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Eclipse PDE - Plug-in, Feature, and Product Versioning

- by Michael

I am having much confusion over the process of upgrading version numbers in dependent plug-ins, features, and products in a fairly large eclipse workspace. I have made API changes to java code residing in an existing plug-in and thus requires an increase of the Major part of the version identifier. This plug-in serves as a dependency to a given feature, where the feature is later included in a product. From the documentation at http://wiki.eclipse.org/Version_Numbering, I understand (for the most part) when the proper number should be increased on the containing plug-in itself. However, how would this Major version number change on the plug-in affect dependent, "down-the-line" items (e.g., features, products)? For example, assume we have the typical "Hello World" setup as follows: Plug-in: com.example.helloworld, version 1.0.0 Feature: com.example.helloworld.feature, version 1.0.0 Product: com.example.helloworld.product, version 1.0.0 If I were to make an API change in the plug-in, this would require a version update to be that of 2.0.0. What would then be the version of the feature, 1.1.0? The same question can be applied for the product level as well (e.g., if the feature is 1.1.0 OR 2.0.0, what is the product version number)? I'm sure this is quite the newbie question so I apologize for wasting anyone's time and effort. I have searched for this type of content but all I am finding is are examples showing how to develop a plug-in, feature, product, and update site for the first time. The only other content related to my search has been developing feature patches and have not touched on the versioning aspect as much as I would prefer. I am having difficulty coming into (for the first time) an Eclipse RCP / PDE environment and need to learn the proper way and / or best practices for making such versioning updates and how to best reflect this throughout other dependent projects in the workspace.

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Vanilla WPF application hangs on one customer's machine

- by Heinzi

At a customer, one of our WPF applications started to hang. When trying to reproduce the problem with a minimal working example, I discovered that even the most basic (non-trivial) WPF application will hang on that machine. Example A: Create a new C# WPF project in Visual Studio 2008. Change nothing, compile it and run it on the customer's machine. It will run. Example B: Take Example A, and add a TextBlock to the main form Window1: <Window ...> <Grid> <TextBlock>Test</TextBlock> </Grid> </Window> Compile the application and run it on the customer's machine. It will hang: The title bar and the window border is visible, the inside is transparent and the window does not react to anything (cannot be moved or closed). The application must be shut down using the task manager. Obviously, this customer's WPF is broken. Is this a known issue, i.e., has anyone encountered it before and already knows how to solve it (e.g. reinstall .net 3.5 SP1, etc.)? The development machine is W7SP1, the customer's machine is XP (probably SP3, didn't check).

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Handling element collisions on importing/including XML schemas

- by eggyal

Given schema definitions that define the same element differently, can one import/include both definitions and reference them independently from within a third schema definition? For example, given: <schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="urn:example:namespace"> <element name="message" type="boolean"/> </schema> and: <schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="urn:example:namespace"> <element name="message" type="date"/> </schema> Can one construct the following: <schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="urn:example:namespace"> <complexType name="booleanMessageType"> <xs:sequence>  </xs:sequence> </complexType> <complexType name="dateMessageType"> <xs:sequence>  </xs:sequence> </complexType> </schema>

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Deployed a Zend App on EC2 and its not working

- by Gublooo

Hey Guys, I'm confused about the problem and not sure if I can provide enough details. I have a php app built on Zend framework which I've successfully deployed on other hosting companies. I am now trying to move to Amazon EC2 I moved all my code and set my domain to point to the IP address. So far so good. Now when I access my home page say www.example.com - everything looks good - The home page opens up which means the IndexController is being called and the index method is properly executed which pulls data from the database and displays it in the index.phtml page. So this lets me to believe that everything is working fine. But every link I click on the home page whether its a simple contact us link - or any other action that I directly try to call even through the URL results in 404 Not Found The requested URL /user/add was not found on this server. Apache/2.2.9 (Fedora) Server at www.example.com Port 80 The interesting thing is the home page opens up fine when I call www.example.com but when I give the entire path which is www.example.com/index/index - I get the same above error. I have checked the logs and there are no errors. Has anyone encountered something similar or have any idea if I'm missing a simple step or something like rewrite rule maybe. Its running on LAMP Any ideas Thanks

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Curve fitting: Find the smoothest function that satisfies a list of constraints.

