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• How to test for existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell?

  - by Damian Powell

  Is it possible to test for the existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell? I've been using the PowerShell Community Extensions (PSCX) but I've noticed that if you import the module while Set-PSDebug -Strict is set, an error is produced: The variable '$SCRIPT:helpCache' cannot be retrieved because it has not been set. At C:\Users\...\Modules\Pscx\Modules\GetHelp\Pscx.GetHelp.psm1:5 char:24 While investigating how I might fix this, I found this piece of code in Pscx.GetHelp.psm1: #requires -version 2.0 param([string[]]$PreCacheList) if ((!$SCRIPT:helpCache) -or $RefreshCache) { $SCRIPT:helpCache = @{} } This is pretty straight forward code; if the cache doesn't exist or needs to be refreshed, create a new, empty cache. The problem is that calling $SCRIPT:helpCache while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force casues the error because the variable hasn't been defined yet. Ideally, we could use a Test-Variable cmdlet but such a thing doesn't exist! I thought about looking in the variable: provider but I don't know how to determine the scope of a variable. So my question is: how can I test for the existence of a variable while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force, without causing an error?

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• Does this language feature already exists?

  - by Pindatjuh

  I'm currently developing a new language for programming in a continuous environment (compare it to electrical engineering), and I've got some ideas on a certain language construction. Let me explain the feature by explanation and then by definition; x = a | b; Where x is a variable and a and b are other variables (or static values). if(x == a) { // all references to "x" are essentially references to "a". } if(x == b) { // same but with "b" } if(x != a) { // ... } if(x == a | b) { // guaranteed that "x" is '"a" | "b"'; interacting with "x" // will interact with both "a" and "b". } // etc. In the above, all code-blocks are executed, but the "scope" changes in each block how x is interpreted. In the first block, x is guaranteed to be a: thus interacting with x inside that block will interact on a. The second and the third code-block are only equal in this situation (because not b only remains a). The last block guarantees that x is at least a or b. Further more; | is not the "bitwise or operator", but I've called it the "and/or"-operator. It's definition is: "|" = "and" | "or" (On my blog, http://cplang.wordpress.com/2009/12/19/binop-and-or/, is more (mathematical) background information on this operator. It's loosely based on sets.) I do not know if this construction already exists, so that's my question: does this language feature already exists?

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• How do I create efficient instance variable mutators in Matlab?

  - by Trent B

  Previously, I implemented mutators as follows, however it ran spectacularly slowly on a recursive OO algorithm I'm working on, and I suspected it may have been because I was duplicating objects on every function call... is this correct? %% Example Only obj2 = tripleAllPoints(obj1) obj.pts = obj.pts * 3; obj2 = obj1 end I then tried implementing mutators without using the output object... however, it appears that in MATLAB i can't do this - the changes won't "stick" because of a scope issue? %% Example Only tripleAllPoints(obj1) obj1.pts = obj1.pts * 3; end For application purposes, an extremely simplified version of my code (which uses OO and recursion) is below. classdef myslice properties pts % array of pts nROW % number of rows nDIM % number of dimensions subs % sub-slices end % end properties methods function calcSubs(obj) obj.subs = cell(1,obj.nROW); for i=1:obj.nROW obj.subs{i} = myslice; obj.subs{i}.pts = obj.pts(1:i,2:end); end end function vol = calcVol(obj) if obj.nROW == 1 obj.volume = prod(obj.pts); else obj.volume = 0; calcSubs(obj); for i=1:obj.nROW obj.volume = obj.volume + calcVol(obj.subs{i}); end end end end % end methods end % end classdef

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• Compile time float packing/punning

