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• ajax delay load UserControl asp.net

  - by user196202

  regarding ajax delay load of usercontrols (or any controls) on Post at Encosia.com : http://encosia.com/2008/02/05/boost-aspnet-performance-with-deferred-content-loading/ I tried to implement it , but I noticed that it can be done only for simple controls or UserControls that Have simple asp.net controls (or html tags) . But when it involved with advanced dynamic ajax control (like ajaxControlToolkit or Telerik controls) that have javascripts inside them This method of injecting the html code to the .InnerHtml property of div tag (for example) IS NOT WORKING , and I red about it that The browser need to load the script on load and after that it won't iterperate the scripts injectd via .InnerHtml. So I attached here example of delay load project (from encosia.com by dave ward) with my modification (look at DefaultPopup.aspx and beforePopup.aspx and AfterPopup.aspx) Which I modified the RssReader to show listview with popup items (which is implemented via ACT HoverMenuExtender ) So in the regular way the popup items are shown right , but on the delay load which is done by creating virtual page for rendering the html and injecting it to .InnerHtml property – This ISN'T WORKING. So my question is : is there a way to do delay loading for controls which include scripts lik ACT and Telerik and others? And for the ajax templates – if I need to inject advanced control to the page – how I do it with your approach? Thanks very much (I can't attach here files so everyone please ask me by mail ([email protected]) and i'll send it to him. ) Zahi Kramer

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• Create a VPN with Python

  - by user213060

  I want to make a device "tunnel box" that you plug an input ethernet line, and an output ethernet line, and all the traffic that goes through it gets modified in a special way. This is similar to how a firewall, IDS, VPN, or similar boxes are connected inline in a network. I think you can just assume that I am writing a custom VPN in Python for the purpose of this question: LAN computer <--\ LAN computer <---> [LAN switch] <--> ["tunnel box"] <--> [internet modem] <--> LAN computer <--/ My question is, what is a good way to program this "tunnel box" from python? My application needs to see TCP flows at the network layer, not as individual ethernet frames. Non-TCP/IP traffic such as ICPM and other types should just be passed through. Example Twisted-like Code for my "tunnel box" tunnel appliance: from my_code import special_data_conversion_function class StreamInterceptor(twisted.Protocol): def dataReceived(self,data): data=special_data_conversion_function(data) self.outbound_connection.send(data) My initial guesses: TUN/TAP with twisted.pair.tuntap.py - Problem: This seems to only work at the ethernet frame level, not like my example? Socks proxy - Problem: Not transparent as in my diagram. Programs have to be specifically setup for it. Thanks!

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• Exception during iteration on collection and remove items from that collection

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  I remove item from ArrayList in foreach loop and get follwing exception. Collection was modified; enumeration operation may not execute. How can I remove items in foreach Following is my code: /* * Need to remove all items from 'attachementsFielPath' which does not exist in names array. */ try { string attachmentFileNames = txtAttachment.Text.Trim(); // Textbox having file names. string[] names = attachmentFileNames.Split(new char[] { ';' }); int index = 0; // attachmentsFilePath is ArrayList holding full path of fiels user selected at any time. foreach (var fullFilePath in attachmentsFilePath) { bool isNeedToRemove = true; // Extract filename from full path. string fileName = fullFilePath.ToString().Substring(fullFilePath.ToString().LastIndexOf('\\') + 1); for (int i = 0; i < names.Length; i++) { // If filename found in array then no need to check remaining items. if (fileName.Equals(names[i].Trim())) { isNeedToRemove = false; break; } } // If file not found in names array, remove it. if (isNeedToRemove) { attachmentsFilePath.RemoveAt(index); isNeedToRemove = true; } index++; } } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; }

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• Can I use RegFree Com with an application written in Excel VBA?

