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• How To Set Up A Loadbalanced High-Availability Apache Cluster On Windows

  - by bReAd

  Setting up a two-node Apache web server cluster that provides high-availability. In front of the Apache cluster we create a load balancer that splits up incoming requests between the two Apache nodes. Because we do not want the load balancer to become another “Single Point Of Failure”, we must provide high-availability for the load balancer, too. Therefore our load balancer will in fact consist out of two load balancer nodes that monitor each other using heartbeat, and if one load balancer fails, the other takes over silently. The following setup is proposed: Apache node 1: webserver1.example.com (webserver1) – IP address: 192.168.0.101; Apache document root: /var/www Apache node 2: webserver2.example.com (webserver2) – IP address: 192.168.0.102; Apache document root: /var/www Load Balancer node 1: loadb1.example.com (loadb1) – IP address: 192.168.0.103 Load Balancer node 2: loadb2.example.com (loadb2) – IP address: 192.168.0.104 Virtual IP Address: 192.168.0.105 (used for incoming requests) Currently, there are many solutions for Linux machines and there aren't any on windows. I've tried searching a long time for solutions on Windows platform How do I create the virtual IP in windows and perform monitoring and make the load balancer listen to the virtual IP Address?

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• Mac Mini server (10.6) behind router with FQDN hostname

  - by thechriskelley

  I have a Mac Mini running Mac OS 10.6.6 Server that will be part of a local network, and a static IP from my ISP. I'd like to set up DNS for the Mini with a FQDN as the hostname (example.com) properly. The Mini is behind a router (Apple Airport Extreme) and is given a private, static IP address. I can't assign it the public static IP directly because it's behind a router with DHCP/NAT for other machines on the local net. My end goal here is for services to resolve to the server properly from outside and inside the local network to users via example.com (and subdomains like mail.example.com, www.example.com), which will point to the public static IP assigned to the router. Will DNS work/resolve properly (for mail services and other subdomains) if it has a private ip address, but the necessary services are forwarded properly through NAT? I'm open to any (hopefully better) suggestions, as my current setup doesn't seem like it's the best way. Currently, more hardware or another public static IP is not possible. With the current setup, it seems as though one static IP is not necessary anyway. Thanks in advance for any insight.

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• unable to ping hostname, but \\hostname\\c$ works!?

  - by ciscokid

  I'm having a strange issue on my initial lab setup. Situation: Host with OS Server 2008 R2 64bit, on this host a Virtual Machine in Hyper-V with OS Server 2008 SP1 32bit. The virtual machine has a fixed ip, and is referring to itself for the preferred DNS Server (dns server role has been installed). The host has tcp/ip set to automatic (so automatic ip from router, and dns/gateway = router). Both are able to ping each other on IP address (same ip range). Both are NOT able to ping each other on hostname (sounds logic because virtual machine dns server does not yet have a dns record for the hostmachine). But here's the strange thing: I am able to set up a working network mapping on the Virtual Machine to the host: \hostname\c$. The first thing I thougt was 'something' is blocking the ping request, so I completely disabled Windows Firewall on both Virtual Machine and host. Still pinging on hostname in both ways didn't work, yet I am able to access the network mapping on hostname. There is no extra software installed on both systems (clean windows server 2008).Can someone tell me what is causing this? I always thought: ping on IP address works = network mapping on IP address works. Pinging on hostname doesn't work = network mapping on hostname doesn't work neither. Where am I wrong? Looking forward to your advice!

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• Firefox is very slow when establish SSL sessions

