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• Ping / Trace Route

  - by dbasnett

  More and more I see programmers developing web based applications that are based on what I call "ping-then-do" mentality. An example would be the application that pings the mail server before sending the mail. In a rather heated debate in another forum I made this statement, "If you are going to write programs that use the internet, you should at least have a basic idea of the fundamentals. The desire to "ping-then-do" tells me that many who are, don’t." On this forum and at Stack Overflow I see numerous questions about ping / trace route and wonder why? If it is acceptable to have a discussion about it here I would like to hear what others think. If not I assume it will be closed rapidly.

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• How to route HyperV VMs traffic through host VPN

  - by Random

  I'm using Windows 8.1 Pro with HyperV. I have several VMs for development, all of them connected with host via Internal adapter using network addresses: 192.168.10.0/24 Where: 192.168.10.1 is my host's Hyper-V internal NIC address. When I'm not in my office I use 3G usb dongle an dialup VPN connection. I would like to route traffic from all existing and future VMs through the VPN. In best scenario traffic would be routed only partially to the local company network addresses 10.1.1.0/24 I don't want to use sharing because I'm switching between WiFi, USB 3G dongle and VPN. Moving to other virtualization is also not an option for me.

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• Shrew VPN Client gives default route- changing the policy stops me from accessing VPN network

  - by Lock

  I am using the shrew client to connect to what I believe is a Netscreen VPN. Now, when connected, the client adds the VPN as the default route. I do not want this- there is only 1 network behind the VPN that I need to access. I found that with the shrew client, you can change the "Policy" settings on the connection, and can add your own networks in that should tunnel over the VPN. I do this, and add my network in, but when I connect the VPN, I get nothing. Can't access the network. Any idea why this would be? I can see my network in the routing table, and its correctly pointing to the correct gateway. A traceroute shows all time-outs, so I can't be 100% sure that it is trying to tunnel over the VPN. Any idea how I can troubleshoot this?

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• How do I delete a route in OS X 10.5

  - by authormichael-olsen-craig

  I somehow configured my Mac to route all requests for a particular IP Name (sample.com) to the loopback address (127.0.0.1). Now I'm trying to remove this, but can't determine where to do it. There is no entry for it under /etc/hosts. The routing table shows that it is mapping the IP Name to the IP address of the Mac. Routing table output below: Internet: Destination Gateway Flags Refs Use Netif Expire default 192.168.2.1 UGSc 4 1 en0 127 sample.com UCS 0 0 lo0 sample.com sample.com UH 1 7093 lo0 169.254 link#4 UCS 0 0 en0 192.168.2 link#4 UCS 6 0 en0 192.168.2.1 0:11:22:22:3f:fa UHLW 20 55565 en0 1070 192.168.2.15 tsema.org UHS 0 9 lo0 192.168.2.255 link#4 UHLWb 4 84777 en0 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Create 301 Redirection in Amazon Route 53 for Wildcard Subdomains

  - by Eric Yin

  My domain name hosted on Route 53 DNS. Amazon has a guide to do 301 redirection for www. To naked domain by point www. version to a S3 static website with 301 setted up. My question is, how can I have *.domain.com all have 301 redirec to naked domain name. I guess either: Some way to get all wildcard subdomains end up into one S3 bucket, how? Or: Use CloudFront on the www. version S3 site and put wildcard subdomains on the CloudFront, but how? Or: There's some hidden settings just lies on Router 53, then where? Or: use EC2, better not suggest me this, too costing for this task. Please advice.

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• How to configure bind9 to route to host's IP

  - by Greg

  I'm running apache and bind9 on the same server. I would like to set a master zone to route back to this very machine's IP address without explicitly specifying it. Is this possible? If I use 127.0.0.1 for the A record, then when another computer on the network does an nslookup for mydomain.local, bind of course just returns the loopback ip (127.0.0.1) -- not the IP of the server. Is there to way to tell it to just return the network IP address for the server itself, as defined in /etc/network/interfaces?