  - by Steven

  I have an application that is written in Excel VBA, myApp.xls. Currently we use InstallShield to distribute the application. Since we are moving to Windows Vista, I need to be able to install the application as a standard user. This does not allow for me to update the registry during the install process. In addition to the excel application we also have several VB6 applications. In order to install those applications, I was able to use RegFree com and Make My Manifest (MMM) as suggested by people on this forum (I greatly appreciate the insight btw!). This process, although a bit tedious, worked well. I then packaged the output from MMM in a VS '05 installer project and removed the UAC prompt on the msi using msiinfo.exe. Now I am faced with installing an application that basically lives in an Excel file. I modified a manifest that MMM created for me for one of my VB6 apps and tried to run the excel file through that, but I did not have much luck. Does anybody know of a way to do this? Does RegFree com work with VBA? Any thoughts or suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks, Steve

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• Missing line number in stack trace eventhough the PDB files are included

  - by Farzad

  This is running me nuts. I have this web service implemented w/ C# using VS 2008. I publish it on IIS. I have modified the release build so the pdb files are copied along with the dlls into the target directory on inetpub. Also web.config file has debug=true. Then I call a web service that throws an exception. The stack trace does not contain the line numbers. I have no idea what I am missing here, any ideas? Additional Info: If I run the web app using VS built-in web server, it works and I get line numbers in stack trace. But if I copy the same files (pdb and dll) that the VS built-in web server is using to IIS, still the line numbers are missing in stack trace. It seems that there is something related to the IIS that ignores the pdb files! Update When I publish to IIS, all the pdb files are published under the bin directory and everything looks fine. But when I go to "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files" under the specific directory related to my project, I can see that the assembly (.dll) files are all there, but there is no pdb files. But this does not happen if I run the project using VS built-in web server. So if I copy the pdb files manually to the temp folder, I can see the line numbers. Any idea why the pdb files are not copied to the temp folder? BTW, when I attach to the worker process I can see that it says Symbols loaded!

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• How can I write classes that don't rely on "global" variables?

  - by Joel

  When I took my first programming course in university, we were taught that global variables were evil & should be avoided at all cost (since you can quickly develop confusing and unmaintainable code). The following year, we were taught object oriented programming, and how to create modular code using classes. I find that whenever I work with OOP, I use my classes' private variables as global variables, i.e., they can be (and are) read and modified by any function within the class. This isn't really sitting right with me, as it seems to introduce the same problems global variables had in languages like C. So I guess my question is, how do I stop writing classes with "global" variables? Would it make more sense to pretend I'm writing in a functional language? By this I mean having all functions take parameters & return values instead of directly modifying class variables. If I need to set any fields, I can just take the output of the function and assign it instead of having the function do it directly. This seems like it might make more maintainable code, at least for larger classes. What's common practice? Thanks!

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• How to call Ajax function recursively.

  - by MAS1

  Hi guys, I want to know how to call Ajax function Recursively. My ajax code is like this, <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var step='1'; $.ajax ( { url: 'test1.php', data: {step: step}, success: function(output) { step=eval(output); alert(step); } } ); </script> </head> </html> And php code is like this <?php function writeName() { echo "step=2"; } function ReadName() { echo "In Read Name Function"; } if(isset($_REQUEST['step']) && !empty($_REQUEST['step'])) { $step = $_REQUEST['step']; switch($step) { case '1' : writeName(); break; case '2' : ReadName(); break; default : echo "Empty String"; } } ?> first time this function is get called with value of step variable equal to 1 and Function Write name modified it as 2. Now i want to call this Ajax function with Step variable value equal to 2. So that 2nd php function gets called.

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• is delete p where p is a pointer to array a memory leak ?