  - by detly

  I'm writing C for the PIC32MX, compiled with Microchip's PIC32 C compiler (based on GCC 3.4). My problem is this: I have some reprogrammable numeric data that is stored either on EEPROM or in the program flash of the chip. This means that when I want to store a float, I have to do some type punning: typedef union { int intval; float floatval; } IntFloat; unsigned int float_as_int(float fval) { IntFloat intf; intf.floatval = fval; return intf.intval; } // Stores an int of data in whatever storage we're using void StoreInt(unsigned int data, unsigned int address); void StoreFPVal(float data, unsigned int address) { StoreInt(float_as_int(data), address); } I also include default values as an array of compile time constants. For (unsigned) integer values this is trivial, I just use the integer literal. For floats, though, I have to use this Python snippet to convert them to their word representation to include them in the array: import struct hex(struct.unpack("I", struct.pack("f", float_value))[0]) ...and so my array of defaults has these indecipherable values like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 0x3C83126F, // Some default float value, 0.005 } (These actually take the form of X macro constructs, but that doesn't make a difference here.) Commenting is nice, but is there a better way? It's be great to be able to do something like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 COMPILE_TIME_CONVERT(0.005), // Some default float value, 0.005 } ...but I'm completely at a loss, and I don't even know if such a thing is possible. Notes Obviously "no, it isn't possible" is an acceptable answer if true. I'm not overly concerned about portability, so implementation defined behaviour is fine, undefined behaviour is not (I have the IDB appendix sitting in front of me). As fas as I'm aware, this needs to be a compile time conversion, since DEFAULTS is in the global scope. Please correct me if I'm wrong about this.

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• How to access hidden template in unnamed namespace?

  - by Johannes Schaub - litb

  Here is a tricky situation, and i wonder what ways there are to solve it namespace { template <class T> struct Template { /* ... */ }; } typedef Template<int> Template; Sadly, the Template typedef interferes with the Template template in the unnamed namespace. When you try to do Template<float> in the global scope, the compiler raises an ambiguity error between the template name and the typedef name. You don't have control over either the template name or the typedef-name. Now I want to know whether it is possible to: Create an object of the typedefed type Template (i.e Template<int>) in the global namespace. Create an object of the type Template<float> in the global namespace. You are not allowed to add anything to the unnamed namespace. Everything should be done in the global namespace. This is out of curiosity because i was wondering what tricks there are for solving such an ambiguity. It's not a practical problem i hit during daily programming.

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• Jquery dynamic button : how to bind to exisitng click event by class

  - by omer bach

  I have a click event triggered by the class selector inside the jquery ready scope: $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); This works fine for static buttons how ever this doesn't work for dynamic buttons which are added upon clicking the button with "addRowBtn" id. I'm guessing that it has something to do with that the button is created after the event is registered but still the new button has the 'testBtn' class so it makes sense it should work. Any idea what am i doing wrong and how to make the dynamic buttons registered to the class selector click event? Here is the whole code, you can copy and paste into an html, click the 'add button' and try to click the added buttons. you'll see nothing happens. <html> <head> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js'></script> <script src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1/jquery-ui.min.js'></script> <script> $(function() { $(".addRowBtn").click(function() { $("#mainTable tr:last").after("<tr><td><button class='testBtn'>NotWorking</button></td></tr>"); }); $(".testBtn").click(function() { alert("This Works"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <table id="mainTable"> <button class="addRowBtn">Add button</button> <tr><th>Testing</th></tr> <tr><td><button class='testBtn'>Working</button></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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• How do I reject if exists? for non-nested attributes?

  - by GoodGets

  Currently my controller lets a user submit muliple "links" at a time. It collects them into an array, creates them for that user, but catches any errors for the User to go back and fix. How can I ignore the creation of any links that already exist for that user? I know that I can use validates_uniqueness_of with a scope for that user, but I'd rather just ignore their creation completely. Here's my controller: @links = params[:links].values.collect{ |link| current_user.links.create(link) }.reject { |p| p.errors.empty? } Each link has a url, so I thought about checking if that link.url already exists for that user, but wasn't really sure how, or where, to do that. Should I tack this onto my controller somehow? Or should it be a new method in the model, like as in a before_validation Callback? (Note: these "links" are not nested, but they do belong_to :user.) So, I'd like to just be able to ignore the creation of these links if possible. Like if a user submits 5 links, but 2 of them already exist for him, then I'd just like for those 2 to be ignored, while the other 3 are created. How should I go about doing this?