  - by yanglei

  Using wireshark, I discovered that Firefox v3.0 gets stuck every time before "client key exchange, change cipher spec" stage when establishing a SSL session. Specifically, it takes 0.8~1.8 second before Firefox send "Client Key Exchange" request. This is unacceptable since our application is HTTPS only. I tested this on IE6 and IE8, both works well. Any clues? [Update] Finally, I found the reason of 1 ~ 2 seconds stuck by displaying all captured packets in Wireshark. After the "server hello" stage, Firefox makes a request to ocsp.verisign.com combined with an additional DNS lookup for that domain. Firefox must wait the revocation status from OCSP before entering the next stage of SSL. Depends on whether DNS cache is in effect, this process takes 1 ~ 2 seconds. A interesting observation is that the IP packet contains "client key exchange" has a high possibility to get lost and thus a TCP retransmission is necessary. When this happens, the process can take 3 seconds at worst. I'm not sure if this is a coincidence or a bug. Anyway, here is the result from Wireshark: (delta-time) 0.369296 src-ip dst-ip TCP [ACK] Seq=161 Ack=2741 Win=65340 Len=0 2.538835 src-ip dst-ip TLSv1 Client Key Exchange, Change Cipher Spec, Finished 2.987034 src-ip dst-ip TLSv1 [TCP Retransmission] Client Key Exchange, Change Cipher Spec, Finished The difference between Firefox and IE is this: Firefox 3 enables OCSP checking by default where as IE only supports it. So, there is no problem with both IE6 and IE8. This is indeed a "certificate revoke" problem. Thanks

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• apache2: ssl_error_rx_record_too_long when visiting port 80?

  - by John

  Hi, I have an Ubuntu 10 x64 server edition machine. I got a second IP and configured /etc/network/interfaces like so (actual IPs and gateways removed): auto lo iface lo inet loopback #iface eth0 inet dhcp auto eth0 auto eth0:0 iface eth0 inet static address [ my first IP ] netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway [ my first gateway ] iface eth0:0 inet static address [ my second IP ] netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway [ my second gateway ] /etc/apache2/ports.conf: Listen 80 NameVirtualHost [ my first IP ]:80 NameVirtualHost [ my second IP ]:80 <IfModule mod_ssl.c> # If you add NameVirtualHost *:443 here, you will also have to change # the VirtualHost statement in /etc/apache2/sites-available/default-ssl # to <VirtualHost *:443> # Server Name Indication for SSL named virtual hosts is currently not # supported by MSIE on Windows XP. Listen 443 NameVirtualHost [ my first IP - some site is running SSL successfully using it ]:443 </IfModule> <IfModule mod_gnutls.c> Listen 443 </IfModule> /etc/apache2/sites-enabled/mysite.conf: <VirtualHost [my second IP ]:80> ServerName mysite.com Include /var/www/mysite.com/djangoproject/apache/django.conf </VirtualHost> Then when visiting http[mysite].com:80 or http[mysite].com (:// removed because serverfault doesn't allow me to post hyperlinks), I get: An error occurred during a connection to [mysite].com. SSL received a record that exceeded the maximum permissible length. (Error code: ssl_error_rx_record_too_long) My guess is that the configuration file is not being picked up, and apache is therefore looking for the default-ssl file, which is not in conf-enabled. If I were to configure that file properly, it seems I would successfully connect to whatever default directory is specified in the default-ssl file. But I want to connect to my website. Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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• OpenSwan (IPSEC) on Fedora 13 with Snow Leopard as a client

  - by sicn

  I recently installed OpenSwan on my Fedora 13 machine. I want to use it to connect with Mac OS X with L2TP over IPSEC, unfortunately I am already stuck on the IPSEC-negotation part. My server is running behind a NATted firewall so my external IP differs from the server's IP. The server has a fixed IP on the network and the same is almost always valid for the clients (they are usually behind a NATted firewall). I installed OpenSwan on Fedora 13 and have following configuration: config setup protostack=netkey nat_traversal=yes virtual_private=%v4:10.0.0.0/8,%v4:192.168.0.0/16,%v4:172.16.0.0/12 oe=off nhelpers=0 conn L2TP-PSK-NAT rightsubnet=vhost:%priv also=L2TP-PSK-noNAT conn L2TP-PSK-noNAT authby=secret pfs=no auto=add keyingtries=3 rekey=no ikelifetime=8h keylife=1h type=transport left=my.servers.external.ip leftprotoport=17/1701 right=%any rightprotoport=17/0 IPSEC starts fine and listens to UDP 500 and 4500. These two ports are opened in the firewall and are forwarded fine to the server. In my /etc/ipsec.secrets file I have my.servers.external.ip %any: "LongAndDifficultPassword" And finally in my sysctl.conf (the redirect-entries are there because OpenSwan was strongly protesting about send/accept_redirects being active) I have net.ipv4.ip_forward = 1 net.ipv4.conf.all.send_redirects = 0 net.ipv4.conf.all.accept_redirects = 0 Running "ipsec verify" gives me "all greens" (except Opportunistic Encryption Support, which is DISABLED), however, when trying to connect my Mac gives me following in the logs: Nov 1 19:30:28 macbook pppd[4904]: pppd 2.4.2 (Apple version 412.3) started by user, uid 1011 Nov 1 19:30:28 macbook pppd[4904]: L2TP connecting to server 'my.servers.ip.address' (my.servers.ip.address)... Nov 1 19:30:28 macbook pppd[4904]: IPSec connection started Nov 1 19:30:28 macbook racoon[4905]: Connecting. Nov 1 19:30:28 macbook racoon[4905]: IKE Packet: transmit success. (Initiator, Main-Mode message 1). Nov 1 19:30:31 macbook racoon[4905]: IKE Packet: transmit success. (Phase1 Retransmit). Nov 1 19:30:38: --- last message repeated 2 times --- Nov 1 19:30:38 macbook pppd[4904]: IPSec connection failed Any ideas at all?

