognized as being in the "Intranet" zone. As explained, this is not the case here. Especially since half of a page can load perfectly and without interruption and some page's resources (coming from the same server!) trigger the login message. I've looked at http://support.microsoft.com/kb/303650, which gives the impression of describing the problem, but nothing there seems to work. And frankly, I'm not certain if "manually editing the registry" is the right solution for this kind of problem. I'm not the only person in the world with an IE/intranet/IIS configuration, after all. I'm at a loss, can somebody give me a hint?

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  • git post-receive hook throws "command not found" error but seems to run properly and no errors when run manually

    - by Ben
    I have a post-receive hook that runs on a central git repository set up with gitolite to trigger a git pull on a staging server. It seems to work properly, but throws a "command not found" error when it is run. I am trying to track down the source of the error, but have not had any luck. Running the same commands manually does not produce an error. The error changes depending on what was done in the commit that is being pushed to the central repository. For instance, if 'git rm ' was committed and pushed to the central repo the error message will be "remote: hooks/post-receive: line 16: Removed: command not found" and if 'git add ' was committed and pushed to the central repo the error message will be "remote: hooks/post-receive: line 16: Merge: command not found". In either case the 'git pull' run on the staging server works correctly despite the error message. Here is the post-receive script: #!/bin/bash # # This script is triggered by a push to the local git repository. It will # ssh into a remote server and perform a git pull. # # The SSH_USER must be able to log into the remote server with a # passphrase-less SSH key *AND* be able to do a git pull without a passphrase. # # The command to actually perform the pull request on the remost server comes # from the ~/.ssh/authorized_keys file on the REMOTE_HOST and is triggered # by the ssh login. SSH_USER="remoteuser" REMOTE_HOST="staging.server.com" `ssh $SSH_USER@$REMOTE_HOST` # This is line 16 echo "Done!" The command that does the git pull on the staging server is in the ssh user's ~/.ssh/authorized_keys file and is: command="cd /var/www/staging_site; git pull",no-port-forwarding,no-X11-forwarding,no-agent-forwarding, ssh-rsa AAAAB3NzaC1yc2EAAAABIwAA... (the rest of the public key) This is the actual output from removing a file from my local repo, committing it locally, and pushing it to the central git repo: ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ git rm ./testing rm 'testing' ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ git commit -a -m "Remove testing file" [master bb96e13] Remove testing file 1 files changed, 0 insertions(+), 5 deletions(-) delete mode 100644 testing ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ git push Counting objects: 3, done. Delta compression using up to 2 threads. Compressing objects: 100% (2/2), done. Writing objects: 100% (2/2), 221 bytes, done. Total 2 (delta 1), reused 0 (delta 0) remote: From [email protected]:testing remote: aa72ad9..bb96e13 master -> origin/master remote: hooks/post-receive: line 16: Removed: command not found # The error msg remote: Done! To [email protected]:testing aa72ad9..bb96e13 master -> master ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ As you can see the post-receive script gets to the echo "Done!" line and when I look on the staging server the git pull has been successfully run, but there's still that nagging error message. Any suggestions on where to look for the source of the error message would be greatly appreciated. I'm tempted to redirect stderr to /dev/null but would prefer to know what the problem is.

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  • git post-receive hook throws "command not found" error but seems to run properly and no errors when run manually

    - by Ben
    I have a post-receive hook that runs on a central git repository set up with gitolite to trigger a git pull on a staging server. It seems to work properly, but throws a "command not found" error when it is run. I am trying to track down the source of the error, but have not had any luck. Running the same commands manually does not produce an error. The error changes depending on what was done in the commit that is being pushed to the central repository. For instance, if 'git rm ' was committed and pushed to the central repo the error message will be "remote: hooks/post-receive: line 16: Removed: command not found" and if 'git add ' was committed and pushed to the central repo the error message will be "remote: hooks/post-receive: line 16: Merge: command not found". In either case the 'git pull' run on the staging server works correctly despite the error message. Here is the post-receive script: #!/bin/bash # # This script is triggered by a push to the local git repository. It will # ssh into a remote server and perform a git pull. # # The SSH_USER must be able to log into the remote server with a # passphrase-less SSH key *AND* be able to do a git pull without a passphrase. # # The command to actually perform the pull request on the remost server comes # from the ~/.ssh/authorized_keys file on the REMOTE_HOST and is triggered # by the ssh login. SSH_USER="remoteuser" REMOTE_HOST="staging.server.com" `ssh $SSH_USER@$REMOTE_HOST` # This is line 16 echo "Done!" The command that does the git pull on the staging server is in the ssh user's ~/.ssh/authorized_keys file and is: command="cd /var/www/staging_site; git pull",no-port-forwarding,no-X11-forwarding,no-agent-forwarding, ssh-rsa AAAAB3NzaC1yc2EAAAABIwAA... (the rest of the public key) This is the actual output from removing a file from my local repo, committing it locally, and pushing it to the central git repo: ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ git rm ./testing rm 'testing' ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ git commit -a -m "Remove testing file" [master bb96e13] Remove testing file 1 files changed, 0 insertions(+), 5 deletions(-) delete mode 100644 testing ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ git push Counting objects: 3, done. Delta compression using up to 2 threads. Compressing objects: 100% (2/2), done. Writing objects: 100% (2/2), 221 bytes, done. Total 2 (delta 1), reused 0 (delta 0) remote: From [email protected]:testing remote: aa72ad9..bb96e13 master -> origin/master remote: hooks/post-receive: line 16: Removed: command not found # The error msg remote: Done! To [email protected]:testing aa72ad9..bb96e13 master -> master ben@tamarack:~/thejibe/testing/web$ As you can see the post-receive script gets to the echo "Done!" line and when I look on the staging server the git pull has been successfully run, but there's still that nagging error message. Any suggestions on where to look for the source of the error message would be greatly appreciated. I'm tempted to redirect stderr to /dev/null but would prefer to know what the problem is.