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• Passing filtering functions to Where() in LINQ-to-SQL

  - by Daniel

  I'm trying to write a set of filtering functions that can be chained together to progressively filter a data set. What's tricky about this is that I want to be able to define the filters in a different context from that in which they'll be used. I've gotten as far as being able to pass a very basic function to the Where() clause in a LINQ statement: filters file: Func<item, bool> returnTrue = (i) => true; repository file: public IQueryable<item> getItems() { return DataContext.Items.Where(returnTrue); } This works. However, as soon as I try to use more complicated logic, the trouble begins: filters file: Func<item, bool> isAssignedToUser = (i) => i.assignedUserId == userId; repository file: public IQueryable<item> getItemsAssignedToUser(int userId) { return DataContext.Items.Where(isAssignedToUser); } This won't even build because userId isn't in the same scope as isAssignedToUser(). I've also tried declaring a function that takes the userId as a parameter: Func<item, int, bool> isAssignedToUser = (i, userId) => i.assignedUserId == userId; The problem with this is that it doesn't fit the function signature that Where() is expecting: Func<item, bool> There must be a way to do this, but I'm at a loss for how. I don't feel like I'm explaining this very well, but hopefully you get the gist. Thanks, Daniel

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• VBA: Difference in two ways of declaring a new object? (Trying to understand why my solution works)

  - by Matt

  I was creating a new object within a loop, and adding that object to a collection; but when I read back the collection after, it was always filled entirely with the last object I had added. I've come up with two ways around this, but I simply do not understand why my initial implementation was wrong. Original: Dim oItem As Variant Dim sOutput As String Dim i As Integer Dim oCollection As New Collection For i = 0 To 10 Dim oMatch As New clsMatch oMatch.setLineNumber i oCollection.Add oMatch Next For Each oItem In oCollection sOutput = sOutput & "[" & oItem.lineNumber & "]" Next MsgBox sOutput This resulted in every lineNumber being 10; I was obviously not creating new objects, but instead using the same one each time through the loop, despite the declaration being inside of the loop. So, I added Set oMatch = Nothing immediately before the Next line, and this fixed the problem, it was now 0 to 10. So if the old object was explicitly destroyed, then it was willing to create a new one? I would have thought the next iteration through the loop would cause anything declared within the loop do be destroyed due to scope? Curious, I tried another way of declaring a new object: Dim oMatch As clsMatch: Set oMatch = New clsMatch. This, too, results in 0 to 10. Can anyone explain to me why the first implementation was wrong?

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• How can I see which shared folders my program has access to?

  - by Kasper Hansen

  My program needs to read and write to folders on other machines that might be in another domain. So I used the System.Runtime.InteropServices to add shared folders. This worked fine when it was hard coded in the main menu of my windows service. But since then something went wrong and I don't know if it is a coding error or configuration error. What is the scope of a shared folder? If a thread in my program adds a shared folder, can the entire local machine see it? Is there a way to view what shared folders has been added? Or is there a way to see when a folder is added? [DllImport("NetApi32.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] internal static extern System.UInt32 NetUseAdd(string UncServerName, int Level, ref USE_INFO_2 Buf, out uint ParmError); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] internal struct USE_INFO_2 { internal LPWSTR ui2_local; internal LPWSTR ui2_remote; internal LPWSTR ui2_password; internal DWORD ui2_status; internal DWORD ui2_asg_type; internal DWORD ui2_refcount; internal DWORD ui2_usecount; internal LPWSTR ui2_username; internal LPWSTR ui2_domainname; } private void AddSharedFolder(string name, string domain, string username, string password) { if (name == null || domain == null || username == null || password == null) return; USE_INFO_2 useInfo = new USE_INFO_2(); useInfo.ui2_remote = name; useInfo.ui2_password = password; useInfo.ui2_asg_type = 0; //disk drive useInfo.ui2_usecount = 1; useInfo.ui2_username = username; useInfo.ui2_domainname = domain; uint paramErrorIndex; uint returnCode = NetUseAdd(String.Empty, 2, ref useInfo, out paramErrorIndex); if (returnCode != 0) { throw new Win32Exception((int)returnCode); } }