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• Getting Windows (VMware) to load from OSX's localhost without an Internet Connection

  - by Jonah Goldstein

  I'm using MAMP to host my local sites, and VirtualHostX so that I can access sites during local development via a convenient URL like mysite.dev I'm also running Windows XP via VirtualBox, and it would be great to be able to load up any of my local sites within windows while offline as currently often working without access, on the move, unfortunately. I know that I can append my IP and a nice domain name to the host file in C:/WINDOWS/system32/drivers/etc ... and i can find my IP simply through terminal with "ifconfig" while I'm online. The problem is that when I'm not online, there's no IP. Even if there is an IP (when i have a connection), I still have grab it and update the windows hosts' file all the time, since I'm developing from a laptop and have a new IP at the drop of a dime. I found a tutorial where the author is able to get a permanent IP. He uses VMware Fusion as his VMachine, which is the only difference between his setup and mine. By running the terminal command "ifconfig vmnet1" he gets: a secret IP the virtual machine uses to talk to OSX And that doesn't change - which is awesome. I'm assuming it exists even if he's offline. His tutorial is here, http://bit.ly/U2lq It would be pretty fantabulous if I could replicate this with virtualBox. Anyone have ideas? Thanks:)

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• subdomain .htaccess redirection via ssh remote port forwarding

  - by Achim

  I ask you to help me URL redirecting a subdomain to a SSH remote forwarded port: The current setup is the following: The server A have a local webserver running on port 80. This server is connected to a DSL line or a GPRS connection where the IP address changes often. To prevent a DynDNS setup we established a SSH remote port forwarding to a server B with a static IP adress. This is done on server A by the following statement: ssh -N -p 80 -g -R 10000:localhost:80 tunneling@<Server B IP> So by accessing the new port 10000 of the servers B IP-adress, all traffic is forwarded to the server A port 80 - this works fine! But to offer a more comfortable url to the user I want to hide the server B IP-adress and offer a subdomain. My domain provider allows to add subdomains and redirections to some other servers. In general, this works, I've tested this with different servers. But it don't work if the destination is the port forwarded port of server B. The initial redirection is done, the request is send to server A and the response are forwarded to server B and shown in the browser - fine. But then the URL within the browser is switched away from the subdomain to the IP:port of server B. So the user don't see the subdomain in the URL string of the browser anymore. I've tried this with my providers subdomain redirection, as well as .htaccess redirect, as well as META refresh, the problem always persist. Is there a parameter in the ssh reverse forwarding setup (I guess this is the place where the fix have to be) to keep the typed in subdomain URL and not show the IP. Thanks Achim

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• Setup Exchange 2010 cannot verify Host (A) record warning