  - by Eli

  following a discussion in a software meeting I setup to find out if deleting an dynamically allocated primitive array with plain delete will cause a memory leak. I have written this tiny program and compiled with visual studio 2008 running on windows XP: #include "stdafx.h" #include "Windows.h" const unsigned long BLOCK_SIZE = 1024*100000; int _tmain() { for (unsigned int i =0; i < 1024*1000; i++) { int* p = new int[1024*100000]; for (int j =0;j<BLOCK_SIZE;j++) p[j]= j % 2; Sleep(1000); delete p; } } I than monitored the memory consumption of my application using task manager, surprisingly the memory was allocated and freed correctly, allocated memory did not steadily increase as was expected I've modified my test program to allocate a non primitive type array : #include "stdafx.h" #include "Windows.h" struct aStruct { aStruct() : i(1), j(0) {} int i; char j; } NonePrimitive; const unsigned long BLOCK_SIZE = 1024*100000; int _tmain() { for (unsigned int i =0; i < 1024*100000; i++) { aStruct* p = new aStruct[1024*100000]; Sleep(1000); delete p; } } after running for for 10 minutes there was no meaningful increase in memory I compiled the project with warning level 4 and got no warnings. is it possible that the visual studio run time keep track of the allocated objects types so there is no different between delete and delete[] in that environment ?

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• Bash Array Problem

  - by Deepak Prasanna

  I wrote a bash script which tries to find a process and run the process if it had stopped. This is the script. #!/bin/bash process=thin path=/home/deepak/abc/ initiate=thin start -d process_id=`ps -ef | pgrep $process | wc -m` if [ "$process_id" -gt "0" ]; then echo "The process process is running!!" else cd $path $initiate echo "Oops the process has stopped" fi This worked fine and I thought of using arrays so that i can form a loop use this script to check multiple processes. So I modified my script like this #!/bin/bash process[1]=thin path[1]=/home/deepak/abc/ initiate[1]=thin start -d process_id=`ps -ef | pgrep $process[1] | wc -m` if [ "$process_id" -gt "0" ]; then echo "Hurray the process ${process[1]} is running!!" else cd ${path[1]} ${initiate[1]} echo "Oops the process has stopped" echo "Continue your coffee, the process has been stated again! ;)" fi I get this error if i run this script. DontWorry.sh: 2: process[1]=thin: not found DontWorry.sh: 3: path[1]=/home/deepak/abc/: not found DontWorry.sh: 4: initiate[1]=thin start -d: not found I googled to find any solution for this, most them insisted to use "#!/bin/bash" instead of "#!/bin/sh". I tried both but nothing worked. What am i missing?

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• SpeechSynthesizer Exception - Please Help

  - by Chris

  Hi. I have the following code: private List<VoiceInfo> GetInstalledVoices(SpeechSynthesizer synthesizer) { CultureInfo currentCulture = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture; var listOfVoiceInfo = from voice in synthesizer.GetInstalledVoices(currentCulture) select voice.VoiceInfo; return listOfVoiceInfo.ToList<VoiceInfo>(); } I then call the code from the following code snippet: var synthesizer = new SpeechSynthesizer(); var installedVoices = GetInstalledVoices(synthesizer); VoiceInfo voice = null; if (installedVoices != null && installedVoices.Count > 0) { voice = installedVoices.FirstOrDefault(); } if (voice != null) { synthesizer.SelectVoice(voice.Name); } The line of code that selects the voice throws the following exception: "Cannot set voice. No matching voice is installed or the voice was disabled." This is being done from within an ASP.NET web application - running on Windows Server 2003 R2. When I run this from within Visual Studio 2008 - everything works fine. I created a simple Console app to perform the same action - then ran it from the Windows Server 2003 machine - and it worked fine. I even modified the code in the Console app to loop through each of the installed voices and select the voice. No problems. However, when doing the same from within the web application, I get the same error. I am beating my head against a wall on this one. ANY help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Chris

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• python protobufs - avoid the install step ?