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• Static Route Qestion

  - by mrlayance

  I have a Wan simulator between 2 networks. I can ping both networks from the wan simulator, but I can not ping from one network to the other. testr01 Fa0/0 10.0.0.1/24 FA0/1 192.168.0.1/30 | | Wan Sim 2 nics Eth0 192.168.0.2/30 | Eth1 192.168.1.2/30 | | testr02 Fa0/1 192.168.1.1/30 Fa0/0 10.1.0.2/24 I can not figure out what type of routes I need. On the route? On the Server? I guess all 10. traffic to the Fa0/0 ports? Thanks

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• VPN trace route

  - by Jake

  I am inside an Active Directory (AD) domain and trying to trace route to another AD domain at a remote site, but supposedly connected by VPN in between. the local domain can be accessed at 192.168.3.x and the remote location 192.168.2.x. When I do a tracert, I am suprised to see that the results did not show the intermediate ISP nodes. If I used the public IP of the remote location, then a normal tracert going through every intermediate node would show. 1 <1 ms <1 ms <1 ms 192.168.3.1 2 1 ms <1 ms <1 ms 192.168.3.254 3 7 ms 7 ms 7 ms 212.31.2xx.xx 4 197 ms 201 ms 196 ms 62.6.1.2xx 5 201 ms 201 ms 210 ms vacc27.norwich.vpn-acc.bt.net [62.6.192.87] 6 209 ms 209 ms 209 ms 81.146.xxx.xx 7 209 ms 209 ms 209 ms COMPANYDOMAIN [192.168.2.6] Can someone explain how does this VPN tunnelling works? Does this mean VPN is technically faster than without?

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• NginX : Route user request to backend

  - by xperator

  The goal is to have NginX webserver act as a very basic & simple load balancer/fail-over. But instead of fetching static files from backend and serving it to user, I just want to route/redirect user request to one of the back end servers. upstream backend { server server1.example.com:80; server server2.example.com:80; server server3.example.com:80; } location / { proxy_pass http://backend; } Instead of : User request (example.com/test.file) NginX LB Backend NginX LB User I want to have : User request (example.com/test.file) NginX LB Backend User Is this even possible with NginX ? If not then How can I achieve this goal. UPDATE 1: Is there a way to use rewrite directive with backend upstream ? UPDATE 2: It's not really necessary to use NginX. I just want to have a direct reply from backend to user.

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• configure vpn so that it is not the preferred route

  - by pstanton

  Hi all, I recently re-installed XP on my PC. I had a vpn set up on the old system and remember being advised to change one setting so that it wasn't the preferred route for all network traffic. This was ideal as only connections to the target network would be made through the vpn and all normal traffic would go through the regular path unmolested. i remember thinking "why isn't this the default setting!?". now i've formatted my drive and lost the config for that vpn (besides host, username, passwd). does anyone know of the setting i'm referring to? thanks, paul.

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• Route multiple subdomains on one external ip to multiple internal ips

  - by Abenil

  i have several subdomains(git.example.org, build.example.org, etc.), i have a router with an external ip and i have several virtual machines on a host computer with internal ips. Now i want to route git.example.org to internal ip 10.0.2.1 and build.example.org to internal ip 10.0.2.2. How can I do this? I setup in the Router that all traffic on port 80 is comming to my host computer with internal ip 10.0.2.3 and installed Squid on that computer. I added the following lines to the squid.conf file: cache_peer 10.0.2.1 parent 80 0 no-query originserver name=server_1 cache_peer_domain server_1 git.example.org cache_peer 10.0.2.2 parent 80 0 no-query originserver name=server_2 cache_peer_domain server_2 build.example.org But this is not working for me. :( Any help appreciated. Regards Nils Update: Here is the solution for Apache http://serverfault.com/a/273693

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• ADD ROUTE command in windows 2008R2

  - by Mehrdad Kamelzadeh

  I don't know much about Networking, So excuse me if I am raising some basic issues. I have a LAN where there is a Windows Server 2008R2 with some clients connected to it. The clients are not joined to the domain of the Server (they are in a WORKGROUP). I have set up a VPS on the server machine (PPTP) with a Static address pool of range 10.0.0.1 - 10.0.0.10 but the LAN range itself is 192.168.1.1 - 192.168.1.254. When I connect to the server from another location over the internet, I can just see the server and I can not see the other clients which are in the same LAN as the server. what to do to see the other clients? a friend of mine said that you should use the ADD ROUTE command. Beacuse of that I used this command as my title. What would be the best way to address this problem? Thanks

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• route to vpn based on destination

  - by inquam

  I have a VPN connection on a Windows 7 machine. It's set up to connect to a server in US. Is it possible, and if so how, to setup so that .com destinations uses the vpn interface and .se destinations uses the "normal" connection? Edit (clarification): This is for outbound connections. I.e. the machine conencts to a server on foo.com and uses the VPN and the machine connects to bar.se and uses the "normal" interface. Let's say foo.com has an IP filter that ensures users are located in USA, if I go through the VPN I get a US ip and everything is fine. But tif all traffic goes this way the bar.se server that has a IP filter ensuring users are in Sweden will complain. So I want to route the traffic depending on server location. US servers through VPN and others through the normal interface.