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• What makes this "declarator invalid"? C++

  - by nieldw

  I have Vertex template in vertex.h. From my graph.h: 20 template<class edgeDecor, class vertexDecor, bool dir> 21 class Vertex; which I use in my Graph template. I've used the Vertex template successfully throughout my Graph, return pointers to Vertices, etc. Now for the first time I am trying to declare and instantiate a Vertex object, and gcc is telling me that my 'declarator' is 'invalid'. How can this be? 81 template<class edgeDecor, class vertexDecor, bool dir> 82 Graph<edgeDecor,int,dir> Graph<edgeDecor,vertexDecor,dir>::Dijkstra(vertex s, bool print = false) const 83 { 84 /* Construct new Graph with apropriate decorators */ 85 Graph<edgeDecor,int,dir> span = new Graph<edgeDecor,int,dir>(); 86 span.E.reserve(this->E.size()); 87 88 typename Vertex<edgeDecor,int,dir> v = new Vertex(INT_MAX); 89 span.V = new vector<Vertex<edgeDecor,int,dir> >(this->V.size,v); 90 }; And gcc is saying: graph.h: In member function ‘Graph<edgeDecor, int, dir> Graph<edgeDecor, vertexDecor, dir>::Dijkstra(Vertex<edgeDecor, vertexDecor, dir>, bool) const’: graph.h:88: error: invalid declarator before ‘v’ graph.h:89: error: ‘v’ was not declared in this scope I know this is probably another noob question, but I'll appreciate any help.

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• My chance to shape our development process/policy

  - by Matt Luongo

  Hey guys, I'm sorry if this is a duplicate, but the question search terms are pretty generic. I work at a small(ish) development firm. I say small, but the company is actually a fair size; however, I'm only the second full-time developer, as most past work has been organized around contractors. I'm in a position to define internal project process and policy- obvious stuff like SCM and unit-testing. Methodology is outside the scope of the document I'm putting together, but I'd really like to push us in a leaner (and maybe even Agile?) direction. I feel like I have plenty of good practice recommendations, but not enough solid motivation to make my document the spirit guide I'd like it to be. I've separated the document into "principles" and "recommendations". Recommendations have been easy to come up with. Use SCM, strive for 1-step, regularly scheduled builds, unit test first, document as you go... Listing the principles that are supposed to be informing these recommendations, though, has been rough. I've come up with "tools work for us; we should never work for tools" and a hazy clause aimed at our QA (which has been overly manual) that I'd like to read "tedium is the root of all evil". I don't want to miss an opportunity with this document to give us a good in-house start and maybe even push us toward Agile. What principles am I missing?

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• Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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• jQueryUI Modal confirmation dialog on form submission

  - by DavidYell

  I am trying to get a modal confirmation dialog working when a user submits a form. My approach, I thought logically, would be to catch the form submission. My code is as follows, $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Confirm': function(){ //$(this).dialog('close'); return true; }, 'Cancel': function(){ $(this).dialog('close'); return false; } } }); $('#completeform').submit(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var n = $('#completeform input:checked').length; if(n == 0){ alert("Please check the item and mark as complete"); return false; }else{ var q = $('#completeform #qty').html(); if(q > 1){ $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog('open'); } } //return false; }); So I'm setting up my dialog first. This is because I'm pretty certain that the scope of the dialog needs to be at the same level as the function which calls it. However, the issue is that when you click 'Confirm' nothing happens. The submit action does not continue. I've tried $('#completeform').submit(); also, which doesn't seem to work. I have tried removing the .preventDefault() to ensure that the form submission isn't completely cancelled, but it doesn't seem to make a difference between that and returning false. Not checking the box, show and alert fine. Might change to dialog at some point ;), clicking 'Cancel' closes the dialog and remains on the page, but the elusive 'Confirm' buttons seems to not continue with the form submission event. If anyone can help, I'd happily share my lunch with you! ;)

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• [Delphi] How would you refactor this code?