  - by Joost Verdaasdonk

  When I try to install Exchange 2010 on my server 2008 R2 server I get a warning during the prerequisites check: Warning: setup cannot verify that the 'Host' (A) record for this computer exists within the DNS database on server: 90.195.200.12. The goal of this Exchange setup is that I'm able to sent email in my local domain as well receive/sent email through the public domain name. Some information about my setup This Server is going to be a dedicated exchange host and has the following IP setup: (IP's are examples and not the real IP's ofc) Local VLAN NIC: IP: 10.10.50.22 Subnet: 255.255.255.0 No gateway DNS: 10.10.50.1 (is domain controler with authoritive DNS) public WAN NIC: IP: 90.195.200.148 Subnet: 255.255.255.235 Gateway: 90.195.200.145 DNS: 90.195.200.12 | 190.160.230.14 My public domain - exampledomain.com A record: mail - IP: 90.195.200.148 MX record IP: 90.195.200.148 As I'm seeing now the exchange setup is looking for the A record in one of the DNS servers in my Public WAN NIC. And ofc this is not where my A records are defined. I have those A records in 2 places: 1. In the domain controler DNS (the private nic) 2. In the online dns registration of my public domain (exampledomain.com) My question is... is this warning going to be a problem? Can I do something better in my setup so that this warning will go away? Please advice?

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• Sonicwall NSA 240, Configured for LAN and DMZ, X0 and X2 on same switch - ping issues

  - by Klaptrap

  Our Sonicwall vendor supplied and networked the NSA240 when we required a DMZ in our infrastructure. This was configured and appeared correct although VPN users periodically dropped DNS and Terminal Services. The vendor could not resolve and so the call was escalated to Sonicwall. The Sonicwall support engineer took a look and concluded that the X0 (LAN) and X2 (DMZ) intefaces were cabled to the same switch and so this is the issue. What he observed is a ping request to the LAN Domain Controller, from a connected VPN user, is forwarded (x0) from the VPN client IP to the DC IP but the ping response from the DC IP to the VPN client IP is on X2, a copy of the log is detailed below:- 02/02/2011 10:47:49.272 X1*(hc) X0 192.168.1.245 192.168.1.8 IP ICMP -- FORWARDED 02/02/2011 10:47:49.272 -- X0* 192.168.1.245 192.168.1.8 IP ICMP -- FORWARDED 02/02/2011 10:47:49.272 X2*(i) -- 192.168.1.8 192.168.1.245 IP ICMP -- Received X0 - LAN X1 - WAN X2 - DMZ The Sonicwall engineer concluded that we either need a seperate switch for X2 or we use a VLAN switch for both. I am the companies software engineer and we have yet to have heard back from the vendor, so I am lost at sea at the moment. Do we need to buy this additional equipment or is there another configuration on the NSA240 we can use?

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• IPv6 - Public IPs, private IPs, IPs derived from the MAC address? Confused!

  - by sinni800

  I'm pretty much excited for IPv6 because of the large address room and (potential?) owning of more than one IP, or even tens of IPs (/122 subnet?) Though one magazine has now confused me. In a current issue (no. 3) of "CT", a German computer magazine, I read that when using IPv6 your IP address consists of your MAC address and various other things, and that this address will be public on the web, no matter what access point / LAN you connect to. My knowledge of IP(v6) is in contrary of this. I thought you will normally always have a a local network IP and NAT takes care of your Internet access, and your provider gives the NAT router an IP. I've heard of the 6to4 interface, but does this one give you your own ip in the IPv6 net? Personally I hope it still is through a personal IP space (like 192.168, 127.16-31, 10. in IPv4) in private networks with a NAT going to the Internet. And also I hope that providers will offer subnets to private customers so they don't have to use NAT anymore. Yay for converting your LAN into the WAN and using better security (so Computers from the same subnet still get access rights like normal).

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• Cisco 3560+ipservices -- IGMP snooping issue with TTL=1

  - by Jander

  I've got a C3560 with Enhanced (IPSERVICES) image, routing multicast between its VLANs with no external multicast router. It's serving a test environment where developers may generate multicast traffic on arbitrary addresses. Everything is working fine except when someone sends out multicast traffic with TTL=1, in which case the multicast packet suppression fails and the traffic is broadcast to all members of the VLAN. It looks to me like because the TTL is 1, the multicast routing subsystem doesn't see the packets, so it doesn't create a mroute table entry. If I send out packets with TTL=2 briefly, then switch to TTL=1 packets, they are filtered correctly until the mroute entry expires. My question: is there some trick to getting the switch to filter the TTL=1 packets, or am I out of luck? Below are the relevant parts of the config, with a representative VLAN interface. I can provide more info as needed. #show run ... ip routing ip multicast-routing distributed no ip igmp snooping report-suppression ! interface Vlan44 ip address 172.23.44.1 255.255.255.0 no ip proxy-arp ip pim passive ... #show ip igmp snooping vlan 44 Global IGMP Snooping configuration: ------------------------------------------- IGMP snooping : Enabled IGMPv3 snooping (minimal) : Enabled Report suppression : Disabled TCN solicit query : Disabled TCN flood query count : 2 Robustness variable : 2 Last member query count : 2 Last member query interval : 1000 Vlan 44: -------- IGMP snooping : Enabled IGMPv2 immediate leave : Disabled Multicast router learning mode : pim-dvmrp CGMP interoperability mode : IGMP_ONLY Robustness variable : 2 Last member query count : 2 Last member query interval : 1000

