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• Do I need to contact a lawyer to report a GPL violation in software distributed on Apple's App Store?

  - by Rinzwind

  Some company is selling software through Apple's App Store which uses portions of code that I released publicly under the GPL. The company is violating the licensing terms in two ways, by (1) not preserving my copyright statement, and not releasing their code under the GPL license and (2) by distributing my GPL-licensed code through Apple's App Store. (The Free Software Foundation has made clear that the terms of the GPL and those of the App Store are incompatible.) I want to report this to Apple, and ask that they take appropriate action. I have tried mailing them to ask for more information about the reporting process, and have received the automated reply quoted below. The last point in the list of things one needs to provide, the “a statement by you, made under penalty of perjury,” sounds as if they mean some kind of specific legal document. I'm not sure. Does this mean I need to contact a lawyer just to file the report? I'd like to avoid going through that hassle if at all possible. (Besides an answer to this specific question, I'd welcome comments and experience reports from anyone who has already had to deal with a GPL violation on Apple's App Store.) Thank you for contacting Apple's Copyright Agent. If you believe that your work has been copied in a way that constitutes infringement on Apple’s Web site, please provide the following information: an electronic or physical signature of the person authorized to act on behalf of the owner of the copyright interest; a description of the copyrighted work that you claim has been infringed; a description of where the material that you claim is infringing is located on the site; your address, telephone number, and email address; a statement by you that you have a good faith belief that the disputed use is not authorized by the copyright owner, its agent, or the law; a statement by you, made under penalty of perjury, that the above information in your Notice is accurate and that you are the copyright owner or authorized to act on the copyright owner’s behalf. For further information, please review Apple's Legal Information & Notices/Claims of Copyright Infringement at: http://www.apple.com/legal/trademark/claimsofcopyright.html To expedite the processing of your claim regarding any alleged intellectual property issues related to iTunes (music/music videos, podcasts, TV, Movies), please send a copy of your notice to [email protected] For claims concerning a software application, please send a copy of your notice to [email protected]. Due to the high volume of e-mails we receive, this may be the only reply you receive from [email protected]. Please be assured, however, that Apple's Copyright Agent and/or the iTunes Legal Team will promptly investigate and take appropriate action concerning your report.

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• how much does a "terms of service" cost?

  - by asdas

  just wondering idk if its $200 or $10000. just an average ecommerce TOS i guess..

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• Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

  - by Goosey

  I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

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• Why can't I pass self as a named argument to an instance method in Python?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  This works: >>> def bar(x, y): ... print x, y ... >>> bar(y=3, x=1) 1 3 And this works: >>> class foo(object): ... def bar(self, x, y): ... print x, y ... >>> z = foo() >>> z.bar(y=3, x=1) 1 3 And even this works: >>> foo.bar(z, y=3, x=1) 1 3 But why doesn't this work? >>> foo.bar(self=z, y=3, x=1) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> TypeError: unbound method bar() must be called with foo instance as first argument (got nothing instead) This makes metaprogramming more difficult, because it requires special case handling. I'm curious if it's somehow necessary by Python's semantics or just an artifact of implementation.

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• Function parameters evaluation order: is undefined behaviour if we pass reference?

  - by bolov

  This is undefined behaviour: void feedMeValue(int x, int a) { cout << x << " " << a << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeValue(ra = 3, a); return 0; } because depending on what parameter gets evaluated first we could call (3, 2) or (3, 3). However this: void feedMeReference(int x, int const &ref) { cout << x << " " << ref << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeReference(ra = 3, a); return 0; } will always output 3 3 since the second parameter is a reference and all parameters have been evaluated before the function call, so even if the second parameter is evaluated before of after ra = 3, the function received a reference to a wich will have a value of 2 or 3 at the time of the evaluation, but will always have the value 3 at the time of the function call. Is the second example UB? It is important to know because the compiler is free to do anything if he detects undefined behaviour, even if I know it would always yield the same results. *Note: I think that feedMeReference(a = 3, a) is the exact same situation as feedMeReference(ra = 3, a). However it seems not everybody agrees, in the addition to having 2 completely different answers.