  - by orion elenzil

  i'm writing a small python utility which will be consumed by moderately non-technical users and which needs to interface w/ some protobufs. ideally, i would like the only prerequisites to using this on a local machine to be: have python installed * have an SVN checkout of the repository * run a simple bash script to build the local proto .py definitions * run "python myutility" i'm running into trouble around importing descriptor_pb2.py, tho. i've seen Why do I see "cannot import name descriptor_pb2" error when using Google Protocol Buffers? , but would like to avoid adding the additional prerequisite of having run the proto SDK installer. i've modified the bash script to also generate descriptor_pb2.py in the local heirarchy, which works for the first level of imports from my other _pb2.py files, but it looks like descriptor_pb2.py itself tries to import descriptor_pb2 can't find it: $ python myutility.py Traceback (most recent call last): File "myutility.py", line 4, in <module> import protos.myProto_pb2 File "/myPath/protos/myProto_pb2.py", line 8, in <module> from google.protobuf import descriptor_pb2 File "/myPath/google/protobuf/descriptor_pb2.py", line 8, in <module> from google.protobuf import descriptor_pb2 ImportError: cannot import name descriptor_pb2 my local folder looks like: * myutility.py * google/ * protobuf/ * descriptor.py * descriptor_pb2.py * protos * myProto_ob2.py also, i'm a python n00b, so it's possible i'm overlooking something obvious. tia, orion

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• updating changes from one database to another database in the same server

  - by Pavan Kumar

  I have a copy of client database say 'DBCopy' which already contains modified data. The copy of the client database (DBCopy) is attached to the SQL Server where the Central Database (DBCentral) exists. Then I want to update whatever changes already present in DBCopy to DBCentral. Both DBCopy and DBCentral have same schema. How can i do it programatically using C#.NET maybe with a button click. Can you give me an example code as how to do it?. I am using SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition and VS 2008 SP1. In the actual scenario there are about 7 client database all with same schema as the central database. I am bringing copy of each client database and attach it to Central Server where the central database resides and try to update changes present in each copy of the client database to central database one by one programatically using C# .NET . The clients and the central server are physically seperate machines present in different places. They are not interconnected. I need to only update and insert new data. I am not bothered about deletion of data. Thanks and regards Pavan

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• What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

  - by Carlos Loth

  Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

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• Browser back button restores empty fields

  - by Pierre

  I have a web page x.php (in a password protected area of my web site) which has a form and a button which uses the POST method to send the form data and opens x.php#abc. This works pretty well. However, if the users decides to navigate back in Internet Explorer 7, all the fields in the original x.php get cleared and everything must be typed in again. I cannot save the posted information in a session and I am trying to understand how I can get IE7 to behave the way I want. I've searched the web and found answers which suggest that the HTTP header should contain explicit caching information. Currently, I've tried this : session_name("FOO"); session_start(); header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: Fri, 7 Nov 2008 23:00:00 GMT"); header("Cache-Control: public, max-age=3600, must-revalidate"); header("Last-Modified: Thu, 30 Oct 2008 17:00:00 GMT"); and variations thereof. Without success. Looking at the returned headers with a tool such as WireShark shows me that Apache is indeed honouring my headers. So my question is: what am I doing wrong?

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• Passing viewmodel to actionresult creates new viewmodel

  - by Jonas Bohez

  I am using a viewmodel, which i then when to send to an actionresult to use (the modified viewmodel) But in the controller, i lose the list and objects in my viewmodel. This is my view: @using PigeonFancier.Models @model PigeonFancier.Models.InschrijvingModel @using (Html.BeginForm("UpdateInschrijvingen","Melker",Model)) { <div> <fieldset> <table> @foreach (var item in Model.inschrijvingLijst) { <tr> <td>@Html.DisplayFor(model => item.Duif.Naam)</td> <td> @Html.CheckBoxFor(model => item.isGeselecteerd)</td> </tr> } </table> <input type="submit" value="Wijzigen"/> </fieldset> </div> } This is my controller, which does nothing at the moment until i can get the full viewmodel back from the view. public ActionResult UpdateInschrijvingen(InschrijvingModel inschrijvingsModel) { // inschrijvingsModel is not null, but it creates a new model before it comes here with //Use the model for some updates return RedirectToAction("Inschrijven", new { vluchtId = inschrijvingsModel.vlucht.VluchtId }); } This is the model with the List and some other objects who become null because it creates a new model when it comes back from the view to the actionresult public class InschrijvingModel { public Vlucht vlucht; public Duivenmelker duivenmelker; public List<CheckBoxModel> inschrijvingLijst { get; set; } public InschrijvingModel() { // Without this i get, No parameterless constructor defined exception. // So it uses this when it comes back from the view to make a new model } public InschrijvingModel(Duivenmelker m, Vlucht vl) { inschrijvingLijst = new List<CheckBoxModel>(); vlucht = vl; duivenmelker = m; foreach (var i in m.Duiven) { inschrijvingLijst.Add(new CheckBoxModel(){Duif = i, isGeselecteerd = i.IsIngeschrevenOpVlucht(vl)}); } } What is going wrong and how should i fix this problem please? Thanks