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• How to route local traffic over switch?

  - by Franz Kafka

  I'm just cabled up at home but haven't got any way of verifying that gigabit speed can be reached. As I've only got one laptop with one network card, one cable, and one switch, I'm kind of stuck. I'm using a tool that you can start as a server or as a client to send data from one box to another. I would like to send and receive on the same Windows box. I guess if I use my network local IP address, my Windows 8.1 PC will just route traffic internally. Is there some way of forcing the traffic to go to the switch and back again?

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• Route SOAP request through external server

  - by sanbornm

  I need to integrate with a SOAP Web Service that requires that the requests come from a whitelisted IP address. As I often do development from all over the place it is quite annoying to ask for a new whitelisted IP each time. I have a remote server that is whitelisted. How can I route my SOAP request (I can change the endpoint in the WSDL) to my remote machine and have that forwarded to the Web Service? My remote server is used for other things so it needs to only forward a specific port, not all traffic. Oh, and the Web Service expects SSL.

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• HtmlHelper Getting the route name

  - by Simon G

  Hi, I've created a html helper that adds a css class property to a li item if the user is on the current page. The helper looks like this: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class if ( currentControllerName.Equals( controllerName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) && currentActionName.Equals( actionName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) ) builder.AddCssClass( "active" ); // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.ActionLink( linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } I want to expand this class so I can pass a route name to the helper and if the user is on that route then it adds the css class to the li item. However I'm having difficulty finding the route the user is on. Is this possible? The code I have so far is: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string routeName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class // Some code for here // if ( routeName == currentRoute ) AddCssClass; // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.RouteLink( linkText, routeName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } BTW I'm using MVC 1.0. Thanks

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• MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

  - by Tim Geerts

  Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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• ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

  - by mwgriffiths

  I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

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• Ember nested route. Load more models

  - by user3568719

  JsBin http://jsbin.com/EveQOke/153/ I know how to load more then one model to a route, using Ember.RSVP.hash. (see Jsbin Children menu). I use dynamic part to access one elem from a collection children/1. But i cant load more models to a nested resource. In my example i want to populate all the toys for a select, not just list the toys of the child. I have tried to access the model of the route children App.ChildRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(param){ return Ember.RSVP.hash({ allToys: this.modelFor("children"), child:this.store.find('child', param.child_id) }); } }); and use its model's toy property (since there have already loaded all of the toys) child.hbs <h4>All avaiable toys</h4> <table> {{#each toy in model.allToys.toys}} <tr> <td>{{toy.name}}</td> </tr> {{/each}} </table>

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• Graph search problem with route restrictions

  - by Darcara

  I want to calculate the most profitable route and I think this is a type of traveling salesman problem. I have a set of nodes that I can visit and a function to calculate cost for traveling between nodes and points for reaching the nodes. The goal is to reach a fixed known score while minimizing the cost. This cost and rewards are not fixed and depend on the nodes visited before. The starting node is fixed. There are some restrictions on how nodes can be visited. Some simplified examples include: Node B can only be visited after A After node C has been visited, D or E can be visited. Visiting at least one is required, visiting both is permissible. Z can only be visited after at least 5 other nodes have been visited Once 50 nodes have been visited, the nodes A-M will no longer reward points Certain nodes can (and probably must) be visited multiple times Currently I can think of only two ways to solve this: a) Genetic Algorithms, with the fitness function calculating the cost/benefit of the generated route b) Dijkstra search through the graph, since the starting node is fixed, although the large number of nodes will probably make that not feasible memory wise. Are there any other ways to determine the best route through the graph? It doesn't need to be perfect, an approximated path is perfectly fine, as long as it's error acceptable. Would TSP-solvers be an option here?

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• Expressjs route param as variable in main app

  - by MoDFoX

  For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

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• Apache reverse-proxy intermittent error 113 - No route to host