- by dreeves

Consider the set of non-decreasing surjective (onto) functions from (-inf,inf) to [0,1]. (Typical CDFs satisfy this property.) In other words, for any real number x, 0 <= f(x) <= 1. The logistic function is perhaps the most well-known example. We are now given some constraints in the form of a list of x-values and for each x-value, a pair of y-values that the function must lie between. We can represent that as a list of {x,ymin,ymax} triples such as constraints = {{0, 0, 0}, {1, 0.00311936, 0.00416369}, {2, 0.0847077, 0.109064}, {3, 0.272142, 0.354692}, {4, 0.53198, 0.646113}, {5, 0.623413, 0.743102}, {6, 0.744714, 0.905966}} Graphically that looks like this: We now seek a curve that respects those constraints. For example: Let's first try a simple interpolation through the midpoints of the constraints: mids = ({#1, Mean[{#2,#3}]}&) @@@ constraints f = Interpolation[mids, InterpolationOrder->0] Plotted, f looks like this: That function is not surjective. Also, we'd like it to be smoother. We can increase the interpolation order but now it violates the constraint that its range is [0,1]: The goal, then, is to find the smoothest function that satisfies the constraints: Non-decreasing. Tends to 0 as x approaches negative infinity and tends to 1 as x approaches infinity. Passes through a given list of y-error-bars. The first example I plotted above seems to be a good candidate but I did that with Mathematica's FindFit function assuming a lognormal CDF. That works well in this specific example but in general there need not be a lognormal CDF that satisfies the constraints.

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How to propagate .java file change to .class under eclipse, tomcat & stripes

- by BigBourin

Hi, i'm new to java and i got some problems. i'm developping a web application using the framework stripes on tomcat 6.0. I'm working with eclipse EE on windows. i successfully managed to get the stripes example application (called Bugzooky) up and running on my tomcat server. I imported the .war file and stripes libs in Eclipse. Here is the stripes archive containing the examples and libs But now i'm trying to change the example source files to learn how does it work. but whatever the modification made to the source files "WebContent/WEB-INF/src/*.java", nothing change! even after restarting the server. i noticed that the classes are compiled into .class files in the "ImportedClasses" folder, and tomcat always use these files, they are never updated, and if i removed one of them, the application just don't start. it look like my source files don't exists! I also tried to build my webapp from scratch, but when i tried to use the features used in the example files (like SecurityFilter.java): import javax.servlet.Filter; import javax.servlet.FilterChain; import javax.servlet.FilterConfig; import ... It ends up with plenty of: the import javax.servlet.Filter cannot be resolved I checked the Librairies and it look like i'm using exactly the same as the example. It's probably something i didn't understood about java but i googled 100 times yesterday, and i can't find the solution (i probably didn't search the right place because i don't really understand my problem). I hope you'll be able to help me.

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CSS Parser - Insert mtimes

- by brad

What command line tool can I use to automatically insert mtimes into urls in my css files for the purposes of breaking the cache? /* before */ .example { background: url(example.jpg); } /* after */ .example { background: url(example.jpg?1271298451); } Also, I would like this tool to spit out the latest mtime as the css files mtime. (If the css file is still cached then the new urls will not get to the client.) In searching the web, I have found very few tools that can do this. I am even considering rolling my own, but have found very little in the way of css parsers that are actively maintained. A candidate should be: fast (I don't want to wait 30 seconds on deployment) command line accessible (something like "cat foo.css bar.css | cssmtime out.css") What I've found so Far yui compressor - initially I thought I would extend the yui compressor to do this, but found that it is implemented as a bunch of regex's and not a parser. csstidy - last release was in 2007 and development has been suspended, but does have an option for inserting mtimes (also written in php, something I have no experience in) cssutils - python sac implementation - seems to be actively maintained, but also seems like overkill for my needs. Also, written in python which I have experience with csspool - ruby sac implementation - I don't know much ruby, but would like to learn other sac implementations - There are several java implementations, and a c implementation neither of which I know much about What's your experience? Have you used any of these libraries? Was the experience positive? Would you recommend I go with them for my purposes?