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• How can I switch from a custom linux network namespace back to the default one?

  - by Martin

  With ip netns exec you can execute a command in a custom network namespace - but is there also a way to execute a command in the default namespace? For example, after executing these two commands: sudo ip netns add test_ns sudo ip netns exec test_ns bash How can the newly created bash execute programs in the default network namespace? There is no ip netns exec default or anything similar as far as I've found. My scenario is: I want to run a SSH server in a separate network namespace (to keep the rest of the system unaware of the network connection, as the system is used for network testing), but want to be able to execute programs in the default network namespace via the SSH connection. What I've found out so far: Created network namespaces are listed as files under /var/run/netns (but there is no file for the default namespace) The ip netns exec code can be found here: http://git.kernel.org/cgit/linux/kernel/git/shemminger/iproute2.git/tree/ip/ipnetns.c#n132 - I haven't grasped everything that it is doing yet, but it doesn't look very promising. ip netns identify $$ as suggested by Howto query and change network namespace on linux? returns nothing when in the default network namespace

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• Doing port forwarding and then using it from within the internal network

  - by Ram Rachum

  We all know that by doing port forwarding on the router, computers from outside the network are able, on the specified ports, to access internal computers by targeting the external IP. I'm now replacing a TP-Link router with a D-link VDSL N 6740U router, (and copied over all the settings,) and I've noticed that one thing stopped working: With the TP-link router, you could access those port-forwarded computers from within the network, using the external IP, and they would be forwarded to the relevant computers. With the new D-Link router, it doesn't work. You might be wondering, why would you want to use the external IP and port forwarding when you're inside the internal network anyway and can just access the internal IP? One example for why this is useful: You have an iPhone app that connects to a service on an internal computer. The iPhone app knows to connect to the external IP. When we put that iPhone inside the internal network (via WiFi), it suddenly stops working, because it can't access the service from the external IP anymore. Is it an inherent property of D-Link routers that they do not allow accessing internal servers from inside the network by targeting the external IP? Or is there a way to make it work?

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• Cisco RV042 VPN with Dynamic IPs - Remote Gateway Not Resolving

  - by Rister

  I have an existing network setup that I inherited from my predecessor. Currently there are two sites, each with a Linksys RV042 VPN router running the 1.3.12.19-tm firmware. They are currently set up with a Gateway to Gateway VPN. One site has a static IP, the other has a Dynamic IP with a hostname set up on no-ip.com. My company is looking to set up another site so I purchased another RV042 only this one was Cisco branded and it is running the latest firmware. I had assumed that I would be able to configure a vpn from our main office (the dynamic ip) to the new site with this router quite easily. However when I set up a new VPN tunnel on either device, it stays on Waiting for Connection and the Remote Gateway shows an ip address of 0.0.0.0 rather than the remote ip address. The other VPN tunnel is still working and I don't see any obvious misconfiguration on the new router. It seems that the router is not resolving the Dynamic DNS address and therefore not giving me the option to connect the VPN. Does a Gateway to Gateway VPN work with Dynamic IP addresses on each end? Are the firmware versions not compatible? Is there something I've missed?

