Search Results

Search found 3004 results on 121 pages for 'plain'.

Page 97/121 | < Previous Page | 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104  | Next Page >

  • Why does Python sometimes upgrade a string to unicode and sometimes not?

    - by samtregar
    I'm confused. Consider this code working the way I expect: >>> foo = u'Émilie and Juañ are turncoats.' >>> bar = "foo is %s" % foo >>> bar u'foo is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' And this code not at all working the way I expect: >>> try: ... raise Exception(foo) ... except Exception as e: ... foo2 = e ... >>> bar = "foo2 is %s" % foo2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Traceback (most recent call last): File "<ipython console>", line 1, in <module> UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode characters in position 0-1: ordinal not in range(128) Can someone explain what's going on here? Why does it matter whether the unicode data is in a plain unicode string or stored in an Exception object? And why does this fix it: >>> bar = u"foo2 is %s" % foo2 >>> bar u'foo2 is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' I am quite confused! Thanks for the help! UPDATE: My coding buddy Randall has added to my confusion in an attempt to help me! Send in the reinforcements to explain how this is supposed to make sense: >>> class A: ... def __str__(self): return "string" ... def __unicode__(self): return "unicode" ... >>> "%s %s" % (u'niño', A()) u'ni\xc3\xb1o unicode' >>> "%s %s" % (A(), u'niño') u'string ni\xc3\xb1o' Note that the order of the arguments here determines which method is called!

    Read the article

  • Is there a recommended way to communicate scientific/engineering programming to C developers?

    - by ggkmath
    Hi, I have a lot of MATLAB code that needs to get ported to C (execution speed is critical for this work) as part of a back-end process for a web application. When I attempt to outsource this code to a C developer, I assume (correct me if I'm wrong) few C developers also understand MATLAB code (things like indexing and memory management are different, etc.). I wonder if there are any C developers out there that can recommend a procedure for me to follow to best communicate what the code does? For example, should I provide the MATLAB code and explain what it's doing line by line? Or, should I just provide the math/algorithm, explain it in plain English, and let the C developer implement it with this understanding in his/her own way (e.g. can I assume the developer understands how to work with complex math (i.e. imaginary numbers), how to generate histograms, perform an FFT, etc.)? Or, is there a better method? I expect I'm not the first to need to do this, so I wonder if any C developers out there ran into this situation and can share any conventional wisdom how they'd like this task to be transferred? Thanks in advance for any comments.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: I'm getting strange output when styling a Label control...

    - by pkiyan
    .labelOne { border-width:thin; border-style:solid; border-color:Red; background-color:Silver; } <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" CssClass="labelOne"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> <br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" BorderColor="Black" BorderStyle="Solid" BorderWidth="1px" BackColor="Silver"> <h1>Hello world</h1> </asp:Label> Hello. In the code sample above I have 2 Label controls with their contents set to an h1 header tag. The first Label is styled using css, and the second with the Label's inline properties (both Labels have identical styling). But the first Label doesn't output properly, it's border is broken. If I replace the first Label's markup with plain "Hello world" text it renders properly, but it breaks again when I use markup. Can someone explain why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

    Read the article

  • oracle select query - index on multiple columns

    - by CC
    Hello. I'm working on a sql query, and trying to optimise it, because it takes too long to execute. I have a few select and UNION between. Every select is on the same table but with different condition in WHERE clause. Basically I have allways something like : select * from A where field1 <"toto" and field2 IN (...) UNION select * from A where field1 >"toto2" and field2 =(...) UNION .... I have a index on field1 (it a date field, and field2 is a number). Now, when I do the select and if I put only WHERE field1 <'12/12/2010' it does not use the index. I'm using Toad to see the explain plain and it said: SELECT STAITEMENT Optimiser Mode = CHOOSE TABLE ACCESS FULL It is a huge table, and the index on this column is there. Any idea about this optimiser ? And why it does not uses the index ? Another question is , if I have where clause on field1 and field2 , I have to create only one index, or one index for each field ? Thanks alot.