  - by Al C

  This hypothetical example illustrates several problems I can't seem to get past, even though I keep trying!! ... Suppose the original code is a long event handler, coded in the UI, triggered when a user clicks a cell in a grid. Expressed as pseudocode it's: if Condition1=true then begin //loop through every cell in row, //if aCell/headerCellValue>1 then //color aCell red end else if Condition2=true then begin //do some other calculation adding cell and headerCell values, and //if some other product>2 then //color the whole row green end else show an error message I look at this and say "Ah, refactor to the strategy pattern! The code will be easier to understand, easier to debug, and easier to later extend!" I get that. And I can easily break the code into multiple procedures. The problem is ultimately scope related. Assume the pseudocode makes extensive use of grid properties, values displayed in cells, maybe even built-in grid methods. How do you move all that to another unit, without referencing the grid component in the UI--which would break all the "rules" about loose coupling that make OOP valuable? ... I'm really looking forward to responses. Thanks, as always -- Al C.

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• How to know if a device can be disabled or not?

  - by user326498

  I use the following code to enable/disable a device installed on my computer: SP_PROPCHANGE_PARAMS params; memset(&params, 0, sizeof(params)); devParams.cbSize = sizeof(devParams); params.ClassInstallHeader.cbSize = sizeof(params.ClassInstallHeader); params.ClassInstallHeader.InstallFunction = DIF_PROPERTYCHANGE; params.Scope = DICS_FLAG_GLOBAL; params.StateChange = DICS_DISABLE ; params.HwProfile = 0; // current profile if(!SetupDiSetClassInstallParams(m_hDev, &m_hDevInfo,&params.ClassInstallHeader,sizeof(SP_PROPCHANGE_PARAMS))) { dwErr = GetLastError(); return FALSE; } if(!SetupDiCallClassInstaller(DIF_PROPERTYCHANGE,m_hDev,&m_hDevInfo)) { dwErr = GetLastError(); return FALSE; } return TRUE; This code works perfectly only for those devices that can also be disabled by using Windows Device Manager, and won't work for some un-disabled devices such as my cpu device: Intel(R) Pentium(R) Dual CPU E2160 @ 1.80GHz. So the problem is how to determine if a device can be disabled or not programmatically? Is there any API to realize this goal? Thank you!

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• django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

  - by Scott Rogowski

  I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

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• Properly maintain sorted state of Array/Set

  - by Jeff

  I'm trying to get data out of my MOC and then create some new objects based on those objects, and put it all back together, while keeping my sort state. The securities come out of the MOC in proper order. And everything seems to be fine until I do the assignment to the game at the bottom from setWithArray. The documentation says that setWithArray removed the duplicate objects, if there are any. I'm wonder if that's messing up my data, but I don't see a good alternative. The data is ultimately being pulled out into a UITableView. When I add items to the game manually, then they stay sorted, so I don't think the breaking of the sort is beyond the scope of what I've included here. NSError *error; NSArray *allTheSecurities = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; if (allTheSecurities == nil) { // Handle the error. } [request release]; /**/ NSLog( @"Enumerate..." ); NSEnumerator *enumerator = [allTheSecurities objectEnumerator]; id anObject; NSMutableArray *portfolioStocks = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; while (anObject = [enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog( @"Iteration... %@", [anObject name] ); NSLog( @"Build a stock..." ); PortfolioStocks *this_stock = (PortfolioStocks *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"PortfolioStocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; NSLog( @"Set a value..." ); [this_stock setSecurity:(Security *)anObject]; [this_stock setQuantity:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0]]; NSLog( @"Add to portfolioStocks..." ); [portfolioStocks addObject:this_stock]; } //Sorted properly up to here! NSLog( @"Add to portfolio..." ); [game setPortfolio:[NSSet setWithArray:portfolioStocks]]; // <-- This is where it's not sorted anymore.