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• Debian Wheezy IPv6 isn't configured with ifup post-up hook

  - by aef

  We recently set up a server on Debian Wheezy Beta 3 (x86_64) which has a native IPv6 connection. We configured the eth0 interface to get the IPv6 configuration through some post-up hook commands in /etc/network/interfaces. The result is, that after the booting the system up, there is only IPv4 and an auto-configured link-local IPv6 address configured on the interface, as if the command has never been executed. When we additionally place the commands after the call to ifup -a inside the /etc/init.d/networking init script, everything works as expected and we have a fully configured interface after booting up. This is quite an ugly way to configure the interface. What are we doing wrong with the ifup post-up hooks? Or is this a bug? The section from /etc/network/interfaces looks like this (IP-addresses changed): allow-hotplug eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 1.2.3.1 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 1.2.3.0 broadcast 1.2.3.63 gateway 1.2.3.62 dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 dns-search mydomain.tld post-up ip -6 addr add 2001:db8:100:3022::2 dev eth0 post-up ip -6 route add fe80::1 dev eth0 post-up ip -6 route add default via fe80::1 dev eth0 I also tried it in this alternative way: auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 1.2.3.1 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 1.2.3.0 broadcast 1.2.3.63 gateway 1.2.3.62 dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 dns-search mydomain.tld iface eth0 inet6 static address 2001:db8:100:3022::2 netmask 64 gateway fe80::1 What we added to /etc/init.d/networking: … case "$1" in start) process_options check_ifstate if [ "$CONFIGURE_INTERFACES" = no ] then log_action_msg "Not configuring network interfaces, see /etc/default/networking" exit 0 fi set -f exclusions=$(process_exclusions) log_action_begin_msg "Configuring network interfaces" if ifup -a $exclusions $verbose && ifup_hotplug $exclusions $verbose # Our additions ip -6 addr add 2001:db8:100:3022::2 dev eth0 ip -6 route add fe80::1 dev eth0 ip -6 route add default via fe80::1 dev eth0 then log_action_end_msg $? else log_action_end_msg $? fi ;; …

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• Configuring Vmware virtual machines to run under different IPs and PC specs

  - by Alex

  Right now I'm using a simple VmWare virtual machine with preinstalled Win 7. The IP is assigned automatically (it's the same as main OS IP). Is it possible to create several virtual machines that have different hardware specifications and different IP addresses? Here is what I mean regarding these issues: Specs: Certainly, you can easily change some specifications in the Settings menu (RAM size, HDD size), but what about advanced settings? For example: advanced settings for the Processor: is it AMD (2500+,4000+, etc.. ) or Intel (core 2, Pentium, etc..) Ram - is it Corsair 4 Gb 1333 Mhz or Kingston 2 x 2 Gb 866Mhz or something else? Hdd - Is it Seagate Barracuda 80 gb 5400 Rpm or is it Samsung 500Gb 7200 Rpm or some random SSD? Programs that work under a Virtual Machine shouldn't have a clue if that's a VmWare or not. IPs: Every program that's launched under main OS use the real IP: 93.56.xx.xx All programs that are launched under virtual machine A use IP 1: 74.78.xx.xx All programs that are launched under virtual machine B use IP 2: 84.159.xx.xx I believe that you have to use either VPN or Proxy to solve this problem. The Sum Up: The idea is to create 2-3 independent virtual machines with different hardware specifications and IP addresses. Programs that work under a certain Virtual Machine shouldn't have a clue if that's a VmWare or the real PC. Any ideas/tips or experience regarding configuration will be appreciated!

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• OpenVPN bridge network from routed clients

  - by gphilip

  I have the following setup: subnet 1 - 10.0.1.0/24 with a machine used as NAT and also running an OpenVPN client subnet 2 - 192.168.1/24 with an OpenVPN server (the server in subnet 1 connect here) subnet 3 - 10.0.2.0/24 that uses the NAT machine (subnet 1) to access the internet, so all non-local traffic is routed there to the eth0 interface The OpenVPN client creates the tun0 interface and appropriate routing so that I can access machines from 192.168.1/24 [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# telnet 192.168.1.186 8081 Trying 192.168.1.186... Connected to 192.168.1.186. Escape character is '^]'. [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 10.0.1.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 10.8.0.1 10.8.0.5 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 tun0 10.8.0.5 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun0 169.254.169.254 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.0.0 10.8.0.5 255.255.0.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 However, when I try the same from subnet 3, it can't reach that machine. [root@ip-10-0-2-61 ~]# telnet 192.168.1.186 8081 Trying 192.168.1.186... I suspect that it's because subnet 3 is routed to eth0 on the NAT machine in subnet 1 and it cannot jump to tun0. What's the easiest way to resolve it? I don't want to use iptables. I can't change the routing from machines in subnet 1 because it's done in AWS and so it works only with specific interfaces. Also, the NAT machine gets its IP with DHCP and so bridging is a bit complicated. IP forwarding is set on the NAT machine [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward 1 Thank you!