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With Apache/mod_wsgi how can I redirect to ssl and require Auth?

- by justin

I have a Media Temple DV server hosting dev.example.com with django mounted at /. There is a legacy directory in my httpdocs I need to continue to serve at /legacy. But for this directory I need to redirect anyone coming over http over to https, then prompt for http basic auth. In the virtual host conf, I'm pointing the root to a django application: WSGIScriptAlias / /var/django-projects/myproject/apache/django.wsgi <Directory /var/django-projects/myproject/apache> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> Then I alias the legacy directory. Alias /legacy/ /var/www/vhosts/example.com/subdomains/dev/httpdocs/legacy/ <Directory /var/www/vhosts/example.com/subdomains/dev/httpdocs> Order deny,allow Allow from all RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{SERVER_PORT} 80 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ https://dev.example.com/$1 [R,L] </Directory> This works. It isn't served by django, and the url redirects to https. However, it serves httpdocs/legacy instead of httpsdocs/legacy (where I have an .htaccess that prompts for auth.) Any idea of how I can manage this?

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Understanding evaluation of expressions containing '++' and '->' operators in C.

- by Leif Ericson

Consider this example: struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ++ps->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 1 */ It prints 1. So I understand that it is because according to operators precedence, -> is higher than ++, so the value ps->num (which is 0) is firstly fetched and then the ++ operator operates on it, so it increments it to 1. struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ps++->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 0 */ In this example I get 0 and I don't understand why; the explanation of the first example should be the same for this example. But it seems that this expression is evaluated as follows: At first, the operator ++ operates, and it operates on ps, so it increments it to the next struct. Only then -> operates and it does nothing because it just fetches the num field of the next struct and does nothing with it. But it contradicts the precedence of operators, which says that -> have higher precedence than ++. Can someone explain this behavior? Edit: After reading two answers which refer to a C++ precedence tables which indicate that a prefix ++/-- operators have lower precedence than ->, I did some googling and came up with this link that states that this rule applies also to C itself. It fits exactly and fully explains this behavior, but I must add that the table in this link contradicts a table in my own copy of K&R ANSI C. So if you have suggestions as to which source is correct I would like to know. Thanks.

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Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

- by Bob

I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue?

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Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

- by Bob

I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

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Python script, runs well, but not perfectly, debugging help.

- by S1syphus

What it does (sort of)... or is meant to, the script reads from a csv file that contains information on sound files and create a play list exactly 60 minutes long. An example csv, contains: their title, duration (in seconds), minium total time to be played (in minutes) An example is: Soundfoo,120,10 Soundbar,30,6 Sounddev,60,20 Soundrandom,15,8 The script works out the minimum instances of plays, take 'Soundfoo' for example, the length of each sample is 120 seconds and the minimum time to be played is 10 minutes, so basic maths 10*60/120 gives the number of instances the song is to be played, in this case 5. It is meant to take minimum number of instances and spread out equally from each other; so there will never be a period where for example Soundbar is played twice in a row. Then if the minium instances of each song has been used, and there is still time with in the 60 min, how is it possible to tell it to go back and fill the time by selecting each sound and including it till the 60 min is filled while remaining sparsely populated. Heres the issue(s)! The script fails to calculate the actual time require to play all the sounds in a file and the total time of the playlist, the thing is tho it doesn't get it wrong all the time maybe 3/5 times, even if I run it on the same csv file it will give me different answers. Here is the file I shall run the script on e for sake of ease to see the issue: Sound1,60,10 Sound2,60,10 Sound3,60,10 Sound4,60,10 Sound5,60,10 Sound6,60,10 I'll do it three times and post the results: 1 Required playtime in minutes: 60 Actual time in minutes to play all required ads: 62 Total playtime in minutes: 62.0 2 Required playtime in minutes: 60 Actual time in minutes to play all required ads: 71 Total playtime in minutes: 71.0 3 Required playtime in minutes: 60 Actual time in minutes to play all required ads: 60 Total playtime in minutes: 60.0 Relevant Code: pastebin.com/demkBXk6 And finally... in context: http://pastebin.com/demkBXk6 If you made it down to here, thanks for staying and reading, kudos.