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• How to use Svn Version Task to set the Version of a vb project

  - by SchlaWiener

  I have a Visual Studio 2008 Solution where the main output exe is a VB.Net Winforms exe which has several VB.Net and C# dll's linked from the same solution. The whole solution is under version control with subversion. Now I want to automagically update by generated files with the current svn revision number. For this purpose I found this neat project: http://svnversiontasks.codeplex.com/ You also need the MSBuild.Communuity.Tasks for this to work. There was a msbuild example on how to update the rev number for every single project in your solution which I use: <Import Project="$(MSBuildExtensionsPath)\SvnTools.Targets\SvnTools.Tasks.VersionManagement.Tasks" /> <Target Name="build"> <CreateItem Include="../**/AssemblyInfo.vb;../**/AssemblyInfo.cs;../**/Properties/AssemblyInfo.cs"> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="AssemblyInfoFiles" /> </CreateItem> <CreateItem Include="../**/*.vdproj;*.vdproj"> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="DeploymentProjectFiles" /> </CreateItem> <UpdateVersion AssemblyInfoFiles="@(AssemblyInfoFiles)" DeploymentProjectFiles="@(DeploymentProjectFiles)" Format="yyyy.mm.dd.rev" /> <Exec Command="&quot;$(VS90COMNTOOLS)..\IDE\devenv&quot; ..\MyApp.sln /build" /> <RevertVersionChange AssemblyInfoFiles="@(AssemblyInfoFiles)" DeploymentProjectFiles="@(DeploymentProjectFiles)" /> </Target> I modified the original file to also include the AssemblyInfo.vb file and saved it as a msbuild.proj file. However if I execute msbuild from the console I see that the C# projects are updated (I can also confirm that from the properties of the output dll but my vb project remains unchanged: Reverting version number change: ../App1\AssemblyInfo.vb Updating version number (to rev 0) for file: ../App1\AssemblyInfo.vb D:\Source\MyApp\MyAppDeploy\MyAppDeploy.csproj : warning : Version attribute not found, file not updated. Reverting version number change: ../App2\Properties\AssemblyInfo.cs Updating version number (to rev 0) for file: ../App2\Properties\AssemblyInfo.cs Successfully updated file. Maybe the task does not support VB.Net. But maybe someone has a solution for this...

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• Writing to EEPROM on PIC

  - by JB

  Are there any PIC microcontroller programmers here? I'm learning some PIC microcontroller programming using a pickit2 and the 16F690 chip that came with it. I'm working through trying out the various facilities at the moment. I can sucessfully read a byte from the EEPROM in code if I set the EEPROM vaklue in MPLAB but I don't seem to be able to modify the value using the PIC itsself. Simply nothing happens and I don't read back the modified value, I always get the original which implies to me that the write isn't working? This is my code for that section, am I missing something? I know I'm doing a lot of unnecessary bank switches, I added most of them to ensure that being on the wrong bank wasn't the issue. ; ------------------------------------------------------ ; Now SET the EEPROM location ZERO to 0x08 ; ------------------------------------------------------ BANKSEL EEADR CLRF EEADR ; Set EE Address to zero BANKSEL EEDAT MOVLW 0x08 ; Store the value 0x08 in the EEPROM MOVWF EEDAT BANKSEL EECON1 BSF EECON1, WREN ; Enable writes to the EEPROM BANKSEL EECON2 MOVLW 0x55 ; Do the thing we have to do so MOVWF EECON2 ; that writes can work MOVLW 0xAA MOVWF EECON2 BANKSEL EECON1 BSF EECON1, WR ; And finally perform the write WAIT BTFSC EECON1, WR ; Wait for write to finish GOTO WAIT BANKSEL PORTC ; Just to make sure we are on the right bank