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• One Windows Domain workstation can ping gateway but gets no internet access

  - by dindeman

  One of the (Windows XP SP3) workstations of our Windows Domain could not access internet anymore, this problem suddenly happened overnight. The domain controllers (there are three of them) are all running Windows Server 2008. First I compared the output of ipconfig /all on the faulty workstation with the output of a working workstation and it was just fine as it had always been. In particular the default gateway was correct and always remained pingable from the faulty workstation. I guessed that something was wrong with the DHCP service and I restarted the DHCP server service on all of our three DCs as well as the DHCP client service on the faulty workstation. This didn't solve the issue. I then thought of renewing the DHCP lease with ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew and here is my first question: why did this never work? The same IP address (192.168.0.45) kept being assigned despite all my attempts to renew it (note that all our workstation are getting their TCP/IP automatically.) Even by leaving the domain and changing the computer name the same address was yet again obtained... Anyway I then proceeded to switch the TCP/IP configuration for that machine manually to another free valid IP address (192.168.0.41)... and then the internet access came back! I then cleared any traces of the previous IP in the DHCP leases list and in the DNS tables of our DCs and, after setting back the TCP/IP configuration to 'automatic', finally, the new lease would be granted (192.168.0.41) alongside with the internet access. My second question: what went suddenly wrong with the original IP address?

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• Possible for linux bridge to intercept traffic?

  - by A G

  I have a linux machine setup as a bridge between a client and a server; brctl addbr0 brctl addif br0 eth1 brctl addif br0 eth2 ifconfig eth1 0.0.0.0 ifconfig eth2 0.0.0.0 ip link set br0 up I also have an application listening on port 8080 of this machine. Is it possible to have traffic destined for port 80 to be passed to my application? I have done some research and it looks like it could be done using ebtables and iptables. Here is the rest of my setup: //set the ebtables to pass this traffic up to ip for processing; DROP on the broute table should do this ebtables -t broute -A BROUTING -p ipv4 --ip-proto tcp --ip-dport 80 -j redirect --redirect-target DROP //set iptables to forward this traffic to my app listening on port 8080 iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 80 -j TPROXY --on-port 8080 --tproxy-mark 1/1 iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -p tcp -j MARK --set-mark 1/1 //once the flows are marked, have them delivered locally via loopback interface ip rule add fwmark 1/1 table 1 ip route add local 0.0.0.0/0 dev lo table 1 //enable ip packet forwarding echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward However nothing is coming into my application. Am I missing anything? My understanding is that the target DROP on the broute BROUTING chain will push it up to be processed by iptables. Secondly, are there any other alternatives I should investigate? Edit: IPtables gets it at nat PREROUTING, but it looks like it drops after that; the INPUT chain (in either mangle or filter) doesn't see the packet.

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• Open ports broken from internal network

  - by ksvi

  Quick summary: Forwarded port works from the outside world, but from the internal network using the external IP the connection is refused. This is a simplified situation to make the explanation easier: I have a computer that is running a service on port 12345. This computer has an internal IP 192.168.1.100 and is connected directly to a modem/router which has internal IP 192.168.1.1 and external (public, static) IP 1.2.3.4. (The router is TP-LINK TD-w8960N) I have set up port forwarding (virtual server) at port 12345 to go to port 12345 at 192.168.1.100. If I run telnet 192.168.1.100 12345 from the same computer everything works. But running telnet 1.2.3.4 12345 says connection refused. If I do this on another computer (on the same internal network, connected to the router) the same thing happens. This would seem like the port forwarding is not working. However... If I run a online port checking service on my external IP and the service port it says the port is open and I can see the remote server connecting and immediately closing connection. And using another computer that is connected to the internet using a mobile connection I can also use telnet 1.2.3.4 12345 and I get a working connection. So the port forwarding seems to be working, however using external IP from the internal network doesn't. I have no idea what can be causing this, since another setup very much like this (different router) works for me. I can access a service running on a server from inside the network both through the internal and external IP.

