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  • Performance question: Inverting an array of pointers in-place vs array of values

    - by Anders
    The background for asking this question is that I am solving a linearized equation system (Ax=b), where A is a matrix (typically of dimension less than 100x100) and x and b are vectors. I am using a direct method, meaning that I first invert A, then find the solution by x=A^(-1)b. This step is repated in an iterative process until convergence. The way I'm doing it now, using a matrix library (MTL4): For every iteration I copy all coeffiecients of A (values) in to the matrix object, then invert. This the easiest and safest option. Using an array of pointers instead: For my particular case, the coefficients of A happen to be updated between each iteration. These coefficients are stored in different variables (some are arrays, some are not). Would there be a potential for performance gain if I set up A as an array containing pointers to these coefficient variables, then inverting A in-place? The nice thing about the last option is that once I have set up the pointers in A before the first iteration, I would not need to copy any values between successive iterations. The values which are pointed to in A would automatically be updated between iterations. So the performance question boils down to this, as I see it: - The matrix inversion process takes roughly the same amount of time, assuming de-referencing of pointers is non-expensive. - The array of pointers does not need the extra memory for matrix A containing values. - The array of pointers option does not have to copy all NxN values of A between each iteration. - The values that are pointed to the array of pointers option are generally NOT ordered in memory. Hopefully, all values lie relatively close in memory, but *A[0][1] is generally not next to *A[0][0] etc. Any comments to this? Will the last remark affect performance negatively, thus weighing up for the positive performance effects?

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • How to solve the problem of not being informed of successful payments by the 3rd party system used b

    - by user68759
    I have a subscription based website that interacts with a 3rd party system to handle the payments. The steps to process a new subscriber registration are as follow: The subscriber enters his/her details in the subscription form and click on the submit button. Assuming the details specified are valid, a new record is created in the database to store these details. The subscriber is then redirected to the website of the 3rd party system (similar to paypal) to process the payment. Once the payment is succesful, the 3rd party website then redirect the subscriber back to our website. At this time, I know that the payment was succesful, so the record in the database is updated to indicate that payment has been made successfully. A problem that I have found occurring quite often is that if a subscriber pays but does not complete the process correctly (e.g. uses the back browser, closes the window), his/her record in the database doesn't get updated about this. Accordingly, I don't know if s/he has paid by just looking the record and need to wait for the report from the 3rd party system to find this out. How do you solve this problem? PS. One of the main reasons to store their details into the database before the payment process is done is so they can come back to complete the payment without re-entering their details again. For example, when their credit cards were rejected by the 3rd party system and they need to sort this out with their financial institution which may take a while.

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  • Distributed Message Ordering

    - by sbanwart
    I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

    - by owen
    I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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  • [MFC] Creating multiple dialogs in an MFC app with no main Window, they become children of each othe

    - by John
    (title updated) Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000) Running in the debugger, if I manually change pParentWnd back to 0 in CDialog::CreateIndirect, everything works fine... but how do I stop it happening in the first place?

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  • Need a SQL statement focus on combination of tables but entries always with uinque ID

    - by Registered User KC
    Hi All, I need SQL code to solve the tables combination problem, described on below: Table old data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/8/2010 1 B 0.1 on 6/8/2010 2 C 0.1 on 6/8/2010 3 D 0.1 on 6/8/2010 4 E 0.1 on 6/8/2010 5 F 0.1 on 6/8/2010 6 G 0.1 on 6/8/2010 7 Table new data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #B entry deleted C 0.3 on 6/18/2010 #version_updated C1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 D 0.1 on 6/18/2010 E 0.1 off 6/18/2010 #status_updated F 0.1 on 6/18/2010 G 0.1 on 6/18/2010 H 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added H1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added the difference of new data and old date: B entry deleted C entry version updated E entry status updated C1/H/H1 entry new added What I want is always keeping the ID - name mapping relationship in old data table no matter how data changed later, a.k.a the name always has a unique ID number bind with it. If entry has update, then update the data, if entry is new added, insert to the table then give a new assigned unique ID. However, I can only use SQL with simple select or update statement then it may too hard for me to write such code, then I hope someone with expertise can give direction, no details needed on the different of SQL variant, a standard sql code as sample is enough. Thanks in advance! Rgs KC