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• Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

  - by pspahn

  Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

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• Linq to SQL with INSTEAD OF Trigger and an Identity Column

  - by Bob Horn

  I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column? This is the Linq-to-SQL: internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode) { ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord() { ProcessCode = processCode, SubId = workflowCreated.SubId, EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead. }; this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord); } This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null. And here is the trigger: ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger] ON [Master].[ProcessLogging] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON; INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser) SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF; END Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error: InvalidOperationException Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert. I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used. Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs? Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons: 1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure) 2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.

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• Crystal Reports - export to pdf in MVC

  - by BhejaFry

  Hi folks, I have integrated the below code in my application to generate a 'pdf' file using crystal reports in MVC project. However, after the request is processed, i get to see only 2 pages in the pdf file while my 'data' returns more than 2 records. Also, the pdf isn't rendered as soon as the page is processed but instead i have to refresh atleast once, then the pdf is rendered on the browser. using CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine; public FileStreamResult Report() { ReportClass rptH = new ReportClass(); List<sampledataset> data = objdb.getdataset(); rptH.FileName = Server.MapPath("[reportName].rpt"); rptH.Load(); rptH.SetDatabaseLogon("un", "pwd", "server", "db"); rptH.SetDataSource(data); Stream stream = rptH.ExportToStream(CrystalDecisions.Shared.ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat); stream.Seek(0, System.IO.SeekOrigin.Begin); return new FileStreamResult(stream, "application/pdf"); } I took the code from here in SO but modified it like above. TIA.

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• iPhone SDK background thread image loading problem

  - by retailevolved

  I have created a grid view that displays six "cells" of content. In each cell, an image is loaded from the web. There are a multiple pages of this grid (the user moves through them by swiping up / down to see the next set of cells). Each cell has its own view controller. When these view controllers load, they use an ImageLoader class that I made to load and display an image. These view controllers implement an ImageLoaderDelegate that has a single method that gets called when the image is finished loading. ImageLoader does its work on a background thread and then simply notifies its delegate when it is done loading, passing the image to the delegate method. Trouble is that if the user moves on to the next page of grid content before the image has finished loading (releasing the GridCellViewControllers that use the ImageLoaders), the app crashes. I suspect that this is because along the line, an asynchronous method finishes and attempts to notify its delegate but can't because it's been released. Here's some code to give a better picture: GridCellViewController.m: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // ImageLoader _loader = [[ProductImageLoader alloc] init]; _loader.delegate = self; if(_boundObject) [_loader loadImageForProduct:_boundObject]; } //ImageLoaderDelegate method - (void) imageDidFinishLoading: (UIImage *)image { [_imgController setImage:image]; } ProductImageLoader.m - (void) loadImageForProduct: (Product *) product { // Get image on another thread [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(getImageForProductInBackground:) toTarget:self withObject:product]; } - (void) getImageForProductInBackground: (Product *) product { NSAutoreleasePool *tempPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; HttpRequestLoader *tempLoader = [[HttpRequestLoader alloc] init]; NSURL *tempUrl = [product getImageUrl]; NSData *imageData = tempUrl ? [tempLoader loadSynchronousDataFromAddress:[tempUrl absoluteString]] : nil; UIImage *image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:imageData]; [tempPool release]; if(delegate) [delegate imageDidFinishLoading:image]; } The app crashes with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Disclaimer: The code has been slightly modified to focus on the issue at hand.