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javascript regex: replace url text link with image,but not in html tags

Hi this is my pice of code: <div style="overflow: hidden; width: 445px;">[IMG]http://i29.tinypic.com/mydog.png[/IMG] tak si to http://i29.tinypic.com/mycat.png Lorem ipsum loremai <img width="15" border="0" align="middle" src="images/smejo.gif" valign="middle"/> <img src=http://www.example.com/index.png alt> <img src="http://www.example.com/index.png" alt> <a href="#reakcia" title="reagovat na temu"><span class="poradna-tl-reaguj"><reaction> </span></a></div> </td> </tr><img src=http://www.example.com/index.png alt><img src="http://www.example.com/index.png" alt> and i need regex pattern to replace ONLY text image links with image without touch of inner url tags. But i can't use "Lookbehind" or possessive quantifiers because JS don't support them=/ So i want to catch only "http://i29.tinypic.com/mydog.png" and "http://i29.tinypic.com/mycat.png". I using array method to replacing (will be greasemonkey script.) Many Thanks

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Silverlight databinding error

- by Petezah

I found an example online that explains how to perform databinding to a ListBox control using LINQ in WPF. The example works fine but when I replicate the same code in Silverlight it doesn't work. Is there a fundamental difference between Silverlight and WPF that I'm not aware of? Here is an Example of the XAML: <ListBox x:Name="listBox1"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}" FontSize="18"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Role}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> Here is an example of my code behind: private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string[] names = new string[] { "Captain Avatar", "Derek Wildstar", "Queen Starsha" }; string[] roles = new string[] { "Hero", "Captain", "Queen of Iscandar" }; listBox1.ItemSource = from n in names from r in roles select new { Name = n, Role = r} }

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Graph-structured databases and Php

- by stagas

I want to use a graph database using php. Can you point out some resources on where to get started? Is there any example code / tutorial out there? Or are there any other methods of storing data that relate to each other in totally random/abstract situations? - Very abstract example of the relations needed: John relates to Mary, both relate to School, John is Tall, Mary is Short, John has Blue Eyes, Mary has Green Eyes, query I want is which people are related to 'Short people that have Green Eyes and go to School' - answer John - Another example: TrackA -> ArtistA -> ArtistB -> AlbumA -----> [ label ] -> AlbumB -----> [ A ] -> TrackA:Remix -> Genre:House -> [ Album ] -----> [ label ] TrackB -> [ C ] [ B ] Example queries: Which Genre is TrackB closer to? answer: House - because it's related to Album C, which is related to TrackA and is related to Genre:House Get all Genre:House related albums of Label A : result: AlbumA, AlbumB - because they both have TrackA which is related to Genre:House - It is possible in MySQL but it would require a fixed set of attributes/columns for each item and a complex non-flexible query, instead I need every attribute to be an item by itself and instead of 'belonging' to something, to be 'related' to something.

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How to use include within a function?

- by mahks

I have a large function that I wish to load only when it is needed. So I assume using include is the way to go. But I need several support functions as well -only used in go_do_it(). If they are in the included file I get a redeclare error. See example A If I place the support functions in an include_once it works fine, see Example B. If I use include_once for the func_1 code, the second call fails. -func_1 needs include -func_2 needs include_once Why does does include_once fail for func_1, does it get reloaded each time the function is called? Example A: <?php /* main.php */ go_do_it(); go_do_it(); function go_do_it(){ include 'func_1.php'; } ?> <?php /* func_1.php */ echo '<br>Doing it'; nested_func() function nested_func(){ echo ' in nest'; } ?> Example B: <?php /* main.php */ go_do_it(); go_do_it(); function go_do_it(){ include_once 'func_2.php'; include 'func_1.php'; } ?> <?php /* func_1.php */ echo '<br> - doing it'; nested_func(); ?> <?php /* func_2.php */ function nested_func(){ echo ' in nest'; } ?>