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  • binding nested json object value to a form field

    - by Jack
    I am building a dynamic form to edit data in a json object. First, if something like this exists let me know. I would rather not build it but I have searched many times for a tool and have found only tree like structures that require entering quotes. I would be happy to treat all values as strings. This edit functionality is for end users so it needs to be easy an not intimidating. So far I have code that generates nested tables to represent a json object. For each value I display a form field. I would like to bind the form field to the associated nested json value. If I could store a reference to the json value I would build an array of references to each value in a json object tree. I have not found a way to do that with javascript. My last resort approach will be to traverse the table after edits are made. I would rather have dynamic updates but a single submit would be better than nothing. Any ideas? // the json in files nests only a few levels. Here is the format of a simple case, { "researcherid_id":{ "id_key":"researcherid_id", "description":"Use to retrieve bibliometric data", "url_template" :[ { "name": "Author Detail", "url": "http://www.researcherid.com/rid/${key}" } ] } } $.get('file.json',make_json_form); function make_json_form(response) { dataset = $.secureEvalJSON(response); // iterate through the object and generate form field for string values. } // Then after the form is edited I want to display the raw updated json (then I want to save it but that is for another thread) // now I iterate through the form and construct the json object // I would rather have the dataset object var updated on focus out after each edit. function show_json(form_id){ var r = {}; var el = document.getElementById(form_id); table_to_json(r,el,null); $('body').html(formattedJSON(r)); }

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  • Rails' page caching vs. HTTP reverse proxy caches

    - by John Topley
    I've been catching up with the Scaling Rails screencasts. In episode 11 which covers advanced HTTP caching (using reverse proxy caches such as Varnish and Squid etc.), they recommend only considering using a reverse proxy cache once you've already exhausted the possibilities of page, action and fragment caching within your Rails application (as well as memcached etc. but that's not relevant to this question). What I can't quite understand is how using an HTTP reverse proxy cache can provide a performance boost for an application that already uses page caching. To simplify matters, let's assume that I'm talking about a single host here. This is my understanding of how both techniques work (maybe I'm wrong): With page caching the Rails process is hit initially and then generates a static HTML file that is served directly by the Web server for subsequent requests, for as long as the cache for that request is valid. If the cache has expired then Rails is hit again and the static file is regenerated with the updated content ready for the next request With an HTTP reverse proxy cache the Rails process is hit when the proxy needs to determine whether the content is stale or not. This is done using various HTTP headers such as ETag, Last-Modified etc. If the content is fresh then Rails responds to the proxy with an HTTP 304 Not Modified and the proxy serves its cached content to the browser, or even better, responds with its own HTTP 304. If the content is stale then Rails serves the updated content to the proxy which caches it and then serves it to the browser If my understanding is correct, then doesn't page caching result in less hits to the Rails process? There isn't all that back and forth to determine if the content is stale, meaning better performance than reverse proxy caching. Why might you use both techniques in conjunction?

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  • Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

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  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

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  • Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

    - by Thomas Herrmann
    I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

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  • Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

    - by merweirdo
    I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

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  • Can shared memory be read and validated without mutexes?

    - by Bribles
    On Linux I'm using shmget and shmat to setup a shared memory segment that one process will write to and one or more processes will read from. The data that is being shared is a few megabytes in size and when updated is completely rewritten; it's never partially updated. I have my shared memory segment laid out as follows: ------------------------- | t0 | actual data | t1 | ------------------------- where t0 and t1 are copies of the time when the writer began its update (with enough precision such that successive updates are guaranteed to have differing times). The writer first writes to t1, then copies in the data, then writes to t0. The reader on the other hand reads t0, then the data, then t1. If the reader gets the same value for t0 and t1 then it considers the data consistent and valid, if not, it tries again. Does this procedure ensure that if the reader thinks the data is valid then it actually is? Do I need to worry about out-of-order execution (OOE)? If so, would the reader using memcpy to get the entire shared memory segment overcome the OOE issues on the reader side? (This assumes that memcpy performs it's copy linearly and ascending through the address space. Is that assumption valid?)