  - by BonkaBonka

  I've got an Apache 2.0.52 server on CentOS 4 that front-ends a couple of App servers (mix of Jetty and Tomcat). Apache has a handful of virtual hosts configured like this: <VirtualHost www1.example.com:443> ServerName www1.example.com DocumentRoot "/mnt/app_web/html" SSLEngine on SSLCipherSuite ALL:!ADH:!EXPORT56:RC4+RSA:+HIGH:+MEDIUM:+LOW:+SSLv2:+EXP SSLCertificateFile /etc/httpd/conf/ssl.crt/server.crt SSLCertificateChainFile /etc/httpd/conf/ssl.crt/chain.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/httpd/conf/ssl.key/server.key SetEnvIf User-Agent ".*MSIE.*" nokeepalive ssl-unclean-shutdown downgrade-1.0 force-response-1.0 RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^/app1/(.*)$ http://app1.example.com:8080/app1/$1 [P,L] RewriteRule ^/app2/(.*)$ http://app2.example.com:8080/app2/$1 [P,L] </VirtualHost> However, I'm getting the following errors in the logs intermittently: [Fri Dec 04 07:19:41 2009] [error] (113)No route to host: proxy: HTTP: attempt to connect to 10.0.0.1:8080 (app1.example.com) failed I initially tried turning off IPv6, and that seemed to largely cure it, but I still have sporadic bursts of these messages. Additionally, we're running memcache on same front-end and during the times when I'm getting those messages in Apache's log, the following command doesn't work: echo stats | nc 127.0.0.1 11211 No messages are printed, but neither are the stats printed. I am completely lost as to how to proceed with troubleshooting this. =(

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• Add Route for machine in same DC

  - by gary

  My routing table on my machine with IP of 46.84.121.243 currently looks like this - Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 46.84.121.225 46.84.121.243 21 46.84.121.224 255.255.255.224 On-link 46.84.121.243 276 46.84.121.239 255.255.255.255 On-link 46.84.121.243 21 46.84.121.243 255.255.255.255 On-link 46.84.121.243 276 46.84.121.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 46.84.121.243 276 I'm trying to access 46.84.121.239, which is my other machine in the same DC but my guess is the first rule is blocking it as it is trying to go via the gateway and failing - Tracing route to [46.84.121.239] over a maximum of 30 hops: 1 OWNEROR-9O83HBL [46.84.121.243] reports: Destination host unreachable. Trace complete. I'm doing all this via RDP and already tried changing the metric on the persistent rule with devastating consequences! Here's the persistent rule (working) - Persistent Routes: Network Address Netmask Gateway Address Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 46.84.121.225 1 Any help to be able to access the 46.84.121.243 would be very helpful thanks very much.

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• Route traffic from one VPN to a second VPN

  - by Dominic

  I have set up an OpenVPN server on my windows 7 64-bit PC. I also have a subscription to a VPN service. My aim is to be able to connect my android phone to the VPN server on my PC, and then route all traffic through the VPN service. I have a NetGear WPN824 router. I can get it working if I my phone is on my local network. Then I can connect my phone to the VPN server using the local IP address of my PC. In Network Connection in the control panel, I share the connection used by the VPN service with the connection used by the VPN server. Then when I browse the internet on my phone, all traffic goes through the VPN service. Very nice. But if my phone is outside my local network, so I have to connect my phone to the local VPN using my PC's external IP address, then this method doesn't work. If I connect my PC to the VPN service and then try to connect my phone to my own VPN, it just doesn't connect (the initial TLS handshake times out). If I connect my phone to the local VPN first, then this connection is lost as soon as I connect my PC to the VPN service. Does anybody know how I can get this working? Many thanks Dominic

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• Configuring network route between two routers on home network

  - by Paul

  I have a home network - the main router connected to the internet (and has wifi) is a Netopia box. Connected to it is a Linksys router. Everything currently works - I can connect via the wireless network and get to the internet. Machines connected to the Linksys can connect with each other and connect to the internet. Both routers are configured to serve addresses via DHCP (Netopia 192.168.1.1 - 192.168.1.99), Linksys (192.168.0.1 - 192.168.0.100). Here's how they are connected: Internet <-> Netopia w/wifi (192.168.1.254) <-> Linksys (192.168.0.1) I decided I really need to allow wireless connections to also communicate with machines behind the Linksys router. Currently the Linksys is configured to obtain an IP address via DHCP. I thought this would be straightforward. I configured the Linksys to have a static IP address: IP: 192.168.1.100 Mask: 255.255.255.0 GW: 192.168.1.254 Then I configured a static route on the Netopia: Network: 192.168.0.0 Mask: 255.255.255.0 GW: 192.168.1.100 So it should now look like this: Internet <-> Netopia w/wifi (192.168.1.254) <-> (192.168.1.100) Linksys (192.168.0.1) I reset both routers. I cannot ping the Netopia (192.168.1.254) from inside the Linksys network, and if I attempt to ping 192.168.0.1 from a wifi connection I get a "Destination host not available" error. Obviously I'm missing something, but I'm not sure where. Any ideas on what I'm missing?

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