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• Make interchangeable class types via pointer casting only, without having to allocate any new objects?

  - by HostileFork

  UPDATE: I do appreciate "don't want that, want this instead" suggestions. They are useful, especially when provided in context of the motivating scenario. Still...regardless of goodness/badness, I've become curious to find a hard-and-fast "yes that can be done legally in C++11" vs "no it is not possible to do something like that". I want to "alias" an object pointer as another type, for the sole purpose of adding some helper methods. The alias cannot add data members to the underlying class (in fact, the more I can prevent that from happening the better!) All aliases are equally applicable to any object of this type...it's just helpful if the type system can hint which alias is likely the most appropriate. There should be no information about any specific alias that is ever encoded in the underlying object. Hence, I feel like you should be able to "cheat" the type system and just let it be an annotation...checked at compile time, but ultimately irrelevant to the runtime casting. Something along these lines: Node<AccessorFoo>* fooPtr = Node<AccessorFoo>::createViaFactory(); Node<AccessorBar>* barPtr = reinterpret_cast< Node<AccessorBar>* >(fooPtr); Under the hood, the factory method is actually making a NodeBase class, and then using a similar reinterpret_cast to return it as a Node<AccessorFoo>*. The easy way to avoid this is to make these lightweight classes that wrap nodes and are passed around by value. Thus you don't need casting, just Accessor classes that take the node handle to wrap in their constructor: AccessorFoo foo (NodeBase::createViaFactory()); AccessorBar bar (foo.getNode()); But if I don't have to pay for all that, I don't want to. That would involve--for instance--making a special accessor type for each sort of wrapped pointer (AccessorFooShared, AccessorFooUnique, AccessorFooWeak, etc.) Having these typed pointers being aliased for one single pointer-based object identity is preferable, and provides a nice orthogonality. So back to that original question: Node<AccessorFoo>* fooPtr = Node<AccessorFoo>::createViaFactory(); Node<AccessorBar>* barPtr = reinterpret_cast< Node<AccessorBar>* >(fooPtr); Seems like there would be some way to do this that might be ugly but not "break the rules". According to ISO14882:2011(e) 5.2.10-7: An object pointer can be explicitly converted to an object pointer of a different type.70 When a prvalue v of type "pointer to T1" is converted to the type "pointer to cv T2", the result is static_cast(static_cast(v)) if both T1 and T2 are standard-layout types (3.9) and the alignment requirements of T2 are no stricter than those of T1, or if either type is void. Converting a prvalue of type "pointer to T1" to the type "pointer to T2" (where T1 and T2 are object types and where the alignment requirements of T2 are no stricter than those of T1) and back to its original type yields the original pointer value. The result of any other such pointer conversion is unspecified. Drilling into the definition of a "standard-layout class", we find: has no non-static data members of type non-standard-layout-class (or array of such types) or reference, and has no virtual functions (10.3) and no virtual base classes (10.1), and has the same access control (clause 11) for all non-static data members, and has no non-standard-layout base classes, and either has no non-static data member in the most-derived class and at most one base class with non-static data members, or has no base classes with non-static data members, and has no base classes of the same type as the first non-static data member. Sounds like working with something like this would tie my hands a bit with no virtual methods in the accessors or the node. Yet C++11 apparently has std::is_standard_layout to keep things checked. Can this be done safely? Appears to work in gcc-4.7, but I'd like to be sure I'm not invoking undefined behavior.

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• How does C++ free the memory when a constructor throws an exception and a custom new is used

  - by Joshua

  I see the following constructs: new X will free the memory if X constructor throws. operator new() can be overloaded. The canonical definition of an operator new overload is void *operator new(heap h) and the corrisponding operator delete. The most common operator new overload is pacement new, which is void *operator new(void *p) { return p; } You almost always cannot call delete on the pointer given to placement new. This leads to a single question. How is memory cleaned up when X constructor throws and an overloaded new is used?