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  • Auto filling polymorphic table on save or on delete in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    Hi, Am working on an project in which I made an app "core" it will contain some of the reused models across my projects, most of those are polymorphic models (Generic content types) and will be linked to different models. Example below am trying to create audit model and will be linked to several models which may require auditing. This is the polls/models.py from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from core.models import * from django.contrib.contenttypes import generic class Poll(models.Model): ## TODO: Document question = models.CharField(max_length=300) question_slug=models.SlugField(editable=False) start_poll_at = models.DateTimeField(null=True) end_poll_at = models.DateTimeField(null=True) is_active = models.BooleanField(default=True) audit_obj=generic.GenericRelation(Audit) def __unicode__(self): return self.question class Choice(models.Model): ## TODO: Document choice = models.CharField(max_length=200) poll=models.ForeignKey(Poll) audit_obj=generic.GenericRelation(Audit) class Vote(models.Model): ## TODO: Document choice=models.ForeignKey(Choice) Ip_Address=models.IPAddressField(editable=False) vote_at=models.DateTimeField("Vote at", editable=False) here is the core/modes.py from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from django.contrib.contenttypes.models import ContentType from django.contrib.contenttypes import generic class Audit(models.Model): ## TODO: Document # Polymorphic model using generic relation through DJANGO content type created_at = models.DateTimeField("Created at", auto_now_add=True) created_by = models.ForeignKey(User, db_column="created_by", related_name="%(app_label)s_%(class)s_y+") updated_at = models.DateTimeField("Updated at", auto_now=True) updated_by = models.ForeignKey(User, db_column="updated_by", null=True, blank=True, related_name="%(app_label)s_%(class)s_y+") content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField(unique=True) content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') and here is polls/admin.py from django.core.context_processors import request from polls.models import Poll, Choice from core.models import * from django.contrib import admin class ChoiceInline(admin.StackedInline): model = Choice extra = 3 class PollAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): inlines = [ChoiceInline] admin.site.register(Poll, PollAdmin) Am quite new to django, what am trying to do here, insert a record in audit when a record is inserted in polls and then update that same record when a record is updated in polls.

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  • Refreshing Read-Only (Chained) Property in MVVM

    - by Wonko the Sane
    I'm thinking this should be easy, but I can't seem to figure this out. Take these properties from an example ViewModel (ObservableViewModel implements INotifyPropertyChanged): class NameViewModel : ObservableViewModel { Boolean mShowFullName = false; string mFirstName = "Wonko"; string mLastName = "DeSane"; private readonly DelegateCommand mToggleName; public NameViewModel() { mToggleName = new DelegateCommand(() => ShowFullName = !mShowFullName); } public ICommand ToggleNameCommand { get { return mToggleName; } } public Boolean ShowFullName { get { return mShowFullName; } set { SetPropertyValue("ShowFullName", ref mShowFullName, value); } } public string Name { get { return (mShowFullName ? this.FullName : this.Initials); } } public string FullName { get { return mFirstName + " " + mLastName; } } public string Initials { get { return mFirstName.Substring(0, 1) + "." + mLastName.Substring(0, 1) + "."; } } } The guts of such a [insert your adjective here] View using this ViewModel might look like: <TextBlock x:Name="txtName" Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <Button x:Name="btnToggleName" Command="{Binding ToggleNameCommand}" Content="Toggle Name" Grid.Row="1" /> The problem I am seeing is when the ToggleNameCommand is fired. The ShowFullName property is properly updated by the command, but the Name binding is never updated in the View. What am I missing? How can I force the binding to update? Do I need to implement the Name properties as DependencyProperties (and therefore derive from DependencyObject)? Seems a little heavyweight to me, and I'm hoping for a simpler solution. Thanks, wTs