    Read the article

  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

    Read the article

  • C# ...extract email address from inside 100's of text files

    - by Developer
    My SMTP server got 100's of errors when sending lots of emails. Now have lots of .BAD files each one containing an error message and somewhere in the middle, the actual email address it was supposed to be sent to. What is the easiest way to extract from each file "just" the "email address", so that I can have a list of the actual failed emails? I can code in C# and any suggestion will be truly welcomed. BAD SAMPLE TEXT: From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Date: Tue, 25 Sep 2012 12:12:09 -0700 MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/report; report-type=delivery-status; boundary="9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.co" X-DSNContext: 7ce717b1 - 1386 - 00000002 - C00402D1 Message-ID: Subject: Delivery Status Notification (Failure) This is a MIME-formatted message. Portions of this message may be unreadable without a MIME-capable mail program. --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.co Content-Type: text/plain; charset=unicode-1-1-utf-7 This is an automatically generated Delivery Status Notification. Unable to deliver message to the following recipients, due to being unable to connect successfully to the destination mail server. [email protected] --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.com Content-Type: message/delivery-status Reporting-MTA: dns;my.server.com Received-From-MTA: dns;Social Arrival-Date: Tue, 25 Sep 2012 11:45:15 -0700 Final-Recipient: rfc822;[email protected] Action: failed Status: 4.4.7 --9B095B5ADSN=_01CD9B35032DF58000000066my.server.com Content-Type: message/rfc822 Received: from Social ([127.0.0.1]) by my.server.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(7.5.7601.17514); Tue, 25 Sep 2012 11:45:15 -0700 ====================================== ...and lots more text after ===================== Mainly I want to find the "[email protected]" email right in the middle...

    Read the article

  • Modifying DIV CSS properties from within a deeply nested IFRAME.

    - by clintboxe
    I'm working with a business intelligence tool that only gives me access to a deeply nested iframe to add code. Ideally I would like to use jQuery and/or plain old JavaScript to modify the left and position CSS of a div that is 3 iframes above my IFRAME. I have access to add JavaScript/HTML to divArea0_1 within the reportiframe IFRAME. I would like to modify the propdiv DIV contained within the JSTabbedPanel IFRAME. Hopefully the HTML below is legible enough. :) Any ideas or help is greatly appreciated. <html> <div id = "tabs"> <iframe id = "tabbedPanel"> <iframe id = "JSTabbedPanel"> <div id = "treeTypeDiv"> <div id = "treediv"> <iframe id = "treeFrame"></iframe> </div> <div id = "propdiv"> <iframe id = "propFrame"> <div id = "reportpane"> <iframe id = "reportiframe"> <div id = "divEntire"> <div id = "divArea0_1"> <div id = "MyCode goes HERE"></div> </div> </div> </iframe> </div> </iframe> </div> </div> </iframe> </iframe> </div> </html>

    Read the article

  • How can I programmatically position a view using relative points?

    - by Steve Madsen
    What is the best way to position a view relative to the size of its superview, when the bounds of the superview are not yet known? I am trying to avoid hard-coding coordinates if it is at all possible. Perhaps this is silly, and if so, that's a perfectly acceptable answer. I've run into this many times when working with custom UI. The most recent example is that I'm trying to replace the UINavigationItem plain-text title with a custom view. I want that view to fill the superview, but in addition, I want a UIActivityIndicatorView on the right side, inset about 2 pixels and centered vertically. Here's the code: - (void) viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; customTitleView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; customTitleView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; titleLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; titleLabel.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; titleLabel.lineBreakMode = UILineBreakModeWordWrap; titleLabel.numberOfLines = 2; titleLabel.minimumFontSize = 11.0; titleLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:17.0]; titleLabel.adjustsFontSizeToFitWidth = YES; [customTitleView addSubview:titleLabel]; spinnerView = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithActivityIndicatorStyle:UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhite]; spinnerView.center = CGPointMake(customTitleView.bounds.size.width - (spinnerView.bounds.size.width / 2) - 2, customTitleView.bounds.size.height / 2); spinnerView.hidesWhenStopped = YES; [customTitleView addSubview:spinnerView]; self.navigationItem.titleView = customTitleView; [customTitleView release]; } Here's my problem: at the time that this code runs, customTitleView.bounds is still zeroes. The auto-resizing mask hasn't had a chance to do its thing yet, but I very much want those values so that I can compute the relative positions of other sub-views (here, the activity indicator). Is this possible without being ugly?