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• Are volatile data members trivially copyable?

  - by Lightness Races in Orbit

  Whilst writing this answer I realised that I'm not as confident about my conclusions as I usually would ensure before hitting Post Your Answer. I can find a couple of reasonably convincing citations for the argument that the trivial-copyability of volatile data members is either implementation defined or flat-out false: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/comp.std.c++/5cWxmw71ktI http://gcc.gnu.org/bugzilla/show_bug.cgi?id=48118 http://www.open-std.org/jtc1/sc22/wg21/docs/papers/2010/n3159.html#496 But I haven't been able to back this up in the standard1 itself. Particularly "worrying" is that there's no sign of the proposed wording change from that n3159 issues list in the actual standard's final wording. So, what gives? Are volatile data members trivially copyable, or not? 1   C++11

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• Sequence Point and Evaluation Order( Preincrement)

  - by Josh

  There was a debate today among some of my colleagues and I wanted to clarify it. It is about the evaluation order and the sequence point in an expression. It is clearly stated in the standard that C/C++ does not have a left-to-right evaluation in an expression unlike languages like Java which is guaranteed to have a sequencial left-to-right order. So, in the below expression, the evaluation of the leftmost operand(B) in the binary operation is sequenced before the evaluation of the rightmost operand(C): A = B B_OP C The following expression according, to CPPReference under the subsection Sequenced-before rules(Undefined Behaviour) and Bjarne's TCPPL 3rd ed, is an UB x = x++ + 1; It could be interpreted as the compilers like BUT the expression below is said to be clearly a well defined behaviour in C++11 x = ++x + 1; So, if the above expression is well defined, what is the "fate" of this? array[x] = ++x; It seems the evaluation of a post-increment and post-decrement is not defined but the pre-increment and the pre-decrement is defined. NOTE: This is not used in a real-life code. Clang 3.4 and GCC 4.8 clearly warns about both the pre- and post-increment sequence point.

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• Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

  - by StackedCrooked

  Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

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• Why "constructor-way" of declaring variable in "for-loop" allowed but in "if-statement" not allowed?

  - by PiotrNycz

  Consider this simple example: /*1*/ int main() { /*2*/ for (int i(7); i;){break;} /*3*/ if (int i(7)) {} /*4*/ } Why line-2 compiles just fine, whilst line-3 gives the error? This is little strange to me why if-statement is in this aspect treated worse than for-loop? If this is compiler specific - I tested with gcc-4.5.1: prog.cpp: In function 'int main()': prog.cpp:3:7: error: expected primary-expression before 'int' prog.cpp:3:7: error: expected ')' before 'int' I was inspired by this question [UPDATE] I know this compiles just fine: /*1*/ int main() { /*2*/ for (int i = 7; i;){break;} /*3*/ if (int i = 7) {} /*4*/ }

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• Django QuerySet API: How do I join iexact and icontains?

  - by Zeynel

  Hello, I have this join: lawyers = Lawyer.objects.filter(last__iexact=last_name).filter(first__icontains=first_name) This is the site If you try Last Name: Abbas and First Name: Amr it tells you that amr abbas has 1 schoolmates. But if you try First name only it says that there are no lawyers in the database called amr (obviously there is). If I change (last__iexact=last_name) to (last__icontains=last_name) then leaving Last Name blank works fine and amr is found. But with last__icontains=last_name if you search for "collin" you also get "collins" and "collingwood" which is not what I want. Do you know how I can use iexact and also have it ignored if it is blank? Thanks This is the view function: def search_form(request): if request.method == 'POST': search_form = SearchForm(request.POST) if search_form.is_valid(): last_name = search_form.cleaned_data['last_name'] first_name = search_form.cleaned_data['first_name'] lawyers = Lawyer.objects.filter(last__iexact=last_name).filter(first__icontains=first_name) if len(lawyers)==0: form = SearchForm() return render_to_response('not_in_database.html', {'last': last_name, 'first': first_name, 'form': form}) if len(lawyers)>1: form = SearchForm(initial={'last_name': last_name}) return render_to_response('more_than_1_match.html', {'lawyers': lawyers, 'last': last_name, 'first': first_name, 'form': form}) q_school = Lawyer.objects.filter(last__icontains=last_name).filter(first__icontains=first_name).values_list('school', flat=True) q_year = Lawyer.objects.filter(last__icontains=last_name).filter(first__icontains=first_name).values_list('year_graduated', flat=True) lawyers1 = Lawyer.objects.filter(school__iexact=q_school[0]).filter(year_graduated__icontains=q_year[0]).exclude(last__icontains=last_name) form = SearchForm() return render_to_response('search_results.html', {'lawyers': lawyers1, 'last': last_name, 'first': first_name, 'form': form}) else: form = SearchForm() return render_to_response('search_form.html', {'form': form, })