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• An implementation of Sharir's or Aurenhammer's deterministic algorithm for calculating the intersect

  - by RGrey

  The problem of finding the intersection/union of 'N' discs/circles on a flat plane was first proposed by M. I. Shamos in his 1978 thesis: Shamos, M. I. “Computational Geometry” Ph.D. thesis, Yale Univ., New Haven, CT 1978. Since then, in 1985, Micha Sharir presented an O(n log2n) time and O(n) space deterministic algorithm for the disc intersection/union problem (based on modified Voronoi diagrams): Sharir, M. Intersection and closest-pair problems for a set of planar discs. SIAM .J Comput. 14 (1985), pp. 448-468. In 1988, Franz Aurenhammer presented a more efficient O(n log n) time and O(n) space algorithm for circle intersection/union using power diagrams (generalizations of Voronoi diagrams): Aurenhammer, F. Improved algorithms for discs and balls using power diagrams. Journal of Algorithms 9 (1985), pp. 151-161. Earlier in 1983, Paul G. Spirakis also presented an O(n^2) time deterministic algorithm, and an O(n) probabilistic algorithm: Spirakis, P.G. Very Fast Algorithms for the Area of the Union of Many Circles. Rep. 98, Dept. Comput. Sci., Courant Institute, New York University, 1983. I've been searching for any implementations of the algorithms above, focusing on computational geometry packages, and I haven't found anything yet. As neither appear trivial to put into practice, it would be really neat if someone could point me in the right direction!

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• ASP.NET dynamically reassign controls in the control tree

  - by pbz

  Let's say I have a custom control that looks like this <cc:MyControl runat="server" ID="myc" LinkControlID="NewParent" /> and, on the same page: <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="NewParent" /> What I would like to do is, from MyControl, change NewParent's parent so that it would be part of MyControl's Controls collection. When I try to do this, from OnInit, I get: The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases. Which makes sense, but is there a way around this? I'm OK if NewParent remains the child of the Page as long as from MyControl I can somehow redirect the rendering to MyControl's control. Can this be done? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify here's a mockup of MyControl: public class MyControl : Panel { protected override void OnInit(System.EventArgs e) { base.OnInit(e); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(LinkControlID)) { Control link = Parent.FindControl(LinkControlID); if (link != null) { Controls.Add(link); } } } public string LinkControlID { get; set; } } This assumes that MyControl and LinkControlID are placed on the same level in the tree hierarchy, which is OK in my case.

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• Safe to update separate regions of a BufferedImage in separate threads?

  - by finnw

  I have a collection of BufferedImage instances, one main image and some subimages created by calling getSubImage on the main image. The subimages do not overlap. I am also making modifications to the subimage and I want to split this into multiple threads, one per subimage. From my understanding of how BufferedImage, Raster and DataBuffer work, this should be safe because: Each instance of BufferedImage (and its respective WritableRaster) is accessed from only one thread. The shared ColorModel is immutable The DataBuffer has no fields that can be modified (the only thing that can change is elements of the backing array.) Modifying disjoint segments of an array in separate threads is safe. However I cannot find anything in the documentation that says that it is definitely safe to do this. Can I assume it is safe? I know that it is possible to work on copies of the child Rasters but I would prefer to avoid this because of memory constraints. Otherwise, is it possible to make the operation thread-safe without copying regions of the parent image?

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• Prototype's Ajax.Updater not actually updating on IE7.

  - by Ben S

  I am trying to submit a form using Ajax.Updater and have the result of that update a div element in my page. Everything works great in IE6, FF3, Chrome and Opera. However, In IE7 it sporadically works, but more often than not, it just doesn't seem to do anything. Here's the javascript: function testcaseHistoryUpdate(testcase, form) { document.body.style.cursor = 'wait'; var param = Form.serialize(form); new Ajax.Updater("content", "results/testcaseHistory/" + testcase, { onComplete: function(transport) {document.body.style.cursor = 'auto'}, parameters: param, method: 'post' } ); } I've verified using alert() calls that param is set to what I expect. I've read in many places that IE7 caches aggressively and that it might be the root cause, however every after adding the following to my php response, it still doesn't work. header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); header("Pragma: no-cache"); To further try to fix a caching issue I've tried adding a bogus parameter which just gets filled with a random value to have different parameters for every call, but that didn't help. I've also found this, where UTF-8 seemed to be causing an issue with IE7, but my page is clearly marked: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> Does anyone have any idea what could be wrong with IE7 as opposed to the other browsers I tested to cause this kind of issue?

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