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• cakephp phone number validation

  - by hellosheikh

  i am new to cakephp 2.x so i dont know how to do this .. i want to login the user from his email address and phone number..what my intention is if the number in database is this "12345" and the user is trying to login through this number "+12345" he can be login into the system.. i have written a code but i dont know how can i use this or to adjust my code within the auth component as the auth component is autometically logging the user .. here is my controller public function beforeFilter() { parent::beforeFilter(); $this->Auth->authenticate = array( 'Authenticate.Cookie' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'userModel' => 'User', 'scope' => array('User.active' => 1) ), 'Authenticate.MultiColumn' => array( 'fields' => array( 'username' => 'email', 'password' => 'password' ), 'columns' => array('email', 'mobileNo'), 'userModel' => 'User', ) ); } public function login() { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); }else{ $this->layout='logindefault'; $this->set('title_for_layout', 'Account Login'); /*$this->Auth->logout(); $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('Auth.User'); */ if ($this->request->is('post')) { if ($this->Auth->login() || $this->Auth->loggedIn()) { if ($this->Session->check('Auth.User')){ $this->_setCookie($this->Auth->user('idUser')); $this->redirect('/users/dashboard'); } }else { $this->Session->setFlash('Incorrect Email/Password Combination'); } }} } here is the code which i am trying to add .. $mobileNo='+123456789'; if (strpos($mobileNo,'+') !== false) { $mobileNo=str_replace("+", "",$mobileNo); } ?

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• Correct way to generate order numbers in SQL Server

  - by Anton Gogolev

  This question certainly applies to a much broader scope, but here it is. I have a basic ecommerce app, where users can, naturally enough, place orders. Said orders need to have a unique number, which I'm trying to generate right now. Each order is Vendor-specific. Basically, I have an OrderNumberInfo (VendorID, OrderNumber) table. Now whenever a customer places an order I need to increment OrderNumber for a particuar Vendor and return that value. Naturally, I don't want other processes to interfere with me, so I need to exclusively lock this row somehow: begin tranaction declare @n int select @n = OrderNumber from OrderNumberInfo where VendorID = @vendorID update OrderNumberInfo set OrderNumber = @n + 1 where OrderNumber = @n and VendorID = @vendorID commit transaction Now, I've read about select ... with (updlock rowlock), pessimistic locking, etc., but just cannot fit all this in a coherent picture: How do these hints play with SQL Server 2008s' snapshot isolation? Do they perform row-level, page-level or even table-level locks? How does this tolerate multiple users trying to generate numbers for a single Vendor? What isolation levels are appropriate here? And generally - what is the way to do such things?

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• Using generics in F# to create an EnumArray type

  - by Matthew

  I've created an F# class to represent an array that allocates one element for each value of a specific enum. I'm using an explicit constructor that creates a dictionary from enum values to array indices, and an Item property so that you can write expressions like: let my_array = new EnumArray<EnumType, int> my_array.[EnumType.enum_value] <- 5 However, I'm getting the following obscure compilation error at the line marked with '// FS0670' below. error FS0670: This code is not sufficiently generic. The type variable ^e when ^e : enum<int> and ^e : equality and ^e : (static member op_Explicit : ^e -> int) could not be generalized because it would escape its scope. I'm at a loss - can anyone explain this error? type EnumArray< 'e, 'v when 'e : enum<int> and 'e : equality and ^e : (static member op_Explicit : ^e -> int) > = val enum_to_int : Dictionary<'e, int> val a : 'v array new() as this = { enum_to_int = new Dictionary<'e, int>() a = Array.zeroCreate (Enum.GetValues(typeof<'e>).Length) } then for (e : obj) in Enum.GetValues(typeof<'e>) do this.enum_to_int.Add(e :?> 'e, int(e :?> 'e)) member this.Item with get (idx : 'e) : 'v = this.a.[this.enum_to_int.[idx]] // FS0670 and set (idx : 'e) (c : 'v) = this.a.[this.enum_to_int.[idx]] <- c

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• What setting needs to be made to make .Net Automation responsive?