    Read the article

  • Blackberry: Getting uncaught exception java.lang.securityexception

    - by Maxim Xion
    here is my code to open an image file from SDcard in Blackberry import javax.microedition.midlet.*; import javax.microedition.lcdui.*; import java.io.*; public class DisplayAnImage extends MIDlet { private Display mDisplay; private Form mForm; private Image pngBackground; public void startApp() { try{ pngBackground = Image.createImage("file:///Media Card/test_image.png"); ImageItem img = new ImageItem("bg",pngBackground, ImageItem.LAYOUT_EXPAND,"background",ImageItem.PLAIN); mForm = new Form("MIDlet Developer Guide: Display an image."); mForm.append(img); mDisplay = Display.getDisplay(this); mDisplay.setCurrent(mForm); } catch(IOException e) { mForm.append(e.getMessage()); } } public void pauseApp() { } public void destroyApp(boolean flag) { } } While I am running this app with giving all permission to app it shows me "uncaught exception java.lang.securityexception". Please somebody help me on this. Thanks in advance.. :-)

    Read the article

  • How do I add the go language to gitg's list of viewable sources?

    - by Hotei
    Hoping a 'git' guru will help out here. I am just beginning to "git" for the first time and have (among other things :-) ) git and gitg installed from Ubuntu 10.4 / AMD64 distribution (ie. maybe not 'latest' version but not ancient). I am trying to look at the go code I've committed via gitg and in the "tree tab" it says :Cannot display file content as text. However, the "details tab" shows the diffs of the same file just fine. I know gitg's "tree tab" is working because I can use the tree view on *.c / *.html / *.txt etc just fine. Is there a way to tweak gitg into understanding that "*.go" is just text? A little more context: Installed gitg version is 0.0.5 - ie a version behind latest - 0.0.6 - source of which I am looking thru now. I do have a working /usr/share/gtksourceview-2.0/language-specs/ go.lang. It works just fine as highlighter in gedit. It appears that gitg may require displayable files to have a mime type of "text/plain", so I added that to go.lang No joy. gitg still fails on *.go I'm relatively sure the fix is simple, just don't know where to look.

    Read the article

  • How expensive is a context switch? Is it better to implement a manual task switch than to rely on OS

    - by Vilx-
    The title says it all. Imagine I have two (three, four, whatever) tasks that have to run in parallel. Now, the easy way to do this would be to create separate threads and forget about it. But on a plain old single-core CPU that would mean a lot of context switching - and we all know that context switching is big, bad, slow, and generally simply Evil. It should be avoided, right? On that note, if I'm writing the software from ground up anyway, I could go the extra mile and implement my own task-switching. Split each task in parts, save the state inbetween, and then switch among them within a single thread. Or, if I detect that there are multiple CPU cores, I could just give each task to a separate thread and all would be well. The second solution does have the advantage of adapting to the number of available CPU cores, but will the manual task-switch really be faster than the one in the OS core? Especially if I'm trying to make the whole thing generic with a TaskManager and an ITask, etc?

    Read the article

  • Servlet that starts a thread only once for every visitor

    - by user858749
    Hey I want to implement a Java Servlet that starts a thread only once for every single user. Even on refresh it should not start again. My last approach brought me some trouble so no code^^. Any Suggestions for the layout of the servlet? public class LoaderServlet extends HttpServlet { // The thread to load the needed information private LoaderThread loader; // The last.fm account private String lfmaccount; public LoaderServlet() { super(); lfmaccount = ""; } @Override protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if (loader != null) { response.setContentType("text/plain"); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.write(loader.getStatus()); out.flush(); out.close(); } else { loader = new LoaderThread(lfmaccount); loader.start(); request.getRequestDispatcher("WEB-INF/pages/loader.jsp").forward( request, response); } } @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if (lfmaccount.isEmpty()) { lfmaccount = request.getSession().getAttribute("lfmUser") .toString(); } request.getRequestDispatcher("WEB-INF/pages/loader.jsp").forward( request, response); } } The jsp uses ajax to regularly post to the servlet and get the status. The thread just runs like 3 minutes, crawling some last.fm data.

    Read the article

  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

    Read the article

  • Entity framework with Linq to Entities performance

    - by mare
    If I have a static method like this public static string GetTicClassificationTitle(string classI, string classII, string classIII) { using (TicDatabaseEntities ticdb = new TicDatabaseEntities()) { var result = from classes in ticdb.Classifications where classes.ClassI == classI where classes.ClassII == classII where classes.ClassIII == classIII select classes.Description; return result.FirstOrDefault(); } } and use this method in various places in foreach loops or just plain calling it numerous times, does it create and open new connection every time? If so, how can I tackle this? Should I cache the results somewhere, like in this case, I would cache the entire Classifications table in Memory Cache? And then do queries vs this cached object? Or should I make TicDatabaseEntities variable static and initialize it at class level? Should my class be static if it contains only static methods? Because right now it is not.. Also I've noticed that if I return result.First() instead of FirstOrDefault() and the query does not find a match, it will issue an exception (with FirstOrDefault() there is no exception, it returns null). Thank you for clarification.