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• Changing type of object in a conditional

  - by David Doria

  I'm having a bit of trouble with dynamic_casting. I need to determine at runtime the type of an object. Here is a demo: include include class PersonClass { public: std::string Name; virtual void test(){}; //it is annoying that this has to be here... }; class LawyerClass : public PersonClass { public: void GoToCourt(){}; }; class DoctorClass : public PersonClass { public: void GoToSurgery(){}; }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { PersonClass* person = new PersonClass; if(true) { person = dynamic_cast(person); } else { person = dynamic_cast(person); } person-GoToCourt(); return 0; } I would like to do the above. The only legal way I found to do it is to define all of the objects before hand: PersonClass* person = new PersonClass; LawyerClass* lawyer; DoctorClass* doctor; if(true) { lawyer = dynamic_cast(person); } else { doctor = dynamic_cast(person); } if(true) { lawyer-GoToCourt(); } The main problem with this (besides having to define a bunch of objects that won't be use) is that I have to change the name of the 'person' variable. Is there a better way? (I am not allowed to change any of the classes (Person, Lawyer, or Doctor) because they are part of a library that people who will use my code have and won't want to change). Thanks, Dave

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• Ms-PL Source Release for System.Web.Mvc 2

  Hot on the heels of the release of ASP.NET MVC 2 yesterday, Im happy to announce that we are releasing the source code to ASP.NET MVC 2 under the Ms-PL license, an OSI approved Open Source license. This continues the trend from nearly a year ago when we released ASP.NET MVC 1.0 under the Ms-PL. You can read my blog post there to learn more about the hard work that goes into such releases. While Im one who loves lawyer jokes, I do appreciate the work that they do (one of my best friends is a lawyer)...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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• iPhone Developers: What They Give Up to Get Into Apple's App Store

  A lawyer from the Electronic Frontier Foundation (EFF) points out "a few troubling highlights" with the iPhone Developer Program License Agreement.

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• “Apparently, you signed a software services agreement without fully understanding it.”