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Suppress indentation after environment in LaTeX

- by David

I'm trying to create a new environment in my LaTeX document where indentation in the next paragraph following the environment is suppressed. I have been told (TeXbook and LaTeX source) that by setting \everypar to {\setbox0\lastbox}, the TeX typesetter will execute this at the beginning of the next paragraph and thus remove the indentation: \everypar{\setbox0\lastbox} So this is what I do, but to no effect (following paragraph is still indented): \newenvironment{example} {\begin{list} {} {\setlength\leftmargin{2em}}} {\end{list}\everypar{\setbox0\lastbox}} I have studied LaTeX's internals as well as I could manage. It seems that the \end routine says \endgroup and \par at some point, which may be the reason LaTeX ignores my \everypar setting. \global doesn't help either. I know about \noindent but want to do this automatically. Example document fragment: This is paragraph text. This is paragraph text, too. \begin{example} \item This is the first item in the list. \item This is the second item in the list. \end{example} This is more paragraph text. I don't want this indented, please. Internal routines and switches of interest seem to be \@endpetrue, \@endparenv and others. Thanks for your help.

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Jquery Date Picker: Append Start Date to End Date and display dates in the future only.

- by Tim

Hello, I am using Jquery Date pickers to get Start and End Dates for an application I am building. I have two datepickers, one for a start date and one for an end date. When someone clicks a date in the start date picker I need that date to be appended automatically to the end date picker. I also need the end date picker to select future dates only from the date that has been appended to it. There are two demos on the jquery datepicker site that do what I want, but I am unsure how to combine them to both do what I want. Example One: This example shows how you can tie two date pickers together so that the date selected in one influences the dates that can be selected in the other $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker() $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); Example Two: An example showing inline date pickers which are linked together and trigger behaviour in each other... $(function() { $('#date-view1') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date1').val(selectedDate.asString()); $('#date-view2, #date-view3').dpSetSelected(selectedDate.addDays(3).asString()); } ); $('#date-view2') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date2').val(selectedDate.asString()); } ); $('#date-view3').datePicker(); $('#form-check') .bind( 'click', function() { alert('date1=' + $('#date1').val() + '\n' + 'date2=' + $('#date2').val()); } ); }); I have tried many combinations of the codes listed above, but I have not been able to get the desired results. Thanks for all your help, Tim

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Nginx rewrite for link shortener and Wordpress

- by detusueno

I'm a complete newbie to Nginx, so much so that I followed a online guide to do most of my server setup. I'm trying to learn but I'm still a ways away from understanding it all. So what I'm trying to create is a link shortener that redirects (example.com/x) to (example.com/short.php?id=x). Keep in mind that I'm also running a Wordpress blog on the same domain and plan on using the redirects/shortening for external links. The guide has so far had me add the following rewrites to enable Wordpress pretty URLs: # WordPress pretty URLs: (as per dominiek.com) if (-f $request_filename) { break; } if (-d $request_filename) { break; } rewrite ^(.+)$ /index.php?q=$1 last; # Enable nice permalinks for WordPress: (as per Yawn.it) error_page 404 = //index.php?q=$uri; And if it matters any, it was saved at (/usr/local/nginx/conf/wordpress_params.regular). Additionally, my Wordpress link structure adds "news" to all internal links (example.com/news/post-blah, example.com/news/category, ect.). What's the best way to tackle this setup?