    Read the article

  • Html image link, not working

    - by Anders Metnik
    Hey I'm doing some testing while learning js + html5 and other web/mobile frameworks. I have a problem with one of my picture links, which I also need to change the picture dynamically and the target(hopefully). But it won't work. HTML: <div data-role="content" id="firstPageContent"> <p>I'm first in the source order so I'm shown as the page.</p> <p>View internal page called <a href="#second">second</a></p> <a href = "#second" id="mapLink" name="mapLink"><img id="mapLinkImage" alt="a map which links to the mapPage" src="images/main_header.png"/></a> <Button id="loadButton" onClick="load()"/> </div><!-- /content --> js: importScripts(dataManager.js); var mapLink=second; function load(){ alert('called'); document.getElementById('mapLinkImage').src="images/store.map.png"; document.getElementById('mapLink').href = "http://google.com"; } problem: It ain't showing the image as a link, just as a plain image. i think this will work now.

    Read the article

  • Extremely Difficult Problem with ASP.Net 4.0 WebForms app using Routing

    - by dudeNumber4
    I have a completed app running in a QA environment. Everything works fine under most circumstances. If you hit a plain URL (no identifying information in the URL), you see an intro page with a button (generated by an asp LinkButton control) that posts back and directs you to another page. The markup looks the same when it fails and when it doesn't. When such a URL is followed from, e.g., Word and the default browser is IE, the intro page loads fine, but clicking the button causes an error. When not debugging, this behavior occurs every time. While debugging, the error occurs only ~ 1 in 10 times (closing the browser instance and starting over every time). When the error occurs, the intro page Page_Load fires and IsPostBack is false. Somehow, instead of a post, a get is being issued. When I run fiddler to try to analyze the actual calls (can't use firebug because it never happens using Firefox), everything works every time. I don't know whether this issue has anything to do with routing, and I've no idea even what to look at next. The strange thing is, when I debug, the intro page doesn't fully load every time. Only about 1 in 3 times does it fully load even if I've just cleared browser cache. When I run it through fiddler, it fully loads and works fine every time.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails login using legacy user database

    - by ricsmania
    Hello, I have a Rails application that connects to a legacy database (Oracle) and displays some information from a particular user. Right now the user is passed as a URL parameter, but this has obvious security issues because users should only be able to see their own data. To solve that, I want to implement a user login, and I did some research and came across 2 components for that, restful_authentication and authlogic. The problem is that I need to use an existing user/password database instead of creating a new one, which is the common way to use those components. The password is encrypted by a custom Oracle package, but let's assume it is stored as plain text to make things simpler. I only need very basic functionality, which is login a user and keep them logged in forever until logout. No changes to the database will be made by this application, so there's no need for sign up, e-mail activation, reset password, etc. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to do that? Is any of those 2 components a good solution? If not, what would be recommended? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Ruby On Rails - Contact form not sending email via localhost

    - by anonymousxxx
    similar problem Rails contact form not working guides: https://github.com/thomasklemm/email_form_rails rails 3.2.x app\models\message.rb class Message include ActiveAttr::Model include ActiveModel::Validations attribute :name attribute :email attribute :subject attribute :body attr_accessible :name, :email, :subject, :body validates_presence_of :name validates_presence_of :email validates :email, email_format: { message: "is not looking like a valid email address"} validates_presence_of :subject validates_length_of :body, maximum: 500 end app\mailers\contact_form.rb class ContactForm < ActionMailer::Base default from: "[email protected]" default to: "[email protected]" def email_form(message) @message = message mail subject: "#{message.subject} #{message.name}" mail body: "#{message.body}" end end development.rb config.action_mailer.delivery_method = :smtp config.action_mailer.perform_deliveries = true config.action_mailer.smtp_settings = { :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "mydomain.com", :user_name => "[email protected]", :password => "mypassword", :authentication => :plain, :enable_starttls_auto => true } config.action_mailer.default_url_options = { :host => "localhost:3000" } output in command Started POST "/email" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-09-04 22:10:40 +0700 Processing by HomeController#send_email_form as HTML Parameters: {"utf8"="v", "authenticity_token"="w39BLqCrjTMm4RRi/Sm5hZoEpcw46 npyRy/RS0h48x0=", "message"={"name"="anonymousxxx", "email"="[email protected]", "subject"="Test", "body"="send email"}, "commit"="Create Message"} Redirected to localhost:3000/home/contact Completed 302 Found in 1ms (ActiveRecord: 0.0ms) but email (message) no receive my email,..