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  • Rexml - Parsing Data

    - by Paddy
    I have a XML File in the following format: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <entry xmlns='http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom' xmlns:gwo='http://schemas.google.com/analytics/websiteoptimizer/2009' xmlns:app='http://www.w3.org/2007/app' xmlns:gd='http://schemas.google.com/g/2005' gd:etag='W/&quot;DUYGRX85fCp7I2A9WxFWEkQ.&quot;'><id>https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/websiteoptimizer/experiments/1025910</id><updated>2010-05-31T02:12:04.124-07:00</updated><app:edited>2010-05-31T02:12:04.124-07:00</app:edited><title>Flow Experiment</title><link rel='gwo:goalUrl' type='text/html' href='http://cart.personallifemedia.com/dlg/download.php'/><link rel='alternate' type='text/html' href='https://www.google.com/websiteoptimizer'/><link rel='self' type='application/atom+xml' href='https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/websiteoptimizer/experiments/1025910'/><gwo:analyticsAccountId>16334726</gwo:analyticsAccountId><gwo:autoPruneMode>None</gwo:autoPruneMode><gwo:controlScript>..... I have to parse and get the data for gd:etag and how do I do it? I was able to get the value using SimpleXML, but i wanted to achieve it in ReXML. Please do advice.

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  • Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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  • Programatically rebuild .exd-files when loading VBA

    - by aspartame
    Hi, After updating Microsoft Office 2007 to Office 2010 some custom VBA scripts embedded in our software failed to compile with the following error message: Object library invalid or contains references to object definitions that could not be found. As far as I know, this error is a result of a security update from Microsoft (Microsoft Security Advisory 960715). When adding ActiveX-controls to VBA scripts, information about the controls are stored in cache files on the local hard drive (.exd-files). The security update modified some of these controls, but the .exd-files were not automatically updated. When the VBA scripts try to load the old versions of the controls stored in the cached files, the error occurs. These cache-files must be removed from the hard drive in order for the controls to load successfully (which will create new, updated .exd-files automatically). What I would like to do is to programatically (using Visual C++) remove the outdated .exd-files when our software loads. When opening a VBA project using CApcProject::ApcProject.Open I set the following flag:axProjectThrowAwayCompiledState. TestHR(ApcProject.Open(pHost, (MSAPC::AxProjectFlag) (MSAPC::axProjectNormal | MSAPC::axProjectThrowAwayCompiledState))); According to the documentation, this flag should cause the VBA project to be recompiled and the temporary files to be deleted and rebuilt. I've also tried to update the checksum of the host application type library which should have the same effect. However none of these fixes seem to do the job and I'm running out of ideas. Help is very much appreciated!

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  • WPF validation on Enter Key Up

    - by Martin
    I'm trying to validate a UI change when Enter key is pressed. The UI element is a textbox, which is data binded to a string. My problem is that the data binding hasn't updated TestText when Enter key is Up. It is only updated when I press the button which brings up a message box. /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { String _testText = new StringBuilder("One").ToString(); public string TestText { get { return _testText; } set { if (value != _testText) { _testText = value; OnPropertyChanged("TestText"); } } } public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); myGrid.DataContext = this; } private void OnPropertyChanged(string property) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(property)); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void onKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key != System.Windows.Input.Key.Enter) return; System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine(TestText); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(TestText); } } Window XAML: Window x:Class="VerificationTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" KeyUp="onKeyUp" TextBox XAML: TextBox Name="myTextBox" Text="{Binding TestText}" Button XAML: Button Name="button1" Click="button1_Click"

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  • Get the last checked checkboxes...