  - by Dave Ballantyne

  I am not a lawyer. Let me say that again, I am not a lawyer. Todays Dilbert has prompted me to post about my recent experience with SqlServer licensing. I'm in the technical realm and rarely have much to do with purchasing and licensing.  I say “I need” , budget realities will state weather I actually get.  However, I do keep my ear to the ground and due to my community involvement, I know, or at least have an understanding of, some licensing restrictions. Due to a misunderstanding, Microsoft Licensing stated that we needed licenses for our standby servers.  I knew that that was not the case,  and a quick tweet confirmed this. So after composing an email stating exactly what the machines in question were used for ie Log shipped to and used in a disaster recover scenario only,  and posting several Technet articles to back this up, we saved 2 enterprise edition licences, a not inconsiderable cost. However during this discussion, I was made aware of another ‘legalese’ document that could completely override the referenced articles, and anything I knew, or thought i knew, about SqlServer licensing. Personally, I had no knowledge of this.  The “Purchase Use Rights” agreement would appear to be the volume licensing equivalent of the “End User License Agreement” , click throughs we all know and ignore.  Here is a direct quote from Microsoft licensing, when asked for clarification. “Thanks for your email. Just to give some background on the Product Use Rights (PUR), licenses acquired through volume licensing are bound by the most recent PUR at the time of license acquisition. The link for the current PUR and PUR archive is http://www.microsoft.com/licensing/about-licensing/product-licensing.aspx. Further to this, products acquired through boxed product or pre-installed on hardware (OEM) are bound by the End User License Agreement (EULA). The PUR will explain limitations, license requirements and rulings on areas like multiplexing, virtualization, processor licensing, etc. When an article will appear on a Microsoft site or blog describing the licensing of a product, it will be using the PUR as a base. Due to the writing style or language used by the person writing areas of the website or technical blogs, the PUR is what you should use as a rule and not any of the other media. The PUR is updated quarterly and will reference every product available at that time working on the latest version unless otherwise stated. The crux of this is that the PUR is written after extensive discussions between the different branches of Microsoft (legal, technical, etc) and the wording is then approved. This is not always the case for some pages explaining licensing as they are merely intended to advise and not subject to the intense scrutiny as the PUR.” So, exactly what does that mean ? My take :  This is a living document, “updated quarterly” , though presumably this could be done on a whim and a fancy.  It could state , you are only licensed if ,that during install you stand in a corner juggling and that photographic evidence is required. A plainly ridiculous demand but,  what else could it override or new requirements could it state that change your existing understanding of the product or your legal usage of it. As i say, im not a lawyer, but are you checking the PURA prior to purchase ?

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• Where can I get software-related legal advice?

  - by musicfreak

  Whenever someone asks a legal question here on SO, the response is usually something along the lines of "we are not lawyers." Okay, that's legitimate, but in that case, how can I talk to a lawyer about software-related legal matters? I could look through the phone book and find a local lawyer, but then I have no way of knowing whether the lawyer knows anything about software. (And I hear most local lawyers charge for your time, even if it's just a simple question.) Is there maybe some kind of online service for this sort of thing? For now, I'm just looking for some basic advice, so something free would be awesome, even if the "quality" is not as good. However, I'll still take any kind of paid services--I'll keep them in mind for the future. You can give me anything from a forum or QA site (like this one) to a professional service. Just remember that I'm looking specifically for software-related legal advice. I'm sure most lawyers know a thing or two about software, but I'd rather talk to someone who legitimately knows his stuff than someone who can only guess.

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• Hobbyist programmer releasing software with a donate button

  - by espais

  I'd like to start this with a disclaimer that I realize that a full, clear-cut answer should be sought out by a lawyer. I am more so curious about what other users of this community have done Say that I had a small program that I had developed for fun, that I wished to release to the public. I'll drop it out there with one of the various open-source licenses, and probably put it up on SourceForge or Git in case if anybody should ever want to fork/maintain/check out code. Also say that I wanted to accept donations for the project, with absolutely 0 expectation that people will send any money. However, if somebody donated in order to buy me a beer or a pizza for the work that they liked, I would accept gladly. The question, then, is what are the general requirements of accepting donations? Can it go into a personal account with no questions asked as a "gift," or do I need to setup an LLC to avoid any taxation issues? (US citizen here). Again, yes this should be lawyer discussed, but I also know that many projects that I see have the ability to donate, and assume that the community probably has a decent amount of experience in this regard.

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• Photos being copied all over the place

  - by plua

  We have a rather popular website with plenty of photos. Our whole business depends on our content - and the photos are important in this. We invest a lot of time, effort, and money into taking these pictures. On our website we have clear copyright notices, we have the website name and logo in the photos, and we have a Photo Licensing page which states the prices of licensing our photos. Despite all this, our photos are copied by personal and commercial websites alike. We really want to do something about this. We do not want them to take out the photos and leave it at that. We want them to pay for the usage, as we clearly state on our website. Now a few questions come to mind: Can we legally force them to pay right away? Or are we obligated to first write a "Cease and Desist" letter? Photos are used on websites throughout the world. Are there any worldwide rules for this? Has anybody experience with doing these things outside of their home country? Should we hire a lawyer in any country? Or could a local lawyer contact oversees companies directly?