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  • How can I troubleshoot a "Hardware Malfunction" blue screen?

    - by AaronSieb
    My computer has suddenly started crashing to a blue screen with the following text: hardware malfunction call your hardware vendor for support *the system has halted* The crash occurs randomly during normal use. I have thus far always been able to reproduce it by transferring the contents of a large folder... But I'm not sure if this is caused by the file transfer, or simply because the transfer takes long enough for something else to trigger it. A bit about my hardware I have an dual core Intel CPU, and Asus motherboard. Video card is by nVidia, and connects via PCIe. My hard drives are in pairs, and connect via SATA to a RAID controller on the motherboard. They are configured to use a RAID0 configuration. What I've tried so far There is nothing in the Windows Event Log. WhoCrashed was unable to find any crash records. ScanDisk runs to completion (it launches prior to Windows load) and reports no errors. MemTest reports no errors (to 200% coverage). System temperatures are in the range of 40 to 50 degrees Celsius, with video card temperatures in the range of 60 to eighty degrees Celsius. I have stripped the system down to a minimal configuration (hard drive, video card, one memory module, motherboard, CPU, power supply). The problem still occurrs. However, this has allowed me to rule out a few components: It is not the video card because the problem still occurred after replacing the video card another one I had on hand. It is not the hard drive or anything software related because the problem occurred after a fresh installation of Windows on a replacement hard drive. It is not the hard drive cables because I replaced those with new ones and still had the problem. It is not the power supply because the problem still occurred after replacing the power supply with another one I had on hand. It is probably not the memory because I've tried three different memory modules in three different memory slots and was still able to replicate the issue. Is there anything I can do to confirm what's causing the issue? At the moment it seems as though it must be either the motherboard or CPU, but those are both difficult components to replace... In addition, both components are relatively new (two to three years old). I will gladly edit in any additional information I can get my hands on, and/or focus the question as I can find more details...

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  • Windows 7 remains powered on when restarting

    - by BombDefused
    I'm running windows 7 x64 on an MSI P67A-GD53 motherboard, in an Antec P280 Super Midi Towercase with a Corsair 650w PSU. I've just installed a second instance of windows 7 x64 on a separate disk (this is to keep my games separate from my work OS). The problem is that it appears now that I cannot restart from either instance of Windows 7. The shut down command, and sleep commands work as expected. When I try to restart, the shutdown happens but the system never reboots. Everything remains powered on, until I hold down the power button to force the power off. Ithink (but am not 100% sure) this has only started since I installed the second OS, and am assuming this has something to do with the motherboard needing to know which OS to run up again? Some other forums I've read suggest that the PSU has a major role in restart and could be at fault. Changing the boot order of the disks in the BIOS does not change anything. Any suggestions greatfully recieved! Update: I now have a reproduceable issue: I think the secondary OS install may have been a red herring. It was when windows tried to reboot during the install that I noticed the issue. After playing around with installing drivers, and rebooting many many times, I have found that it is the OC genie setting on the MSI motherboard that seems to trigger the problem. This makes sense as I only started using the OC genie feature a couple of weeks ago, and probably hadn't used restart in that time. However... simply turning off OC genie does not make the issue go away. I have to turn off OC genie, shutdown, start enter bios, go to the "Save and Exit" menu "Restore Defaults" yes to "Load optimized defaults", which will reset to clear the problem. Now when the PC boots into windows, I can restart as normal (and from the OS on either HDD). I only know how to control the issue, and don't still know the root cause. I'd like to be able to use the OC genie function if anyone can suggest a why I'm seeing this problem. Could it be that I'm drawing too much power when using OC feature?

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  • Windows 7 laptop constantly dropping internet connection

    - by Corbin Holbert
    I have scoured the web for an answer and failed to find one. I am using a Toshiba Satellite laptop running Windows 7 64-Bit. I have the computer connected via Wifi. Now, I am no beginner with the Internet, or anything related to computers, as I have grown up teaching everyone around me how to use computers, and went to college for IT. Everything on my network works flawlessly at all times, except for this evil laptop. The worst part is that I fixed this once before a few years back and recently had to replace the hard drive and re-install the OS, but cannot for the life of me remember what I did to make this problem go away. I am in my browser, connected to the Internet. I click a link. Suddenly no internet access. All I do is click down on the WiFi connection in the task bar, disconnect and reconnect immediately. Internet is back the moment I hit "connect." I have read many people had the same issues as I am having, but they all had triggers or other network issues. I have no trigger (this happens literally five to six times per minute no matter what I am doing) and I have no problems with my router, modem, or any other devices or computers on said network. As I am a web designer, and like to test my work live at every turn- this is going to result in this laptop being in pieces if I can't get it fixed soon. If more info is needed, let me know and I will provide. Thanks for any help offered! EDIT: Network Card: Realtek RTL8188CE Wireless LAN 802.11n PCI-E NIC Network state reads as "No Internet Access" when the problem first occurs, then magically I have Internet access for about ten seconds once I disconnect and reconnect. I have turned off IPV6, I have turned off power saving options for the network adapter, no viruses. Any new ideas? Also, I had to disconnect and reconnect four times just to get to this edit screen- and will likely have to do the same just to post it- it's that bad.

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