    - by Sara
    Hi everyone, I'm not sure how to accomplish this issue which has been confusing me for a few days. I have a form that updates a user record in MySQL when a checkbox is checked. Now, this is how my form does this: if (isset($_POST['Update'])) { $paymentr = $_POST['paymentr']; //put checkboxes array into variable $paymentr2 = implode(', ', $paymentr); //implode array for mysql $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentreceived=NULL"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentdate='0000-00-00'"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentreceived='Yes' WHERE id IN ($paymentr2)"; $result = mysql_query($query); $query = "UPDATE transactions SET paymentdate=NOW() WHERE id IN ($paymentr2)"; $result = mysql_query($query); foreach ($paymentr as $v) { //should collect last updated records and put them into variable for emailing. $query = "SELECT id, refid, affid FROM transactions WHERE id = '$v'"; $result = mysql_query($query) or die("Query Failed: ".mysql_errno()." - ".mysql_error()."<BR>\n$query<BR>\n"); $trans = mysql_fetch_array($result, MYSQL_ASSOC); $transactions .= '<br>User ID:'.$trans['id'].' -- '.$trans['refid'].' -- '.$trans['affid'].'<br>'; } } Unfortunately, it then updates ALL the user records with the latest date which is not what I want it to do. The alternative I thought of was, via Javascript, giving the checkbox a value that would be dynamically updated when the user selected it. Then, only THOSE checkboxes would be put into the array. Is this possible? Is there a better solution? I'm not even sure I could wrap my brain around how to do that WITH Javascript. Does the answer perhaps lie in how my mysql code is written? Thanks - I sincerely appreciate it!!!

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  • Android Maven and Refresh Problem

    - by antonio Musella
    Hi all, i've a strange problem with maven and android I've 3 maven project and 2 normal java maven project divided in this manner : normal project : model project ... packaged as jar ... contains java Pojo Bean and Interface. Dao Project ... packaged as jar ... contains Db Logic - Depend on model Project Android Application Maven project ContentProvider ... packaged as apk ... contains ContentProviders only. Depends on Dao Project Editors ... packaged as apk ... contains only Editor, Depends on Dao project MainApp ... packaged as apk ... contains MyApp, Depends on DAO ... The Problem is that if i modify DAO Project , Then do a maven clean and maven install of all apk project, then run as Android Application within Eclipse, i don't see updated app on my Emulator. Nicely if i shut down my ubuntu workstation and restart it i can see The updated app on my Emulator. Do you know a solution for this issue ? thanks and regards

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  • jQuery when div is clicked update input field issue

    - by stogdilla
    Hello, I'm rather new to jquery so this may be the issue. I have a script that outputs several divs all with different text data in them. I would like it when I click one of them that an input field's value is updated to that text currently I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.results]").click(function() { data= this.text(); $("#updateme").val(data); }); }); </script> <p> <label>Field <input type="text" name="updateme" id="updateme"> </label> </p> <a href="#" class="results">Florida</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 2</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 3</a> How can I make it so that whatever link is clicked that is the data that gets updated into the input's value? I can get it to take one or I can script out different cases of each changing the class name but I think there has to be a way where it references whatever link is being clicked instead of what it's currently doing. Thanks in advance!

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  • Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

    - by gisc
    I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

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  • Need help with version number schemes

    - by Davy8
    I know the standard Major.Minor.Build.Revision but there's several considerations for us that are somewhat unique -We do internal releases almost daily, occasionally more than once a day. -Windows Installer doesn't check Revision so that's almost moot for our purposes. -Major and Minor numbers ideally are only updated for public releases and should be done manually. -That leaves the Build # that needs to be automatically updated. -We want internal releases to be able to be performed from any developer's machine so that leaves out using x.x.* in Visual Studio because different numbers could be generated from different machines and each build isn't guaranteed to be larger than the previous. -We have about 15 or so projects as part of the product so saving the version numbers in SVN isn't ideal since every release we'd have commit all those files. Given those criteria I can't really come up with a good versioning scheme. The last 2 criteria could be dropped but meeting all of those seems ideal. A date stamp is insufficient because we might do more than one a day, and given the max size of Uint32 (around 64000) (Actually using WiX it complains about numbers higher than Int32.MaxValue) a date/time won't fit.

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