  - by Greg

  Have an app that is looking for application windows being created on the desktop using class Unresponsive { private StructureChangedEventHandler m_UIAeventHandler = new StructureChangedEventHandler(OnStructureChanged); public Unresponsive() { Automation.AddStructureChangedEventHandler(AutomationElement.RootElement, TreeScope.Children, m_UIAeventHandler); } private void OnStructureChanged(object sender, StructureChangedEventArgs e) { Debug.WriteLine("Change event"); } } You can see the same issue using UISpy.exe, selecting the desktop and configuring scope for children and just the structure changed event. The problem I'm trying to resolve is that the events are not raised in a timely manner, there seems to be some grouping/delay which makes the app appear to be non responsive. If you start a new app with 1 window and wait a second you get the event, seems alright. If you start the same app several times without delay (say clicking on quickstart), it's not until all of the instances of the app get 'initialised' by the AutomationProxies that you get the notice for the first app (and in short order the other apps/windows). I've sat watching task manager as each instance of the app starts to grow as it is initialised, waiting until the last app is done and then seeing the events all come in. Similarly any time any apps are starting windows within a timeframe there seems to be some blocking. I can't see how to configure this timeframe, or get each structure changed event to be sent on as soon as it happens. Also, this process of listening for structure changed events seems to be leaking, just by listening there is a leak in native memory. (visible in UISpy and my app)

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• Javascript JQUERY AJAX: When Are These Implemented

  - by Michael Moreno

  I'm learning javascript. Poked around this excellent site to gather intel. Keep coming across questions / answers about javascript, JQUERY, JQUERY with AJAX, javascript with JQUERY, AJAX alone. My conclusion: these are all individually powerful and useful. My confusion: how does one determine which/which combination to use ? I've concluded that javascript is readily available on most browsers. For example, I can extend a simple HTML page with <html> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> document.write("Hello World!"); </script> </body> </html> However, within the scope of Python/DJANGO, many of these questions are JQUERY and AJAX related. At which point or under what development circumstances would I conclude that javascript alone isn't going to "cut it", and I need to implement JQUERY and/or AJAX and/or some other permutation ?

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• How to apply CSS theme to only a specific jQuery-UI element?

  - by Thierry-Dimitri Roy

  I have a web site already build with my own CSS theme. I'm using jQuery UI "tabs" widget but no CSS from jQuery-UI. Now, I'm trying to add the "Date Picker" widget in one of my page. It would be great if I could reuse jQuery-UI default theme which is just fine. The problem is that the date picker theme is also applied to my tabs CSS. For example the "ui-widget" css properties is applied to both date picker and tabs elements. I can't seem to find a way to apply the css properties to only the date picker. I can't see a "super selector" that only applies to the date picker DIV. What would be the best way to handle this? [EDIT] The datepicker widget is really the problem. I cannot apply CSS style specific to it. Here is the starting code of the DIV that get pops up: <div style="position: absolute; top: 300.4px; left: 149px; display: block;" id="ui-datepicker-div" class="ui-datepicker ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all ui-helper-hidden-accessible"><div class="ui-datepicker-header ui-widget-header ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all"> As such, I cannot add a super selector. What would be great would be that the date picker widget supports CSS scope. But it does not. I'm stuck manually editing the jQuery CSS file. The Date Picker is currently being refactored. Hopefully the new code will address this issue.

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• Why does C++ not allow multiple types in one auto statement?

  - by Walter

  The 2011 C++ standard introduced the new keyword auto, which can be used for defining variables instead of a type, i.e. auto p=make_pair(1,2.5); // pair<int,double> auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c); // decltype(std::begin(c)) In the second line, i and end are of the same type, referred to as auto. The standard does not allow auto i=std::begin(container), e=std::end(container), x=*i; when x would be of different type. My question: why does the standard not allow this last line? It could be allowed by interpreting auto not as representing some to-be-decuded type, but as indicating that the type of any variable declared auto shall be deduced from its assigned value. Is there any good reason for the C++11 standard to not follow this approach? There is actually a use case for this, namely in the initialisation statement of for loops: for(auto i=std::begin(c), end=std::end(c), x=*i; i!=end; ++i, x+=*i) { ... } when the scope of the variables i, end, and x is limited to the for loop. AFAIK, this cannot be achieved in C++ unless those variables have a common type. Is this correct? (ugly tricks of putting all types inside a struct excluded) There may also be use cases in some variadic template applications.

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