    Read the article

  • Serving .docx files through Php

    - by user275074
    Hi, I'm having issues when attempting to serve a .docx file using Php. When uploading the file I detect the file mime type and upload the file using the file with the correct extension based on the mime type; e.g. below: application/msword - doc application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document - docx When attempting to serve the files for download, I do the reverse in detecting the extension and serving based on the mime type e.g. public static function fileMimeType($extention) { if(!is_null($extention)) { switch($extention) { case 'txt': return 'text/plain'; break; case 'odt': return 'application/vnd.oasis.opendocument.text'; break; case 'doc': return 'application/msword'; break; case 'docx': return 'application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document'; break; case ('jpg' || 'jpeg'): return 'image/jpeg'; break; case 'png': return 'image/png'; break; case 'pdf': return 'application/pdf'; break; default: break; } } } All files appear to download correctly and open fine but when attempting to open a docx file, Word (on multiple files) throws a error stating the file is corrupt. Any ideas would be great, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why do you have to call URLConnection#getInputStream to be able to write out to URLConnection#getOutputStream?

    - by John
    I'm trying to write out to URLConnection#getOutputStream, however, no data is actually sent until I call URLConnection#getInputStream. Even if I set URLConnnection#doInput to false, it still will not send. Does anyone know why this is? There's nothing in the API documentation that describes this. Java API Documentation on URLConnection: http://download.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/api/java/net/URLConnection.html Java's Tutorial on Reading from and Writing to a URLConnection: http://download.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/networking/urls/readingWriting.html import java.io.IOException; import java.io.OutputStreamWriter; import java.net.URL; import java.net.URLConnection; public class UrlConnectionTest { private static final String TEST_URL = "http://localhost:3000/test/hitme"; public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { URLConnection urlCon = null; URL url = null; OutputStreamWriter osw = null; try { url = new URL(TEST_URL); urlCon = url.openConnection(); urlCon.setDoOutput(true); urlCon.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "text/plain"); //////////////////////////////////////// // SETTING THIS TO FALSE DOES NOTHING // //////////////////////////////////////// // urlCon.setDoInput(false); osw = new OutputStreamWriter(urlCon.getOutputStream()); osw.write("HELLO WORLD"); osw.flush(); ///////////////////////////////////////////////// // MUST CALL THIS OTHERWISE WILL NOT WRITE OUT // ///////////////////////////////////////////////// urlCon.getInputStream(); ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // If getInputStream is called while doInput=false, the following exception is thrown: // // java.net.ProtocolException: Cannot read from URLConnection if doInput=false (call setDoInput(true)) // ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { if (osw != null) { osw.close(); } } } }

    Read the article

  • Send Automated Email through Windows Service that has an embedded image using C#

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I already have a C# windows service that we use internally to monitor a directory on our network and when it detects a change sends off an email using our internal SMTP server to the specified groups of people. Now I need to embedd an image in that automated email. I understand that I need to create an AlternateView and a Linked Resource and use the Linked Resource's cID in the AlternateView, correct. What I do not understand is where do I put the image? Should I add it to my service project and set Copy to Output Directory = Copy Always? If so, how would I then access when creating my LinkedResource? Also, where do I put the image on the Server hosting the Service? Here is what I have so far but it doesn't seem to work. I don't get any errors, that I am aware of, but I do not get an email either. I am guessing it is looking for the image but that I do not have it in the correct location. // This event is called when an object(file,folder) is created in the srcPath void WatcherCreated(object source , FileSystemEventArgs e) { var folderName = e.Name; var folderPath = e.FullPath; MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "New Enrollment for " + folderName; AlternateView plainView = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString("This is the plain text view", null, "text/html"); AlternateView htmlView = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString("Here is an embedded image. <img src=cid:enrollProcessID>", null, "text/html"); LinkedResource imageResourceLink = new LinkedResource("EnrollmentProcess.jpg") {ContentId = "enrollProcessID"}; htmlView.LinkedResources.Add(imageResourceLink); mail.AlternateViews.Add(plainView); mail.AlternateViews.Add(htmlView); var smtp = new SmtpClient("internalSMTP"); smtp.Send(mail); }