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PayPal return URL

- by Sam

Here's the code for my Paypal button: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="[email protected]"> <input type="hidden" name="lc" value="GB"> <input type="hidden" name="button_subtype" value="products"> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="no_shipping" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="rm" value="0"> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://www.example.com"> <input type="hidden" name="item_name" value="My Item"> <input type="hidden" name="amount" value="25.00"> <input type="hidden" name="currency_code" value="GBP"> <input type="hidden" name="bn" value="PP-BuyNowBF:proceed_btn.gif:NonHosted"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number" value="4BD9569402CDE"> <input type="image" src="http://www.example.com/image.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online."> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.paypal.com/en_GB/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </form> Is it possible to add the item_number to the return URL? For example, after completing the payment within PayPal the user gets sent back to http://www.example.com?item_number=4BD9569402CDE

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jQuery: list appended not displaying bullets

- by Shizhidi

I have the following html: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> </head> <body> <span>not so important</span> <span title="some specific text"><img src="/img/some.gif" /></span> <span title="more specific text">important 1</span> <span title="more specific text">important 2</span> <span title="more specific text">important 3</span> <span title="more specific text"><img src="/img/some.gif" /></span> <ul> <li>example 1</li> <li>example 2</li> <li>example 3</li> <ul> <script> var ul = $('body').append($('<ul>')); $("span[title*='specific text']") .contents() .filter(function(){ return $(this).nodeType != 1; }) .each(function(){ ul.append($('<li>' + $(this).text() + '</li>')); }) </script> </body> </html> I want to retrieve the text within a 'span' whose title attribute contains "specific text", in this case "important 1", "important 2" and "important 3". Then I want to list them below just like the example. However the bullets do not appear, why is that? Any hints would be appreciated!

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Oracle syntax - should we have to choose between the old and the new?

- by Martin Milan

Hi, I work on a code base in the region of about 1'000'000 lines of source, in a team of around eight developers. Our code is basically an application using an Oracle database, but the code has evolved over time (we have plenty of source code from the mid nineties in there!). A dispute has arisen amongst the team over the syntax that we are using for querying the Oracle database. At the moment, the overwhelming majority of our queries use the "old" Oracle Syntax for joins, meaning we have code that looks like this... Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers, orders where customers.custid = orders.custid Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers, contacts where customers.custid = contacts.custid(+) As new developers have joined the team, we have noticed that some of them seem to prefer using SQL-92 queries, like this: Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers inner join orders on (customers.custid = orders.custid) Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers left join contacts on (customers.custid = contacts.custid) Group A say that everyone should be using the the "old" syntax - we have lots of code in this format, and we ought to value consistency. We don't have time to go all the way through the code now rewriting database queries, and it wouldn't pay us if we had. They also point out that "this is the way we've always done it, and we're comfortable with it..." Group B however say that they agree that we don't have the time to go back and change existing queries, we really ought to be adopting the "new" syntax on code that we write from here on in. They say that developers only really look at a single query at a time, and that so long as developers know both syntax there is nothing to be gained from rigidly sticking to the old syntax, which might be deprecated at some point in the future. Without declaring with which group my loyalties lie, I am interested in hearing the opinions of impartial observers - so let the games commence! Martin. Ps. I've made this a community wiki so as not to be seen as just blatantly chasing after question points...

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Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

- by Pandafox

Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

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Best practice PHP Form Action

- by Rob

Hi there i've built a new script (from scratch not a CMS) and i've done alot of work on reducing memory usage and the time it takes for the page to be displayed (caching HTML etc) There's one thing that i'm not sure about though. Take a simple example of an article with a comments section. If the comment form posts to another page that then redirects back to the article page I won't have the problem of people clicking refresh and resending the information. However if I do it that way, I have to load up my script twice use twice as much memory and it takes twice as long whilst i'm still only displaying the page once. Here's an example from my load log. The first load of the article is from the cache, the second rebuilds the page after the comment is posted. Example 1 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.018667 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1325723 bytes of memory in 0.075825 - domain.com/article/1/my_article/newcomment.html 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.029449 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Example 2 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.023526 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1659096 bytes of memory in 0.060032 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Obviously the time fluctuates so you can't really compare that. But as you can see with the first method I use more memory and it takes longer to load. BUT the first method avoides the refresh problem. Does anyone have any suggestions for the best approach or for alternative ways to avoid the extra load (admittadely minimal but i'd still like to avoid it) whilst also avoiding the refresh problem?

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In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

- by Bytecode Ninja

In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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