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• What other ways can I load balance EC2 servers without using Elastic Load Balancing?

  - by undefined

  I have a web application that consists of a web server managed by a web hosting firm, a set of EC2 instances in amazons cloud and a MySQL database (hosted on the webserver). MySQL is behind a firewall and is set to allow access from Localhost and from a single IP address which is an Amazon Elastic IP address that is attached to the EC2 instance I have been running up to now. The problem is that I want to look at my scaling up and load balancing strategy for my EC2 instance. To this end I have been investigating the Elastic Load Balancers and Autoscaling tools that Amazon provides and have managed to set this up fine but for one thing - connecting to the MySQL database running on my webserver. I realised (thanks to answers on Serverfault) that I needed to check firewall settings and add the IP address for the load balancer, however Elastic Load Balancers provide you with a DNS name, not an IP address and infact the IP addresses change over time so this will not work. I have been told by the company hosting the database that the way the firewall works is to look up the IP address of the DNS name and store the IP rather than the DNS name. so basically this will not work and the only way to allow access would be to open up the SQL port to allow access from anyone! Is this a viable idea? Should I look at moving my database into the cloud? Is there another firewall that the server company can use? Should I find another way of load balancing (if so what?) tricky one eh? any help appreciated!

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• why DKIM bad signature

  - by Ashish

  Hi, I have setup a postfix mail receiving server. On this I am using DKIM milter to verify incoming mail DKIM signatures. From some email clients I am getting the following 'bad signature data' error: Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) no signing domain match for `gmail.com' Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) no signing subdomain match for `gmail.com' Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) no signing keylist match for `[email protected]' Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) not internal Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) not authenticated Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) mode select: verifying Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: BA6E210015D: bad signature data Jun 7 02:10:10 ip-10-194-99-63 postfix/cleanup[30131]: BA6E210015D: milter-reject: END-OF-MESSAGE from mail-pv0-f176.google.com[74.125.83.176]: 5.7.0 bad DKIM signature data; from=<[email protected]> to=<[email protected]> proto=ESMTP helo=<mail-pv0-f176.google.com> can anybody give me any clue why I am getting the above error in my postfix logs and what remedies I can put in to rectify or workaround this or warn the sender. Thanks in advance Ashish Sharma

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• how to do validations when composing object of a class in other class ?

  - by haansi

  Hi, I have an IPAddress class which has one property named ip and in its setter I am validating data coming and if data is invalid it throws an error. (Its code is as the following): private string ip; public string IP { get { return ip; } set { string PartsOfIP = value.Split('.'); if (PartsOfIP.Length == 4) { foreach (string part in PartsOfIP) { int a = 0; bool result = int.TryParse(part, out a); if (result != true) { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } else { ip = value; } } } else { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } } In User Class I want to compose an object of IPAddress class. I am doing validations for properties of User in User class and validations of Ip in IPAddress class. My question is how I will compose IPAddress object in UserClass and what will be syntax for this ? If I again mention get and set here with IPAddress object in User class will my earlier mentioned (in IPAddress class) getter and setter work ? plz advice me in details thanks

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• MySQL Triggers - How to capture external web variables? (eg. web username, ip)

  - by Ken

  Hi, I'm looking to create an audit trail for my PHP web app's database (eg. capture inserts, updates, deletes). MySQL triggers seem to be just the thing -- but how do I capture the IP address and the web username (as opposed to the mysql username, localhost) of the user who invoked the trigger? Thanks so much. -Ken P.S. I'm working with this example code I found: DROP TRIGGER IF EXISTS history_trigger $$ CREATE TRIGGER history_trigger BEFORE UPDATE ON clients FOR EACH ROW BEGIN IF OLD.first_name != NEW.first_name THEN INSERT INTO history_clients ( client_id , col , value , user_id , edit_time ) VALUES ( NEW.client_id, 'first_name', NEW.first_name, NEW.editor_id, NEW.last_mod ); END IF; IF OLD.last_name != NEW.last_name THEN INSERT INTO history_clients ( client_id , col , value , user_id , edit_time ) VALUES ( NEW.client_id, 'last_name', NEW.last_name, NEW.editor_id, NEW.last_mod ); END IF; END; $$

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