    Read the article

  • C#: HTTPWebResponse using application/x-www-form-urlencoded

    - by CSharpened
    So I sent an HTTPWebRequest using application/x-www-form-urlencoded as my content type. I assume that this means the reponse will be returned in a similar type? (EDIT: Have now been told this isn't the case) My question is this. How do I access the different key/value pairs returned in the response. My code so far looks like this. I can of course read the string but surely there is a better way to access the data other than ripping the string apart. HttpWebResponse response = SendPOSTRequest("https://site/page?Service=foo", content.ToString(), "", "", true); string responseCode = response.StatusCode.ToString(); string responseStatusDescription = response.StatusDescription; StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); string result = sr.ReadToEnd(); I tried using XML/linq to read the elements into an XDocument but of course it is not being returned in XML form. Assume I have 3 or 4 different pieces of information in there how could I read them out? EDIT: I have just checked and the data is being returned as text/plain. How can this be processed easily? EDIT: The response string once retrieved via a streamreader is: VPSProtocol=2.23 Status=OK StatusDetail=Server transaction registered successfully. VPSTxId={FDC93F3D-FC64-400D-875F-0B7E855AD81F} SecurityKey=***** NextURL=https://foo.com/PaymentPage.asp?TransactionID={875F-0B7E855AD81F}

    Read the article

  • Downloading From Google Docs

    - by jeremynealbrown
    Hello, I am using the gdata-java-client Version 2 with for and Android app that allows users to download documents from their Google Docs account. Currently I am able to authenticate, request and display a list of all the user's documents. From here I would like to open each type of document in a specific Activity. If it's a spreadsheet or a csv file, open it in one activity and if it is a text document open it in another activity. This is where things are getting hazy. First I need to determine what type of document the user selected in order download the file in the appropriate format by appending exporFormat=(csv,xls,doc,txt) to the query string. I don't see any indication in the original list of documents as to what kind of file the each entry is. Secondly as a test I can just append a raw string to the end of the query string. As an example, a query might look like this: https://spreadsheets.google.com/feeds/download/spreadsheets/Export?key=0AsE_6_YIr797dHBTUWlHMUFXeTV4ZzJlUGxWRnJXanc&exportFormat=xls Notice that at the end of the string is the hardcoded export format. This query returns a HTTPResponse with a 200 OK message. However if I look at the response.content or use response.parseAsString I see what appears to be a Google Docs home page has html text. I don't get this result when I try to download a text document. When I request a text document the response.content is the body of the text file. If I copy and paste this uri into a browser I get the requested file as a download. To summarize, this question is two-fold: 1. How do I determine the type( plain text, .doc, .csv, .xls ) of a document from the initial list of user documents. 2. How do I download the actual .csv or spreadsheet files? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to get the real, actual duration of an MP3 file (VBR or CBR) server-side

    - by Cummander Checkov
    I used to calculate the duration of MP3 files server-side using ffmpeg - which seemed to work fine. Today i discovered that some of the calculations were wrong. Somehow, for some reason, ffmpeg will miscalculate the duration and it seems to happen with variable bit rate mp3 files only. When testing this locally, i noticed that ffmpeg printed two extra lines in green. Command used: ffmpeg -i song_9747c077aef8.mp3 ffmpeg says: [mp3 @ 0x102052600] max_analyze_duration 5000000 reached at 5015510 [mp3 @ 0x102052600] Estimating duration from bitrate, this may be inaccurate After a nice, warm google session, i found some posts on this, but no solution was found. I then tried to increase the maximum duration: ffmpeg -analyzeduration 999999999 -i song_9747c077aef8.mp3 After this, ffmpeg returned only the second line: [mp3 @ 0x102052600] Estimating duration from bitrate, this may be inaccurate But in either case, the calculated duration was just plain wrong. Comparing it to VLC i noticed that here the duration is correct. After more research i stumbled over mp3info - which i installed and used. mp3info -p "%S" song_9747c077aef8.mp3 mp3info then returned the CORRECT duration, but only as an integer, which i cannot use as i need a more accurate number here. The reason for this was explained in a comment below, by user blahdiblah - mp3info is simply pulling ID3 info from the file and not actually performing any calculations. I also tried using mplayer to retrieve the duration, but just as ffmpeg, mplayer is returning the wrong value. Now i ran out of options. If somebody knows how to get around this, any hints, tips, guides or corrections are welcome! Thank You!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104  | Next Page >