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• SQL Count Query with Grouping by multiple Columns

  - by Christian

  I have a table with three filled columns named "Name", "City" and "Occupation". I want to create a new column in the same table that contains the number of people who have the same occupation. "Name" | "City" | "Occupation" ------------------------------ Amy | Berlin | Plumber Bob | Berlin | Plumber Carol | Berlin | Lawyer David | London | Plumber I want to have a table that contains: "Name" | "City" | "Occupation" | "Number" --------------------------------------- Amy | Berlin | Plumber | 2 Bob | Berlin | Plumber | 2 Carol | Berlin | Lawyer | 1 David | London | Plumber | 1 How does the SQL Query that creates the new columns have to look like? I want to actually create a new column in the database that I can access later.

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• SQL Count Query with Grouping by multiple Rows

  - by Christian

  I have a table with three filled rows named "Name", "City" and "Occupation". I want to create a new row in the same table that contains the number of people who have the same occupation. "Name" | "City" | "Occupation" ------------------------------ Amy | Berlin | Plumber Bob | Berlin | Plumber Carol | Berlin | Lawyer David | London | Plumber I want to have a table that contains: "Name" | "City" | "Occupation" | "Number" --------------------------------------- Amy | Berlin | Plumber | 2 Bob | Berlin | Plumber | 2 Carol | Berlin | Lawyer | 1 David | London | Plumber | 1 How does the SQL Query that creates the new row have to look like? I want to actually create a new row in the database that I can access later.

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• Another passing variable through function jQuery/JS problem...

  - by dallen

  Here's my code: function mouseOver(variable) { return function() { $(variable).fadeIn(100); }; } function mouseOut(variable) { return function() { $(variable).fadeOut(100); }; } function lawyer(var1, var2, var3, var4) { return function() { $(var1).bind('mouseenter', mouseOver(var2)).bind('mouseleave', mouseOut(var2)).click( function() { $(var1).unbind('mouseenter').unbind('mouseleave'); $(var1).removeClass('off').addClass('on'); $(var3).bind('mouseenter', mouseOver(var4)).bind('mouseleave', mouseOut(var4)); $(var3).removeClass('on').addClass('off'); $(var4).hide(); }); } } lawyer("#group", ".b", "#group2", ".l"); What would be the reason for this not working? It works in that it hides $(var4).hide();, but clicking on the object doesn't seem to do anything. It works if I take the code out of a function and just copy/paste it a few times and change the targets. I'm not seeing it... Any help would be appreciated!

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• What license (eg. BSD, GPL, etc) can I use for an open source app that can be used commerically, for free?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I've got an application on Codeplex. It's based on some other free open source code which comes with a BSD license. As such, people keep asking if they can use my open source code/library in their commercial apps. I want them to be able to, provided they give credit to the source app (the project which i based my code, from .. and that has the BSD license) and also my code. They can take my code and do whatever (fork it, etc).. Just make sure they give credit, of course. So - what license could I use? Currently, I've set it to be GPL .. so is that ok? NOTE: Yes yes, I know that any answers are not from a lawyer and it's just all personal thoughts and I need to consult a special lawyer if I want some professional advice, etc. etc. I'm happy to take that risk, here.

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• Transcript: Andrew Tridgell on Patent Defence

  <b>ESP Software Patents News:</b> "The following is a transcript of a talk given in New Zealand, 2010. Andrew Tridgell discusses why reading patents is usually a good idea, how to read a patent, and how to work through it with a lawyer to build a solid defence."

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• Consultant - Google Cloud Endpoints

  - by Marc M.

  How does when go along finding a consultant to hire for a few hours for particular technologies? Lets say Google Cloud Endpoints, basically a professional at the library that can answer anything I need to know about it? How much might this cost. Can you hire them for only a couple hours at a time? Or even for a 20 minute phone call like a lawyer? P.S. I could use someone on call for Objectify questions too.

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